General Knowledge — Full Question Paper
Polynucleotide chain of DNA contains
- (a)a nitrogenous base, deoxyribose sugar and phosphate group
- (b)a nitrogenous base, ribose sugar and phosphate group
- (c)deoxyribose sugar, ribose sugar and phosphate group
- (d)a nitrogenous base and phosphate group only
Answer: (a) a nitrogenous base, deoxyribose sugar and phosphate group
These three components together form each nucleotide unit of DNA. View this question →
The process of copying genetic information from one strand of DNA into RNA is termed as
- (a)translation
- (b)transcription
- (c)replication
- (d)mutation
Answer: (b) transcription
It copies the DNA template into a complementary RNA strand, the first step of gene expression. View this question →
AIDS is caused by the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV). The transmission of HIV infection generally occurs through
- (a)eating contaminated food and water
- (b)transfusion of contaminated blood and blood products
- (c)inhaling polluted air
- (d)shaking hand with infected person
Answer: (b) transfusion of contaminated blood and blood products
HIV spreads through direct exchange of bodily fluids like blood, not through food, air, or casual contact. View this question →
In human body, the cell growth and differentiation are highly controlled and regulated, but in cancer cells
- (a)there is breakdown of these regulatory mechanisms leading to formation of benign and malignant tumors
- (b)controlled cell division and over-production of genetic material occur
- (c)RNA is mutated and produced in less amount
- (d)DNA is mutated and produced in less amount
Answer: (a) there is breakdown of these regulatory mechanisms leading to formation of benign and malignant tumors
This loss of control over cell division and differentiation leads to abnormal tumor growth. View this question →
Most viruses that infect plants possess
- (a)single-stranded DNA
- (b)single-stranded RNA
- (c)double-stranded DNA and RNA
- (d)double-stranded RNA only
Answer: (b) single-stranded RNA
Most plant viruses, like the well-studied Tobacco Mosaic Virus, carry their genome as single-stranded RNA. View this question →
Syngamy results in formation of
- (a)haploid zygote
- (b)diploid zygote
- (c)non-motile male gametes
- (d)motile male gametes
Answer: (b) diploid zygote
Syngamy is the fusion of two haploid gametes, restoring the diploid chromosome number in the resulting zygote. View this question →
Bleeding of gums, falling of teeth, fragile bones and delayed wound healing occur due to the deficiency of which one of the following vitamins?
- (a)Vitamin C
- (b)Vitamin K
- (c)Vitamin D
- (d)Vitamin B
Answer: (a) Vitamin C
These are the classic symptoms of scurvy, caused by a vitamin C deficiency. Vitamin C is needed to make collagen, which holds gums, bones, and wound tissue together.
Related: GenSci0003 — Biology Fundamentals for Competitive Exams
When a piece of pure silicon is doped with aluminium, then
- (a)the conductivity of the doped silicon piece will remain the same
- (b)the doped silicon piece will become n-type
- (c)the doped silicon piece will become p-type
- (d)the resistivity of the doped silicon piece will increase
Answer: (c) the doped silicon piece will become p-type
Aluminium, a trivalent element, creates electron-deficient ‘holes’ in silicon’s lattice, the hallmark of p-type doping. View this question →
Suppose voltage V is applied across a resistance R. The power dissipated in the resistance is P. Now the same voltage V is applied across a parallel combination of three equal resistors each of resistance R. Then the power dissipated in the second case will be
- (a)P
- (b)3P
- (c)P/3
- (d)2P/3
Answer: (b) 3P
Three equal resistors in parallel give an equivalent resistance of R/3, and since power equals V2/R, this triples the power dissipated for the same voltage. View this question →
Which one of the following is not a semiconductor?
- (a)Silicon
- (b)Germanium
- (c)Quartz
- (d)Gallium arsenide
Answer: (c) Quartz
As crystalline silicon dioxide, it’s an electrical insulator, unlike silicon, germanium, and gallium arsenide. View this question →
A parallel-plate capacitor, with air in between the plates, has capacitance C. Now the space between the two plates of the capacitor is filled with a dielectric of dielectric constant 7. Then the value of the capacitance will become
- (a)C
- (b)C/7
- (c)7C
- (d)14C
Answer: (c) 7C
Capacitance scales directly with the dielectric constant of the material filling the gap between the plates. View this question →
For which one of the following does the centre of mass lie outside the body?
- (a)A fountain pen
- (b)A cricket ball
- (c)A ring
- (d)A book
Answer: (c) A ring
Its centre of mass falls in the empty space at its middle, outside the actual material of the ring. View this question →
Which one of the following is a physical change?
- (a)Burning of coal
- (b)Burning of wood
- (c)Heating of a platinum crucible
- (d)Heating of potassium chlorate
Answer: (c) Heating of a platinum crucible
It simply gets hot without any chemical transformation, unlike burning coal or wood, or the thermal decomposition of potassium chlorate. View this question →
The pH value of a sample of multiple-distilled water is
- (a)zero
- (b)14
- (c)very near to zero
- (d)very near to seven
Answer: (d) very near to seven
Pure water is essentially neutral, with a pH close to 7. View this question →
Which one of the following is the most characteristic property of an element?
- (a)Density
- (b)Boiling point
- (c)Mass number
- (d)Atomic number
Answer: (d) Atomic number
It uniquely defines an element by its number of protons, unlike density, boiling point, or mass number, which can vary. View this question →
There are two elements—calcium (atomic number 20) and argon (atomic number 18). The mass number of both the elements is 40. They are therefore known as
- (a)isotones
- (b)isochores
- (c)isobars
- (d)isotopes
Answer: (c) Isobars
Elements sharing the same mass number but different atomic numbers are called isobars. View this question →
‘Plum Pudding Model’ for an atom was proposed by
- (a)Antoine Lavoisier
- (b)Robert Boyle
- (c)Ernest Rutherford
- (d)J. J. Thomson
Answer: (d) J. J. Thomson
He envisioned electrons embedded in a diffuse positive sphere, like plums in a pudding. View this question →
What is the number of atoms in 46 g of sodium-23 (N = Avogadro constant)?
- (a)N/2
- (b)N
- (c)2N
- (d)23N
Answer: (c) 2N
Sodium’s molar mass is 23 g/mol, so 46 g equals exactly 2 moles, containing 2N atoms. View this question →
Which one of the following statements is correct?
For the purpose of Census 2011
- (a)a person aged seven and above who can both read and write with understanding in any language is treated as a literate
- (b)a person aged eight and above who can both read and write with understanding in any language is treated as a literate
- (c)a person aged nine and above who can both read and write with understanding in any language is treated as a literate
- (d)a person aged ten and above who can both read and write with understanding in any language is treated as a literate
Answer: (a) a person aged seven and above…
Census 2011 defines literacy as the ability to both read and write with understanding, applied from age seven onward. View this question →
In which one of the following States is Loktak Lake situated?
- (a)Sikkim
- (b)Himachal Pradesh
- (c)Manipur
- (d)Meghalaya
Answer: (c) Manipur
Loktak Lake, the largest freshwater lake in Northeast India, lies south of Imphal in Manipur. · IndGeo0048 — Loktak Lake
The ratio of gross cropped area to the net sown area is called
- (a)cropping intensity
- (b)intensity of crop rotation
- (c)crop productivity
- (d)cropping diversity
Answer: (a) cropping intensity
Cropping intensity is the ratio of gross cropped area (total area sown, counting a field more than once if it grows more than one crop a year) to net sown area (the physical area sown at least once). A higher ratio means more multiple cropping.
Related: IndEco0024 — Major Crops and Cropping Patterns in India
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of occurrences of rivers from Chennai to Kolkata when travelled by road (shortest distance)?
- (a)Krishna, Kaveri, Godavari, Mahanadi, Subarnarekha
- (b)Krishna, Periyar, Godavari, Mahanadi, Subarnarekha
- (c)Penneru, Krishna, Godavari, Mahanadi, Subarnarekha
- (d)Penneru, Mahanadi, Subarnarekha, Godavari, Krishna
Answer: (c) Penneru, Krishna, Godavari, Mahanadi, Subarnarekha
Travelling north along the east coast from Chennai to Kolkata, these rivers are crossed in this order. View this question →
Which one of the following statements with regard to volcanoes is not correct?
- (a)Stratovolcanoes produce lava flows that initially follow valleys but are highly resistant to erosion.
- (b)The surrounding areas can remain highlands, lava ridges or mesas.
- (c)Hawaiian shield volcanoes are eroded by streams that form deeply carved valleys with steeply sloping heads.
- (d)The system of streams on a dissected volcano cone is not a radial drainage pattern.
Answer: (d) The system of streams on a dissected volcano cone is not a radial drainage pattern.
Streams on a volcanic cone actually flow outward from the peak in all directions, forming a classic radial drainage pattern. View this question →
Kwashiorkor disease in children is caused by
- (a)sufficient carbohydrates but less fats in diet
- (b)sufficient carbohydrates and fats but deficient proteins in diet
- (c)sufficient vitamins but deficient fats in diet
- (d)sufficient fats but deficient vitamins in diet
Answer: (b) sufficient carbohydrates and fats but deficient proteins in diet
Kwashiorkor is a classic protein-deficiency disease seen in children whose diets lack sufficient protein despite adequate calories. View this question →
The mammalian heart is myogenic and it is regulated by nerves. The heartbeat originates from
- (a)sinoatrial node
- (b)QRS wave
- (c)T wave
- (d)hepatic portal system
Answer: (a) sinoatrial node
This natural pacemaker in the right atrium initiates each heartbeat. View this question →
The plant growth regulators are small, simple molecules of diverse chemical composition. They are
- (a)carbohydrates, fats and proteins
- (b)indole compounds, adenine derivatives, carotenoids and terpenes
- (c)fatty acids, glucose and vitamins
- (d)vitamin C, vitamin D and glucose
Answer: (b) indole compounds, adenine derivatives, carotenoids and terpenes
These chemical classes correspond to auxins, cytokinins, abscisic acid, and gibberellins respectively. View this question →
Consider the electromagnetic radiations having wavelengths 200 nm, 500 nm and 1000 nm. Which wavelength(s) of the following can make visual sensation to a human eye?
- (a)200 nm and 500 nm
- (b)500 nm and 1000 nm
- (c)500 nm only
- (d)200 nm and 1000 nm
Answer: (c) 500 nm only
The human eye detects visible light roughly between 380-700 nm; 200 nm (UV) and 1000 nm (infrared) both fall outside this range. View this question →
A copper wire of radius r and length l has a resistance of R. A second copper wire with radius 2r and length l is taken and the two wires are joined in a parallel combination. The resultant resistance of the parallel combination of the two wires will be
- (a)5R
- (b)5/4 R
- (c)4/5 R
- (d)R/5
Answer: (d) R/5
The thicker wire (radius 2r) has four times the area, so its resistance is R/4; combining R and R/4 in parallel gives an equivalent resistance of R/5. View this question →
A parallel-plate capacitor of capacitance C1 is made using two gold plates. Another parallel-plate capacitor of capacitance C2 is made using two aluminium plates with same plate separation, and all the four plates are of same area. If ρg and ρa are respectively the electrical resistivities of gold and aluminium, then which one of the following relations is correct?
- (a)C1 > C2
- (b)C2 > C1
- (c)C1ρa = C2ρg
- (d)C1 = C2
Answer: (d) C1 = C2
Capacitance depends only on plate area, separation, and the dielectric between them, not on the resistivity of the conducting plate material itself. View this question →
A photon of X-ray has energy of 1 keV. A photon of visible radiation has energy of 3 eV. In this context, which one of the following statements is not correct?
- (a)The wavelength of X-ray photon is less than the wavelength of visible radiation photon.
- (b)Both the photons have different energies.
- (c)The speeds of both the photons in vacuum are different.
- (d)The frequency of X-ray photon is higher than the frequency of visible radiation photon.
Answer: (c) The speeds of both the photons in vacuum are different.
All photons, regardless of energy or wavelength, travel at the same speed of light in vacuum. View this question →
The optical phenomenon that is primarily responsible for the observation of rainbow on a rainy day is
- (a)diffraction
- (b)interference
- (c)dispersion
- (d)reflection
Answer: (c) dispersion
Sunlight splits into its component colours as it refracts through raindrops, forming the rainbow’s characteristic spectrum. View this question →
With regard to ‘Project Tiger’, which one of the following statements is not correct?
- (a)It was launched in India in the year 1973.
- (b)The objective of the Project is to preserve the habitats and tigers therein as natural heritage.
- (c)The Project emphasized to ensure viable population of tigers in India.
- (d)There are no Tiger Reserves in north-eastern part of India.
Answer: (d) There are no Tiger Reserves in north-eastern part of India.
Northeastern India does have Tiger Reserves — Manas, Nameri, Namdapha, Pakke, Kamlang, and Dampa are all notified reserves in Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, and Mizoram. Related: EnvEco0003 — India’s Conservation Framework: Forests, Laws and Debates · EnvEco0038 — Project Tiger and NTCA.
Which one of the following is not a biosphere reserve of India?
- (a)Agasthyamalai
- (b)Nokrek
- (c)Great Nicobar
- (d)Great Himalayan
Answer: (d) Great Himalayan
Agasthyamalai, Nokrek, and Great Nicobar are all designated biosphere reserves. The Great Himalayan National Park is a National Park and UNESCO World Heritage Site, but it is not one of India’s 18 biosphere reserves. · IndGeo0052 — Biosphere Reserves of India
Which one of the following statements with regard to the Indian Railways is not correct?
- (a)The Indian rail networks have been developed throughout the Konkan coast.
- (b)There is very low density of railway lines in the Himalayan region.
- (c)The north Indian plain has a dense network of railway.
- (d)At present, India has the largest railway network in the world.
Answer: (d) At present, India has the largest railway network in the world.
India’s rail network is among the world’s largest but ranks around fourth, behind the United States, Russia, and China. View this question →
Which of the following statements with regard to the Mediterranean agriculture is/are correct?
1. The Mediterranean agriculture is highly specialized commercial agriculture.
2. It is intensive subsistence agriculture dominated by wet paddy cultivation.
3. It is a primitive subsistence agriculture.
4. Viticulture is a speciality of the Mediterranean region.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 and 3
- (c)1 and 4 only
- (d)1, 3 and 4
Answer: (c) 1 and 4 only
Mediterranean agriculture is commercial and export-oriented, famous for grape and olive cultivation, not the wet paddy or primitive subsistence farming described in the other statements. View this question →
Which one of the following statements with regard to the winter solstice is correct?
- (a)The South Pole experiences 24 hours of darkness.
- (b)It occurs on June 21.
- (c)The North Pole experiences 24 hours of darkness.
- (d)The Sun is at aphelion.
Answer: (c) The North Pole experiences 24 hours of darkness.
At the December winter solstice in the Northern Hemisphere, the North Pole is tilted fully away from the Sun. View this question →
Tropical evergreen rain forest biome provides optimum environmental conditions for the growth of plants and animals. Which one among the following statements regarding this is not correct?
- (a)It has heavy rainfall and high temperature throughout the year.
- (b)This biome is also called megathermal biome.
- (c)The evergreen rain forest biome extends between 10° N and 10° S latitudes.
- (d)The maximum development of this biome has taken place in central and southern California, and north-western coastal lands of Africa.
Answer: (d) The maximum development of this biome has taken place in central and southern California, and north-western coastal lands of Africa.
The world’s major tropical rainforests are actually concentrated in the Amazon Basin, the Congo Basin, and Southeast Asia, not in California or north-west Africa. View this question →
Tsunami waves are the undersea occurrence of earthquake exceeding 7.5 on Richter scale. Which one of the following statements regarding this is not correct?
- (a)It often generates strong waves.
- (b)The Pacific coasts are most vulnerable to Tsunami waves.
- (c)Tsunami waves are also called high-energy tidal waves or seismic sea waves.
- (d)Tsunami is a Latin word.
Answer: (d) Tsunami is a Latin word.
“Tsunami” is actually a Japanese word (tsu = harbor, nami = wave), not Latin. Related: EnvEco0006 — Nuclear and Biological Disasters: India’s Major Case Studies.
Which of the following statements with regard to cloudburst is/are correct?
1. It is defined as sudden localized very heavy downpour with cloud thunder and lightning.
2. It mostly occurs in the hilly areas.
3. It results into very high intensity of rainfall, i.e., 250 mm-300 mm in a couple of hours.
4. It occurs only during daytime.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1, 2 and 3
- (b)1, 3 and 4
- (c)2 and 3 only
- (d)2 only
Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3
Cloudbursts are sudden, intense, localized rain events common in hilly terrain, but they aren’t restricted to daytime and can strike at any hour. View this question →
Which one of the following with regard to Aridisol, one of the soil orders, is not correct?
- (a)Lack of water for plants during most part of the year
- (b)High organic matter
- (c)Large accumulation of carbonates at depth
- (d)Absence of deep wide cracks
Answer: (b) High organic matter
Aridisols, the soils of dry desert regions, actually have very low organic matter due to sparse vegetation cover. View this question →
What is the maximum number of states of matter?
- (a)Three
- (b)Four
- (c)Five
- (d)Variable
Answer: (d) Variable
Beyond the classical solid, liquid, gas, and plasma states, physicists continue identifying additional exotic states like Bose-Einstein condensates, so there’s no fixed maximum. View this question →
The chemical properties of an element depend upon
- (a)the number of isotopes of the element
- (b)the mass number of the element
- (c)the total number of neutrons in the element
- (d)the number of electrons in the outermost shell of the element
Answer: (d) the number of electrons in the outermost shell of the element
These valence electrons determine how an element bonds and reacts chemically. View this question →
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
- (a)The cathode rays originate from cathode and proceed towards the anode in a cathode-ray discharge tube.
- (b)The television picture tubes are nothing but cathode-ray tubes.
- (c)The cathode rays themselves are not visible.
- (d)The characteristics of cathode rays depend upon the nature of the gas present in the cathode-ray tube.
Answer: (d) The characteristics of cathode rays depend upon the nature of the gas present in the cathode-ray tube.
Thomson’s experiments showed cathode ray properties, like their charge-to-mass ratio, are independent of the gas used or the cathode material, proving they’re a universal particle (the electron). View this question →
The molecular mass of sulphuric acid is 98. If 49 g of the acid is dissolved in water to make one litre of solution, what will be the strength of the acid?
- (a)Two normal
- (b)One normal
- (c)0.5 normal
- (d)Four normal
Answer: (b) One normal
Sulphuric acid’s equivalent weight is 98/2=49 (being diprotic), so 49 g per litre gives exactly one gram-equivalent per litre, or 1N. View this question →
Which one of the following statements with regard to Jet stream, an upper level tropospheric wave, is not correct?
- (a)It is a narrow band of high-velocity wind.
- (b)It follows the wave path near the tropopause at elevations of 8 km to 15 km.
- (c)Jet streams are typically continuous over long distances.
- (d)In summer, the polar front jet achieves its maximum force.
Answer: (d) In summer, the polar front jet achieves its maximum force.
The polar front jet actually reaches its maximum intensity in winter, when the temperature contrast between polar and mid-latitude air is greatest. View this question →
The Gulf Stream is a poleward flowing current in the Atlantic Ocean. Which one of the following statements with regard to this is not correct?
- (a)It is similar to the Kuroshio current in the North Pacific Ocean.
- (b)It transports warm, tropical water towards polar region.
- (c)This current is a major factor in weather along the east coast of the USA.
- (d)The warm water of the Gulf Stream sustains the coral reefs of West Pacific Coast.
Answer: (d) The warm water of the Gulf Stream sustains the coral reefs of West Pacific Coast.
The Gulf Stream flows in the Atlantic Ocean, so it cannot possibly affect reefs on the Pacific coast. View this question →
Which one of the following about sugar industry of Peninsular India is not correct?
- (a)High yield per hectare of sugarcane
- (b)Higher sucrose content
- (c)Long crushing season
- (d)Most of the mills in the Peninsula are located mainly along the east coast
Answer: (d) Most of the mills in the Peninsula are located mainly along the east coast
Peninsular sugar mills cluster inland near the cane-growing tracts of Maharashtra and Karnataka, not specifically along the east coast. View this question →
‘Rand/ZAR’ is the currency of
- (a)Burundi
- (b)Libya
- (c)Sudan
- (d)South Africa
Answer: (d) South Africa
The South African Rand carries the currency code ZAR. View this question →
Which one of the following ports is located on estuary?
- (a)Kandala
- (b)Marmagao
- (c)Kolkata-Haldia
- (d)Tuticorin
Answer: (c) Kolkata-Haldia
This port complex sits on the Hooghly river estuary. View this question →
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
- (a)Pavo cristatus is the national bird of India.
- (b)Nelumbo nucifera Gaertn is the national flower of India.
- (c)Ficus benghalensis is the national tree of India.
- (d)Mangifera indica is the national animal of India.
Answer: (d) Mangifera indica is the national animal of India.
The mango is India’s national fruit, not its national animal, which is the tiger. View this question →
Which one of the following statements is correct in relation to the GST Bill passed by the Rajya Sabha in August 2016?
- (a)It will replace all central taxes, duties, etc., only by a single tax.
- (b)It will subsume central as well as State taxes, duties, etc.
- (c)GST will be levied on alcoholic liquor for human consumption at a uniform rate of 25 percent.
- (d)Petroleum and petroleum products shall not be subjected to the levy of GST.
Answer: (b) It will subsume central as well as State taxes, duties, etc.
Alcohol for human consumption was kept entirely outside GST, and petroleum products were only temporarily excluded, to be brought in later. View this question →
The sensitive information leaked in August 2016 concerns which one of the following defence platforms of India?
- (a)Fifth Generation Fighter Aircraft
- (b)Combat Helicopters
- (c)Submarines
- (d)Unmanned Aerial Vehicles
Answer: (c) Submarines
Confidential data on the Scorpene-class submarines being built in India was leaked in August 2016. View this question →
How many medals were won by India in 2016 Summer Olympics?
- (a)One Silver and one Bronze
- (b)Two Gold
- (c)Two Bronze
- (d)None
Answer: (a) One Silver and one Bronze
PV Sindhu won silver in badminton and Sakshi Malik won bronze in wrestling at Rio 2016. View this question →
India became a member of which one of the following in 2016?
- (a)Non-Proliferation Treaty
- (b)Missile Technology Control Regime
- (c)Nuclear Suppliers Group
- (d)Wassenaar Arrangement
Answer: (b) Missile Technology Control Regime
India joined MTCR in June 2016. Its NSG bid stalled that year, and Wassenaar membership only came in December 2017. View this question →
India signed an agreement in 2016 to develop a strategic port in one of its neighbouring countries. What is the name of the port?
- (a)Chabahar
- (b)Gwadar
- (c)Hambantota
- (d)Mongla
Answer: (a) Chabahar
India signed the agreement to develop this Iranian port in May 2016, opening a trade route bypassing Pakistan. View this question →
Which one of the following statements is not correct in respect of the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC)?
- (a)Its Headquarters is located in Kathmandu.
- (b)China is the only country with an Observer status in SAARC.
- (c)The First SAARC Summit was held in Dhaka.
- (d)The Eighteenth SAARC Summit was held in Nepal.
Answer: (b) China is the only country with an Observer status in SAARC.
This is the incorrect statement. SAARC actually has nine Observers: Australia, China, the European Union, Iran, Japan, South Korea, Mauritius, Myanmar, and the United States. The other three statements are all correct — the SAARC Secretariat is in Kathmandu, the First SAARC Summit was held in Dhaka in 1985, and the Eighteenth SAARC Summit was held in Kathmandu, Nepal, in November 2014.
Related: IntlRel0001 — India’s Foreign Policy Fundamentals and SAARC
Which of the following statements about the Ilbert Bill (1883) is/are correct?
1. It proposed to grant limited criminal jurisdiction to native officials.
2. It proposed to grant complete civil and criminal jurisdiction to native officials.
3. The proposed Bill generated opposition from England’s European subjects in India.
4. In spite of opposition to the Bill, it was passed without any modifications.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 and 2
- (b)2 only
- (c)1 and 3
- (d)3 and 4
Answer: (c) 1 and 3
Statements 1 and 3 are correct: the Ilbert Bill proposed limited criminal jurisdiction for Indian officials over Europeans and provoked fierce opposition from European settlers. Statement 2 is wrong (it was not complete civil and criminal jurisdiction) and statement 4 is wrong (the bill was diluted, not passed unchanged).
Related: ModHist0007 — Ripon’s Local Self-Government and the Ilbert Bill Controversy · View this question →
Consider the following statements about the Second Five-Year Plan :
1. It was drafted under the leadership of K. N. Raj.
2. It proposed that industries like electricity, railways, steel, machineries and communication could be developed in the public sector.
3. The drafters found balancing industry and agriculture very difficult.
4. The drafters found balancing industry and agriculture really easy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a)1 only
- (b)1 and 2
- (c)2 and 3
- (d)3 and 4
Answer: (c) 2 and 3
The Second Five-Year Plan was actually drafted under P.C. Mahalanobis, not K.N. Raj, so statement 1 is wrong. It did propose developing electricity, railways, steel, machinery and communication in the public sector, and its drafters genuinely found balancing industry against agriculture very difficult, not easy — making 2 and 3 correct.
Consider the following statements about the different meanings of ‘Swaraj’ as articulated by Mahatma Gandhi :
1. Swaraj is intimately linked with Ahimsa (non-violence) and Satyagraha (adherence to truth).
2. Swaraj has two senses—one political and one beyond the realm of politics.
3. Swaraj is something that requires time and patience to acquire.
4. With determination, Swaraj could be obtained easily and quickly.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a)1 only
- (b)1 and 2 only
- (c)3 and 4
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Gandhi tied Swaraj to non-violence and truth, gave it both political and personal dimensions, and insisted it demanded patience, explicitly rejecting any notion that it could be won quickly or easily. View this question →
What was/were the formative influence(s) on the philosophy of Mahatma Gandhi?
1. Gandhiji was influenced by the 18th century Pranami sect that advocated the unity of faiths.
2. Gandhiji was influenced by the theosophists.
3. Gandhiji was an admirer of the writings of Romantics like Wordsworth.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)1, 2 and 3
- (d)1 only
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Gandhi’s family background in the syncretic Pranami tradition and his engagement with theosophist circles in London were genuine influences; his key literary influences were Tolstoy, Ruskin, and Thoreau, not the Romantic poets. View this question →
Which of the following statements about the Shiromani Gurudwara Prabandhak Committee (SGPC) are correct?
1. It began as the political wing of the Singh Sabhas in the late 19th century.
2. It was formed in 1920 as part of the upcoming Akali movement.
3. It was founded to reclaim control of the Sikh shrines from the government manipulated loyalist committees.
4. It formed the Akali Dal to coordinate groups (Jathas) to reclaim control of the shrines.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1, 3 and 4
- (b)2, 3 and 4
- (c)2 and 4 only
- (d)2 and 3 only
Answer: (b) 2, 3 and 4
The SGPC was formed in 1920 to wrest control of Sikh shrines from loyalist committees and set up the Akali Dal to coordinate jathas, but it wasn’t a political wing of the earlier Singh Sabha movement. View this question →
Which of the following statements with regard to the speech of Mahatma Gandhi at the opening of the Banaras Hindu University are correct?
1. He charged the Indian elite with a lack of concern for the labouring poor.
2. He asserted that our salvation can come only through the farmers.
3. He highlighted the plight of the untouchables.
4. He promised to take up the cause of the mill owners of Ahmedabad.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1, 2, 3 and 4
- (b)1 and 2 only
- (c)1, 2 and 3 only
- (d)3 and 4 only
Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
Gandhi’s 1916 BHU speech is remembered for criticising elite indifference to the poor, farmers, and untouchables; he was famously a champion of Ahmedabad’s mill workers against the mill owners, not the other way round. View this question →
To be eligible to contest election under the Haryana Panchayati Raj (Amendment) Act, 2015, a candidate should
1. have a functional toilet at home
2. have payment slips of power bills
3. not be a cooperative loan defaulter
4. have studied minimum matriculation irrespective of category
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1, 2 and 3 only
- (b)1, 2 and 4 only
- (c)1, 2, 3 and 4
- (d)3 and 4 only
Answer: (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
The controversial 2015 Haryana amendment imposed all these conditions, including a functional toilet, cleared electricity bills, no cooperative loan default, and minimum educational qualification. View this question →
Arrange the following Commissions chronologically on the basis of their date of setting :
1. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission
2. The Eleventh Finance Commission
3. Punchhi Commission
4. Sarkaria Commission
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)4, 2, 1, 3
- (b)4, 3, 2, 1
- (c)3, 2, 4, 1
- (d)3, 4, 1, 2
Answer: (a) 4, 2, 1, 3
The Sarkaria Commission was set up in 1983, the Eleventh Finance Commission in 1998, the Second ARC in 2005, and the Punchhi Commission in 2007. View this question →
Who among the following won a Gold medal for India in Men’s Javelin Throw event at the 2016 Rio Paralympic Games?
- (a)Rinku Hooda
- (b)Devendra Jhajharia
- (c)Sundar Singh Gurjar
- (d)Mariyappan Thangavelu
Answer: (b) Devendra Jhajharia
He won gold in the F46 javelin throw category at the 2016 Rio Paralympics, setting a new world record. View this question →
Which of the following statements with regard to Panchayats in India are correct?
1. Seats in a Panchayat are filled by direct election from the territorial constituencies in the Panchayat area.
2. The Gram Sabha is the body of persons registered in the electoral rolls relating to a village within the Panchayat area.
3. The Panchayats work on the principle of constitutional autonomy.
4. The State Legislature may by law endow the Panchayats with the power and authority to enable them to function.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1, 2 and 3
- (b)2, 3 and 4
- (c)1, 2 and 4
- (d)1 and 4 only
Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 4
Panchayat seats are directly elected, the Gram Sabha matches this electoral-roll definition, and State Legislatures grant Panchayats their powers by law; Panchayats don’t enjoy independent constitutional autonomy. View this question →
Which of the following statements regarding Indian federal system is/are correct?
1. All States have equal representation in the Rajya Sabha.
2. Consent of a State is not required for altering its boundaries.
3. There is no dual citizenship in India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1, 2 and 3
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)1 and 3 only
- (d)2 only
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Rajya Sabha seats are allocated by population, not equally; Parliament can alter state boundaries without the state’s consent; and India recognises no dual citizenship. View this question →
Which of the following are the powers of the Supreme Court of India?
1. Original jurisdiction in a dispute between the Government of India and one or more States
2. The power to hear appeals from the High Courts
3. Passing decrees and orders for doing justice in any matter before it
4. Render advice to the President of India in matters of law
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1, 2, 3 and 4
- (b)1, 2 and 3 only
- (c)1 and 2 only
- (d)3 and 4 only
Answer: (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
These correspond respectively to the Supreme Court’s original jurisdiction (Article 131), appellate jurisdiction, complete-justice power (Article 142), and advisory jurisdiction (Article 143). View this question →
Which one of the following is not a component of Revenue Receipts of the Union Government?
- (a)Corporate tax receipts
- (b)Dividends and profits
- (c)Disinvestment receipts
- (d)Interest receipts
Answer: (c) Disinvestment receipts
Selling off government equity is a capital receipt, not a revenue receipt, unlike tax collections, dividends, and interest earnings. View this question →
TRIPS Agreement pertains to
- (a)international tariff regime
- (b)intellectual property protection
- (c)international practices on trade facilitation
- (d)international taxation of property
Answer: (b) intellectual property protection
TRIPS sets global minimum standards for protecting patents, copyrights, trademarks, and other IP rights. View this question →
The 7.6% growth rate registered by Indian economy during the year 2015-16 is based on
- (a)Gross National Product at market prices
- (b)Gross Value Added at constant prices
- (c)Gross Domestic Product at market prices
- (d)Gross Domestic Product at constant prices
Answer: (d) Gross Domestic Product at constant prices
India’s official growth rate figures are calculated using constant-price GDP to strip out the effect of inflation. View this question →
Which of the following statements about the Trans-Pacific Partnership (TPP) is/are correct?
1. The TPP was signed by 12 Pacific Rim nations in the year 2015.
2. The TPP is likely to be a game-changer in global trade as member countries account for about 40 percent of global GDP.
3. India is a founder member of TPP.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1, 2 and 3
- (b)1 and 2 only
- (c)2 and 3 only
- (d)1 only
Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only
Twelve Pacific Rim nations signed the TPP in 2015, representing roughly 40% of global GDP; India was never a member of the agreement. View this question →
Which of the following statements about Bitcoin is/are correct?
1. It is a decentralized virtual currency.
2. It is generated through complex computer software systems.
3. The Reserve Bank of India recognized it as a legal tender in January 2016.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 only
- (b)1 and 2 only
- (c)2 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only
Bitcoin is indeed a decentralized virtual currency generated through mining software, but the RBI has never recognised it as legal tender. View this question →
Hindustan Aeronautics Limited handed over the first two indigenously designed and manufactured light combat aircrafts to the Indian Air Force in 2016. What is the name of these new combat aircrafts?
- (a)Marut
- (b)Garud
- (c)Tejas
- (d)Pushpak
Answer: (c) Tejas
Tejas is India’s indigenous single-engine light combat aircraft, designed by DRDO’s Aeronautical Development Agency and built by HAL. The first Tejas squadron was raised on 1 July 2016.
Consider the following statement about a famous football player : “He was diagnosed with a growth hormone deficiency during his childhood but went on to win three European Golden Shoes in his career.” Who is that player?
- (a)Andres Iniesta
- (b)Lionel Messi
- (c)Cristiano Ronaldo
- (d)Zinedine Zidane
Answer: (b) Lionel Messi
He was famously treated for growth hormone deficiency as a child before rising to become one of football’s greatest players. View this question →
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. In June 2016, the LIGO group of scientists announced the detection of a second set of gravitational waves.
2. Gravitational waves were generated due to merger of two black holes at about 1.4 billion light-years distant.
3. Gravitational waves were inserted due to collision of two white dwarf stars at about 1.4 billion light-years distant.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 only
- (b)1 and 2 only
- (c)2 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only
LIGO’s second gravitational wave detection, announced in June 2016, came from two merging black holes about 1.4 billion light-years away, not colliding white dwarfs. View this question →
In the year 2016, the Government of India announced a ₹6,000 crore special package for the textile and apparel sector to
1. create one crore jobs within three years
2. create jobs equally for men and women
3. provide tax and production incentives for the entrepreneurs
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)1 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only
The 2016 textile package aimed to create a crore jobs with tax and production incentives, with a particular focus on women’s employment in the garment sector, rather than an equal-gender jobs target. View this question →
Which one of the following is not an Inter-Services Establishment?
- (a)Officers Training Academy
- (b)National Defence Academy
- (c)National Defence College
- (d)Armed Forces Medical College
Answer: (a) Officers Training Academy
It trains officers for the Army alone, unlike the tri-service NDA, NDC, and AFMC. View this question →
Which one of the following is a Peacetime Gallantry Award?
- (a)Shaurya Chakra
- (b)Vir Chakra
- (c)Yudh Seva Medal
- (d)Param Vir Chakra
Answer: (a) Shaurya Chakra
It recognises gallantry away from the battlefield, unlike the Vir Chakra and Param Vir Chakra, which are wartime awards. View this question →
The Headquarters of the Southern Naval Command of the Indian Navy is located at which one of the following places?
- (a)Karwar
- (b)Kochi
- (c)Thiruvananthapuram
- (d)Chennai
Answer: Kochi
The Headquarters of the Southern Naval Command of the Indian Navy is located at Kochi in Kerala.
Related: GK0035 — Kerala
| List I | List II |
|---|---|
| A. Rowlatt Act | 1. 1922 |
| B. Salt March | 2. 1931 |
| C. Chauri Chaura Incident | 3. 1930 |
| D. Second Round Table Conference | 4. 1919 |
Code :
| A | B | C | D | |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (a) | 4 | 3 | 1 | 2 |
| (b) | 3 | 1 | 4 | 2 |
| (c) | 4 | 3 | 2 | 1 |
| (d) | 3 | 4 | 2 | 1 |
Answer: (a) A-4 B-3 C-1 D-2
The Rowlatt Act was passed in 1919, the Salt March happened in 1930, the Chauri Chaura incident occurred in 1922, and the Second Round Table Conference met in 1931. View this question →
Consider the following statements about the Salt March :
1. The Salt March was deliberately ignored by the European media.
2. The Salt March was widely covered by the American and European press.
3. The Salt March was the first nationalist activity in which women participated in large numbers.
4. The Salt March impressed upon the British the urgent need to devolve more power to Indians.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a)1, 2 and 4
- (b)2, 3 and 4
- (c)3 and 4 only
- (d)2 and 3 only
Answer: (b) 2, 3 and 4
The march drew heavy international press coverage, saw large-scale women’s participation for the first time, and pushed the British toward the Round Table Conferences. View this question →
In the elections to the provincial legislatures in 1937 in British India
1. only about 10 to 12 percent of the population had the right to vote
2. the untouchables had no right to vote
3. the Congress won an absolute majority in five out of eleven provinces
4. the Muslim League won more than 80 percent of the seats reserved for Muslims
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1, 3 and 4
- (b)1 and 4 only
- (c)1 and 3 only
- (d)2, 3 and 4
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only
Roughly 10-12% of the population had the franchise, and Congress won absolute majorities in five provinces; untouchables actually held reserved seats and could vote, and the Muslim League performed poorly. View this question →
Which of the following statements about the social base of the Arya Samaj in British India is/are correct?
1. It was located mainly in Punjab and western Uttar Pradesh.
2. It mainly comprised the trading castes.
3. It was much more limited than that of the Brahmo Samaj.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)1 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct: the Arya Samaj’s base was mainly Punjab and western Uttar Pradesh, drawn heavily from trading and mercantile castes such as the Khatris. Statement 3 is wrong – the Arya Samaj’s reach was WIDER than the Brahmo Samaj’s, not more limited.
Related: ModHist0001 — The Age of Indian Renaissance: Dayananda Saraswati and Pandita Ramabai · View this question →
Who among the following is the author of the book, A Comparison between Women and Men?
- (a)Pandita Ramabai
- (b)Sarojini Naidu
- (c)Tarabai Shinde
- (d)Rameshwari Nehru
Answer: (c) Tarabai Shinde
Her 1882 work ‘Stri Purush Tulana’ is an early, sharp critique of gender double standards in Indian society. View this question →
The fact that the planets move around the Sun, not in circles but in ellipses, was first demonstrated by
- (a)Galileo
- (b)Martin Luther
- (c)Johannes Kepler
- (d)Copernicus
Answer: (c) Johannes Kepler
His laws of planetary motion established that planets orbit the Sun in elliptical, not circular, paths. View this question →
During the mid 19th century Industrial Revolution, the average life span of workers in Manchester was
- (a)17 years
- (b)30 years
- (c)55 years
- (d)62 years
Answer: (a) 17 years
Harsh factory conditions, child labour, and disease in industrial Manchester drove average worker lifespans shockingly low. View this question →
George Washington was made the Commander in Chief of the American forces
- (a)in December 1773, after the Boston Tea Party
- (b)at the First Continental Congress in September 1774
- (c)at the Second Continental Congress in 1775
- (d)by the Continental Congress at the Declaration of Independence on 4th July, 1776
Answer: (c) at the Second Continental Congress in 1775
This body appointed Washington to lead the newly formed Continental Army. View this question →
Alexander Kerensky was
- (a)the head of the Provisional Government in Russia before the October Revolution
- (b)a close confidant of Lenin, with whose help the Czar was dethroned
- (c)the head of the Czar’s army
- (d)an advisor of Joseph Stalin
Answer: (a) the head of the Provisional Government in Russia before the October Revolution
Kerensky led this government between the February and October 1917 revolutions, before the Bolsheviks overthrew it. View this question →
The Twelfth Five-Year Plan focussed on inclusive growth. Which of the following were considered as challenges for inclusiveness?
1. Poverty
2. Group inequality
3. Regional imbalance
4. Unemployment
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1, 3 and 4 only
- (b)1, 2, 3 and 4
- (c)1, 2 and 4 only
- (d)2 and 3 only
Answer: (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
The Twelfth Plan’s own approach papers named all four — poverty, group inequality, regional imbalance and unemployment — as challenges to inclusiveness, not just some of them.
Which of the following statements are correct about ‘Saakshar Bharat’ scheme?
1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme which was launched during the Eleventh Five-Year Plan.
2. The scheme applies to women in particular and disadvantaged groups in general.
3. The scheme applies to persons above the age of 10 years.
4. The scheme is anchored with Panchayati Raj Institutions and Local Self-Government.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1, 2 and 3
- (b)2, 3 and 4
- (c)1, 2 and 4
- (d)1, 3 and 4
Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 4
Saakshar Bharat launched in the 11th Plan period, targeted women and disadvantaged groups through Panchayati Raj institutions, and covered non-literate adults aged 15 and above, not from age 10. View this question →
BRICS Summit, 2016 was held in
- (a)Brazil
- (b)China
- (c)India
- (d)South Africa
Answer: (c) India
The 8th BRICS Summit was hosted in Goa in October 2016. View this question →
Which country signed a Memorandum of Understanding with India for promoting the production of Pigeon peas/Tur and other pulses in July 2016?
- (a)South Africa
- (b)Syria
- (c)Egypt
- (d)Mozambique
Answer: (d) Mozambique
This MoU aimed to boost pulses production there and secure supply for India’s domestic market. View this question →
Which of the following statements relating to the powers of the President of India is/are correct?
1. The executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President.
2. The executive power shall be exercised by the President only through officers subordinate to him.
3. The supreme command of the defence forces of the Union shall be vested in the President.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1, 2 and 3
- (b)1 and 2 only
- (c)1 and 3 only
- (d)3 only
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only
Article 53 vests executive power and supreme command of the defence forces in the President, but that power can be exercised either directly or through subordinate officers, not exclusively through subordinates. View this question →
Which of the following statements regarding Article 21 of the Constitution of India is/are correct?
1. Article 21 is violated when the under-trial prisoners are detained under judicial custody for an indefinite period.
2. Right to life is one of the basic human rights and not even the State has the authority to violate that right.
3. Under Article 21, the right of a woman to make reproductive choices is not a dimension of personal liberty.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1, 2 and 3
- (b)1 and 2 only
- (c)1 and 3 only
- (d)2 only
Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only
Indefinite pretrial detention does violate Article 21, and the right to life cannot be arbitrarily denied even by the State; the Supreme Court has actually held that reproductive choice IS part of personal liberty under Article 21. View this question →
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Right to Education in India?
1. Free and compulsory education should be provided to all children of the age of six to fourteen years.
2. The imperative of the provision of the Right to Education Act, 2009 is that schools must have qualified teachers and basic infrastructure.
3. There should be quality education without any discrimination on the ground of economic, social and cultural background.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1, 2 and 3
- (b)1 and 2 only
- (c)1 and 3 only
- (d)3 only
Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3
The RTE Act guarantees free education for ages six to fourteen, mandates qualified teachers and basic infrastructure, and requires non-discriminatory quality education for all children. View this question →
Which one of the following statements regarding freedom to manage religious affairs as per the Constitution of India is not correct?
- (a)Every religious denomination shall have the right to manage its own affairs in matters of religion except some minor communities.
- (b)Every religion or any section thereof shall have the right to own and acquire movable and immovable property.
- (c)Every religious community has the right to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes.
- (d)Every community has the right to manage its own affairs in matters of religion.
Answer: (a) Every religious denomination shall have the right to manage its own affairs in matters of religion except some minor communities.
Article 26 grants this right to every religious denomination without carving out any exception for smaller communities. View this question →
Which one of the following statements relating to protection against arrest and detention of individuals under Article 22 is not correct?
- (a)No person who is arrested shall be detained in custody without being informed of the grounds for such arrest.
- (b)No person shall be denied the right to consult, and be defended by, a legal practitioner of his/her choice.
- (c)Every person who is arrested and detained in custody shall be produced before the nearest Magistrate within a period of one week of such arrest.
- (d)The right to protection against arrest is not available to a person in jail pursuant to a judicial order.
Answer: (c)
Article 22(2) actually requires production before the nearest Magistrate within 24 hours of arrest, excluding journey time — not within a week. Statements (a), (b), and (d) all correctly state real Article 22 protections. (Source: Article 22, Constitution of India)
Related: Polity0092 — The National Security Act, 1980, and its Misuse.
Which one of the following intellectual property rights is protected without making any registration?
- (a)Copyright
- (b)Patent
- (c)Industrial design
- (d)Trademark
Answer: (a) Copyright
It arises automatically the moment an original work is created, with no registration required. View this question →
Which one of the following indices is now used by the Reserve Bank of India to measure the rate of inflation in India?
- (a)NASDAQ Index
- (b)BSE Index
- (c)Consumer Price Index
- (d)Wholesale Price Index
Answer: (c) Consumer Price Index
The RBI shifted its primary inflation-targeting benchmark from WPI to CPI. View this question →
The Most Favoured Nation (MFN) Clause under WTO regime is based on the principle of
- (a)non-discrimination between nations
- (b)discrimination between nations
- (c)differential treatment between locals and foreigners
- (d)uniform tariff across commodities
Answer: (a) non-discrimination between nations
The MFN Clause requires a WTO member to extend any trade advantage it grants one country to all other WTO members equally. This is the core non-discrimination principle underlying the WTO trading system, not a form of discrimination, differential local-versus-foreign treatment, or a uniform tariff rule.
Related: IntlRel0005 — India and International Economic Institutions
Goods and Services Tax likely to be levied in India is not a
- (a)gross value tax
- (b)value-added tax
- (c)consumption tax
- (d)destination-based tax
Answer: (a) gross value tax
GST is a value-added, consumption-based, destination tax, levied only on the value added at each stage. View this question →
Amartya Sen was awarded the Nobel Prize for his contribution to
- (a)Monetary Economics
- (b)Welfare Economics
- (c)Environmental Economics
- (d)Development Economics
Answer: (b) Welfare Economics
Sen won the 1998 Nobel Memorial Prize in Economic Sciences for his contributions to welfare economics, including work on famines, poverty and social choice.
Related: Growth versus Development
Related: IndEco0155 — Amartya Sen
The rank of Captain of the Indian Navy is equivalent to which one of the following?
- (a)Captain of the Indian Army
- (b)Group Captain in the Indian Air Force
- (c)Lieutenant Colonel of the Indian Army
- (d)Wing Commander of the Indian Air Force
Answer: (b) Group Captain in the Indian Air Force
Naval Captain, Army Colonel, and Air Force Group Captain are all equivalent ranks across the three services. View this question →
Which one of the following statements is correct in relation to the Indian Air Force?
- (a)It has bases in many friendly countries.
- (b)It does not carry out joint exercises with any country.
- (c)It has a separate Maintenance Command.
- (d)No officer has ever been elevated to the rank of Marshal of the Indian Air Force.
Answer: (c) It has a separate Maintenance Command.
The IAF does hold joint exercises with foreign air forces, and Arjan Singh was elevated to the five-star rank of Marshal of the IAF in 2002. View this question →
The Indian Navy in October 2016 commissioned the highly maneuverable fast attack craft INS Tihayu. INS Tihayu would be based in
- (a)Kochi
- (b)Panaji
- (c)Visakhapatnam
- (d)Mumbai
Answer: (a) Goa
The fast attack craft INS Tihayu, commissioned by the Indian Navy in October 2016, is based in Goa. Goa hosts important Indian naval bases because of its long coastline on the Arabian Sea.
Related: GK0027 — Goa State Profile
Which one of the following sectors is not affected by the changes made in the Foreign Direct Investment Policy in June 2016?
- (a)Multi-brand retailing
- (b)Defence
- (c)Private security agencies
- (d)Manufacturing of small arms and ammunitions covered under the Arms Act, 1959
Answer: (d) Manufacturing of small arms and ammunitions covered under the Arms Act, 1959
This category remained under its own separate regulatory framework and was excluded from the June 2016 FDI liberalisation. View this question →
BREXIT refers to the Great Britain leaving which one of the following?
- (a)International Monetary Fund
- (b)Commonwealth
- (c)World Trade Organization
- (d)European Union
Answer: (d) European Union
Brexit is the shorthand for Britain’s 2016 vote to leave the EU. View this question →
In which one of the following cities are the Summer Olympics, 2020 going to be held?
- (a)London
- (b)Paris
- (c)Tokyo
- (d)Moscow
Answer: (c) Tokyo
It was scheduled to host the 2020 Summer Olympics. View this question →
Who among the following is the President of Republic of the Union of Myanmar?
- (a)Aung San Suu Kyi
- (b)Htin Kyaw
- (c)Myint Swe
- (d)Henry Van Thio
Answer: (b) Htin Kyaw
He served as President since Aung San Suu Kyi was constitutionally barred from the post and instead led as State Counsellor. View this question →
Statement I : The passing of the Coercive Acts made reconciliation between Britain and her American colonies virtually impossible.
Statement II : The British Parliament, having issued the Stamp Act in 1765, repealed it later.
- (a)Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
- (b)Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
- (c)Statement I is true but Statement II is false
- (d)Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Answer: (b) Both true, Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
The Stamp Act’s 1766 repeal came nearly a decade before the 1774 Coercive Acts, so it doesn’t account for why reconciliation later became impossible. View this question →
Statement I : The Poona Pact provided for 151 reserved seats for the scheduled castes to be elected by a joint, not separate, electorate.
Statement II : Dr. B. R. Ambedkar withdrew from active politics for almost a decade when the Communal Award was revoked.
- (a)Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
- (b)Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
- (c)Statement I is true but Statement II is false
- (d)Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Answer: (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
The Poona Pact (1932) reserved 151 seats for the Depressed Classes in Provincial Councils, elected through joint electorates. Ambedkar did not withdraw from politics afterward — he remained active for decades, later serving in the Rajya Sabha until his death in 1956.
Which one of the following statements about the All India Depressed Classes Association is not correct?
- (a)The All India Depressed Classes Association was formed in Nagpur with M. C. Rajah as its first elected President.
- (b)The All India Depressed Classes Association was not attended by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar in 1926.
- (c)Ambedkar resigned from the All India Depressed Classes Association and formed his own All India Depressed Classes Congress in 1930.
- (d)The All India Depressed Classes Association favoured Ambedkar’s demand for separate electorate for the depressed classes.
Answer: (d) The All India Depressed Classes Association favoured Ambedkar’s demand for separate electorate for the depressed classes.
M.C. Rajah’s Association generally favoured joint electorates with reserved seats, clashing with Ambedkar’s push for separate electorates. View this question →
Which one of the following statements about the Justice Party is not correct?
- (a)It clamoured for the same kind of separate communal representation for the Non-Brahmins as had been granted to the Muslims by the Morley-Minto Reforms.
- (b)It was patronized mainly by richer landowning and urban middle class Non-Brahmins.
- (c)It succeeded in getting the provision for 28 reserved seats for the Non-Brahmins in the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms.
- (d)It supported the call given by the Congress to boycott elections in 1920.
Answer: (d)
The statement is not correct because the Justice Party did NOT support the Congress call to boycott the 1920 elections. It opposed the non-cooperation movement and contested the first elections under the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, forming the ministry in the Madras Presidency in 1920-21. The other statements match its record: it clamoured for separate communal representation for Non-Brahmins (a), drew support from wealthy landowning and urban middle-class Non-Brahmins (b), and is credited with securing reserved seats for Non-Brahmins in the Montagu-Chelmsford era (c).
Related: ModHist0094 — Caste Consciousness Movements, 19th Century · View this question →
The Ryotwari experiment in land revenue was started by
- (a)Henry Dundas
- (b)Alexander Reed
- (c)David Ricardo
- (d)Mountstuart Elphinstone
Answer: (b) Alexander Reed
Captain Alexander Read (also spelled Reed) first tried Ryotwari on a small scale in the Baramahal district in 1792. Thomas Munro later extended it across much of the Madras Presidency.
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
1. The Preamble by itself is not enforceable in a Court of Law.
2. The Preamble states the objectives which the Constitution seeks to establish and promote.
3. The Preamble indicates the source from which the Constitution derives its authority.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1, 2 and 3
- (b)1 and 2 only
- (c)1 and 3 only
- (d)2 only
Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3
The Preamble is non-justiciable on its own, sets out the Constitution’s guiding objectives, and identifies ‘We the People’ as the source of its authority. View this question →
Which one of the following statements relating to cultural and educational rights in India is not correct?
- (a)Every section of the citizens has the right to conserve its language, script or culture.
- (b)No citizen shall be denied admission into any educational institution maintained by the State or receiving aid out of State funds on grounds of religion, race or language.
- (c)The State shall, in granting aid to educational institutions, discriminate against any educational institution on the ground that it is under the management of a majority community.
- (d)All minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
Answer: (c) The State shall, in granting aid to educational institutions, discriminate against any educational institution on the ground that it is under the management of a majority community.
Article 30(2) actually says the State shall NOT discriminate against minority-run institutions in granting aid, the reverse of this statement. View this question →
Which one of the following statements relating to the Directive Principles of State Policy is not correct?
- (a)The provisions contained in Part IV of the Constitution of India shall not be enforceable by any Court.
- (b)The Directive Principles of State Policy are fundamental in the governance of the country.
- (c)It shall be the duty of the State to apply the Directive Principles in making laws.
- (d)The Directive Principles are directed in making India an advanced capitalist country of the world.
Answer: (d) The Directive Principles are directed in making India an advanced capitalist country of the world.
The Directive Principles actually aim at social and economic justice and a welfare state, not capitalist development. View this question →
Which one of the following statements is not correct regarding the Office of the Vice President of India?
- (a)The Vice President is elected by an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both the Houses of the Parliament.
- (b)The Vice President is elected in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote.
- (c)The Vice President shall not be a member of either House of the Parliament or of a House of the Legislature of any State.
- (d)The Vice President of India shall be ex officio Chairman of the Council of States and shall not hold any office of profit.
Answer: (a) The Vice President is elected by an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both the Houses of the Parliament.
Unlike the presidential college, the Vice President’s electoral college includes all members of both Houses of Parliament, including nominated ones. View this question →
Which one of the following constitutional authorities inquires and decides in case of doubts and disputes arising out of election of the President and Vice President of India?
- (a)The Supreme Court of India
- (b)The Election Commission of India
- (c)The Parliamentary Committee
- (d)The High Court of Delhi
Answer: (a) The Supreme Court of India
Under Article 71, it has exclusive jurisdiction over disputes concerning the election of the President or Vice President. View this question →
Questions transcribed from the official Combined Defence Services Examination (I), 2017 question booklet (BLS-E-EDF/67A), General Knowledge paper. Hindi text omitted. Answer key not included.
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