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General Science Mixed Practice — MCQs with Answers (Set 3)

A mixed set of 23 General Science MCQs on smaller topics that have no set of their own. Each answer links to its topic Article.

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Q1. A person burned a firecracker in front of a cliff and heard its echo 5 s after it burst. The distance of the cliff from the person, if the speed of sound is 340 m/s, is close to:

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Answer: D

Sound travels to the cliff and back in 5 seconds, covering 340 x 5 = 1700 m total. The one-way distance to the cliff is half that, 850 m.

Related topics: Speed, Distance and Time

Q2. In which one of the following groups of animals, oestrus cycle is not observed?

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Answer: B

Most mammals go through an oestrus cycle, where the female is fertile only during a short “heat” period.

Cows, rats and tigers are non-primate mammals, so all of them show this oestrus cycle pattern.

Primates, including monkeys, apes and humans, do not show an oestrus cycle at all. Instead, they show a menstrual cycle, where the uterine lining sheds as bleeding if pregnancy does not occur.

So monkeys are the odd one out here, making option (b) the answer.

Related topics: Indian Elephants: Matriarchal Herds and the 22-Month Gestation

Q3. Which of the following is/are the physical test(s) employed for the manufacture of paper? I. Mechanical and strength properties II. Surface properties III. Optical properties IV. Permeability to fluids Select the correct answer using the code given below.

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Answer: D

Paper testing checks several different kinds of physical properties, and all four listed ones are real, standard categories.

Mechanical and strength tests measure things like tensile strength, tear resistance, and folding endurance.

Surface tests measure roughness, smoothness, and friction, since these affect printing and coating quality.

Optical tests measure brightness, opacity, colour, and gloss, since these decide how paper looks and prints.

Permeability tests measure how well air, water, or oil pass through the paper, which affects absorbency and packaging use.

So all four properties are genuinely tested during paper manufacture, making option (d) correct.

Related topics: Paper Industry in India

Q4. Consider the following statements with reference to manure and organic farming: 1. Vermicompost is rich in organic matter and nutrients. 2. Biofertilizers and bio-pesticides are not used in organic farming. 3. Crop rotation is beneficial in controlling insects, pests and weeds. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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Answer: B

Vermicompost is rich in nutrients, so statement 1 is true. Crop rotation helps manage pests, so statement 3 is true. Organic farming does use bio-fertilisers and bio-pesticides, so statement 2 is false.

Related topics: Detritivores: Earthworms, Millipedes, and Woodlice at Work

Q5. Why does the National Cancer Grid’s host institution, Tata Memorial Centre, sit under the Department of Atomic Energy rather than the Ministry of Health?

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Answer: A

Dr. Homi Bhabha moved the Tata Memorial Centre under the Department of Atomic Energy in 1962, foreseeing radiation’s growing role in cancer treatment.

Related topics: The National Cancer Grid

Q6. How are NCG’s treatment guidelines connected to Ayushman Bharat?

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Answer: D

Ayushman Bharat, India’s national health insurance scheme covering over 500 million people, has adopted NCG’s uniform treatment guidelines.

Related topics: The National Cancer Grid

Q7. In what year was NCG founded, and how many member centres did it start with?

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Answer: A

NCG was founded in 2012 with just 17 founding member centres, growing to over 300 today.

Related topics: The National Cancer Grid

Q8. What is the National Cancer Grid (NCG)?

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Answer: B

The answer is a network of cancer centres, research institutes and patient groups across India. It is not one hospital chain or an insurer. Its goal is uniform standards of cancer care. Memory hook: network, not hospital.

Related topics: The National Cancer Grid

Q9. Which body was activated by the NCDC to support the NJORT’s Chandipura virus response?

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Answer: B

The correct answer is Public Health Emergency Operations Centre (PHEOC). News Arena reports the NCDC activated it to support the NJORT. The IDSP option is wrong because IDSP is the surveillance programme that supports the response, not the centre that was activated. The vector-borne disease programme option is wrong because it is not named as activated. The CDSCO option is wrong because it regulates drugs. Memory hook: emergency centre, activated.

Related topics: Chandipura Virus

Q10. How many ICMR/ICAR institutes are jointly investigating the 2026 Chandipura virus outbreak?

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Answer: C

Five institutes are involved: ICMR-NIE Chennai, ICMR-NIVCR Puducherry, ICMR-NIV Pune, ICMR-NIPCR Hyderabad, and ICAR-NIVEDI Bengaluru.

Related topics: Chandipura Virus

Q11. The National Joint Outbreak Response Team (NJORT), deployed on 5 August 2026, was sent to which two states?

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Answer: B

The correct answer is Gujarat and Rajasthan. Business Standard reports the Centre sent the team to these two states after Gujarat reported 35 confirmed cases and Rajasthan reported three. The Maharashtra and Telangana option is wrong because no cases led to a team there. The Bihar and Odisha option is wrong for the same reason. The Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka option is wrong because the 2026 cases were in Gujarat and Rajasthan. Memory hook: G and R for the NJORT.

Related topics: Chandipura Virus

Q12. What is the Pradhan Mantri National Dialysis Programme (PMNDP), launched in 2016?

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Answer: B

PMNDP gives free dialysis to BPL patients at government district hospitals, under the National Health Mission.

Related topics: Chronic Kidney Disease in India: The Disease You Don’t Feel Coming

Q13. Among people who had CKD in the SEEK study, which risk factor was most common?

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Answer: C

Hypertension was the most common characteristic among CKD patients in the SEEK study, present in 64.5% of cases.

Related topics: Chronic Kidney Disease in India: The Disease You Don’t Feel Coming

Q14. In the SEEK study, only a small share of people found to have CKD already knew they had it. What was that awareness figure?

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Answer: A

Only 7.9% of people found to have CKD in the SEEK study already knew they had the condition.

Related topics: Chronic Kidney Disease in India: The Disease You Don’t Feel Coming

Q15. The SEEK study screened 5,588 people across India. What overall prevalence of Chronic Kidney Disease did it find?

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Answer: C

The answer is the SEEK study’s overall CKD prevalence, 17.2% of the people it screened. Only 7.9% of those with CKD knew they had it. Memory hook: 17 found, 8 aware.

Related topics: Chronic Kidney Disease in India: The Disease You Don’t Feel Coming

Q16. In which year was borophene first synthesised, after decades of theoretical prediction?

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Answer: B

Borophene was first synthesised in 2015, on a silver substrate using molecular beam epitaxy, after being theoretically predicted decades earlier.

Related topics: Borophene-Based Green Lubricant Research

Q17. What protective layer does borophene form on contacting surfaces during lubrication, reducing shear stress and wear?

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Answer: C

Borophene forms a durable protective tribofilm, containing iron oxides, carbonaceous species, and boron-based compounds, that reduces shear stress and improves load-bearing capacity.

Related topics: Borophene-Based Green Lubricant Research

Q18. IASST Guwahati scientists showed borophene, added to castor oil, could do what for the first time anywhere?

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Answer: A

The answer is to act as a lubricant additive. PIB reported the first demonstration of borophene as a lubricant additive on 22 July 2026. Adding just 0.1 wt.% cut friction by about 42% in castor oil. Memory hook: 0.1 in, 42 off.

Related topics: Borophene-Based Green Lubricant Research

Q19. Which of these is among LFOF’s policy recommendations, announced in July 2026?

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Answer: A

LFOF’s recommendations include HFSS taxation, front-of-pack nutrition labelling, school food environments, and marketing regulation for unhealthy food aimed at children.

Related topics: FAO and the FAO Food Price Index

Q20. What immunisation schedule does Qdenga follow?

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Answer: A

Qdenga is given as two doses of 0.5 ml each, at an interval of three months (0 and 3 months).

Related topics: India’s First Dengue Vaccine

Q21. Before its Indian approval, how many countries had Qdenga reached, and what international quality endorsement does it hold?

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Answer: B

Qdenga had already been approved in 42 countries, and holds WHO prequalification, before India’s 21 July 2026 approval.

Related topics: India’s First Dengue Vaccine

Q22. India’s CDSCO approved Qdenga for which age group?

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Answer: D

Qdenga is approved for people aged 4 to 60 years, given as two 0.5 ml doses three months apart.

Related topics: India’s First Dengue Vaccine

Q23. Which country became the first in the world to approve Qdenga, in August 2022?

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Answer: A

Indonesia approved Qdenga in August 2022, ahead of the European Union’s approval in December 2022.

Related topics: India’s First Dengue Vaccine

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