General Knowledge
General Science
Which one of the following gases is released mostly from landfills in urban areas?
- (a)Nitrogen
- (b)Hydrogen
- (c)Methane
- (d)Oxygen
Answer: (c) Methane
Decomposing organic waste in landfills releases methane as its dominant byproduct gas. View this question →
Environment & Ecology
Which one of the following is most sensitive to environmental change?
- (a)Amphibian
- (b)Reptile
- (c)Mammal
- (d)Insect
Answer: (a) Amphibian
Their permeable skin and dependence on both aquatic and terrestrial habitats make them highly sensitive bio-indicators of environmental change. View this question →
Geography
Which one of the following is the largest source of electricity in India?
- (a)Hydropower plants
- (b)Nuclear power plants
- (c)Thermal power plants
- (d)Wind energy
Answer: (c) Thermal power plants
Coal-based thermal generation has long dominated India's electricity mix. View this question →
General Science
The HIV virus weakens the immunity of a person because it destroys
- (a)mast cells
- (b)platelets
- (c)erythrocytes
- (d)lymphocytes
Answer: (d) lymphocytes
HIV specifically targets and destroys CD4+ T-helper lymphocytes, crippling the immune response. View this question →
Environment & Ecology
Which one of the following air pollutants combines with the haemoglobin of human blood and reduces its oxygen-carrying capacity, leading to suffocation and may cause even death?
- (a)Chlorofluorocarbon
- (b)Fly ash
- (c)Carbon monoxide
- (d)Sulphur dioxide
Answer: (c) Carbon monoxide
It binds haemoglobin far more strongly than oxygen, forming carboxyhaemoglobin and starving tissues of oxygen. View this question →
General Science
An irregular mode of reproduction resulting in the development of an embryo without fertilization is called 1. Parthenogenesis 2. Apogamy 3. Sporophytic budding. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)2 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Parthenogenesis, apogamy, and sporophytic budding are all recognised forms of asexual embryo development without fertilization. View this question →
General Science
Which one of the following is not an allotrope of carbon?
- (a)Coal
- (b)Diamond
- (c)Graphite
- (d)Graphene
Answer: (a) Coal
It's a heterogeneous mixture of carbon and other substances, not a defined structural allotrope like diamond, graphite, or graphene. View this question →
General Science
In paper manufacturing, degumming of the raw material is done using
- (a)sulphuric acid
- (b)bleaching powder
- (c)caustic soda
- (d)nitric acid
Answer: (c) caustic soda
Caustic soda (sodium hydroxide) is used to remove gums and lignin from the raw plant fibre during pulping. View this question →
General Science
Dolomite powder is applied in some agricultural lands. The purpose of applying it is to
- (a)increase the pH of the soil
- (b)lower the pH of the soil
- (c)increase the phosphorus content of the soil
- (d)increase the nitrogen content of the soil
Answer: (a) increase the pH of the soil
Dolomite, a calcium-magnesium carbonate, acts as a liming agent to neutralise acidic soils. View this question →
General Science
Deficiency of fluoride leads to which one of the following health problems?
- (a)Tooth caries
- (b)Mottling of tooth
- (c)Bending of bones
- (d)Stiffening of joints
Answer: (a) Tooth caries
Insufficient fluoride weakens enamel and raises cavity risk, while excess fluoride instead causes mottling and skeletal fluorosis. View this question →
Environment & Ecology
Excessive use of which of the following fertilizers may be responsible for the presence of a toxic substance in groundwater?
- (a)Nitrogen
- (b)Phosphate only
- (c)Potassium only
- (d)Phosphate and potassium
Answer: (a) Nitrogen
Excess use of nitrogen fertilizers leads to nitrate leaching into groundwater, a contaminant linked to health problems like methemoglobinemia. View this question →
General Science
Which one of the following elements does not form solid hydrogen carbonate?
- (a)Sodium
- (b)Potassium
- (c)Caesium
- (d)Lithium
Answer: (d) Lithium
Its small ionic size gives lithium bicarbonate too high a lattice energy to exist as a stable solid, unlike sodium, potassium, and caesium bicarbonates. View this question →
Geography
According to Census 2011, which one of the following is the correct sequence of States in decreasing order of their total size of population?
- (a)Kerala, Jharkhand, Assam, Punjab
- (b)Jharkhand, Kerala, Assam, Punjab
- (c)Kerala, Jharkhand, Punjab, Assam
- (d)Jharkhand, Kerala, Punjab, Assam
Answer: (a) Kerala, Jharkhand, Assam, Punjab
Their 2011 Census populations, roughly 33.4, 33.0, 31.2, and 27.7 million respectively, fall in this descending order. View this question →
Geography
With reference to earthquakes, which of the following statements are correct? 1. Earthquakes largely occur along the converging plate boundaries. 2. Point of origin of earthquake in lithosphere is known as focus/hypocentre. 3. Intensity of earthquake decreases with distance from the epicentre. 4. Epicentre of earthquake always remains over continents only. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)1, 2 and 3
- (c)2 and 3 only
- (d)1 and 4
Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 3
Most major earthquakes cluster along converging plate boundaries, originate at a focus/hypocentre, and weaken with distance from the epicentre; epicentres can just as easily lie under the ocean, not only over continents. View this question →
Geography
Which of the following pairs of Indian State and tribal population are correct? 1. Madhya Pradesh : Largest tribal population 2. Mizoram : Highest percentage of tribal population out of the total population of the State 3. Chhattisgarh : Second largest tribal population after Madhya Pradesh 4. Arunachal Pradesh : Second highest percentage of tribal population out of the total population of the State after Mizoram. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)2 and 4 only
- (c)1, 2 and 3
- (d)2, 3 and 4
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Madhya Pradesh does have the largest tribal population by number, and Mizoram has the highest tribal percentage among States (94.4%). But Odisha, not Chhattisgarh, has the second-largest tribal population by number; and Nagaland, not Arunachal Pradesh, has the second-highest tribal percentage among States.
General Science
The spring constant of a spring depends on its
- (a)length only
- (b)material only
- (c)length and its diameter
- (d)thickness, its diameter and its material
Answer: (d) thickness, its diameter and its material
All three factors, along with coil geometry, jointly determine a spring's stiffness. View this question →
General Science
In the gamma decay of a nucleus
- (a)the mass number of the nucleus changes whereas its atomic number does not change
- (b)the mass number of the nucleus does not change whereas its atomic number changes
- (c)both the mass number and the atomic number of the nucleus change
- (d)neither the mass number nor the atomic number of the nucleus changes
Answer: (d) neither the mass number nor the atomic number of the nucleus changes
Gamma decay only releases excess energy as a photon, leaving the nucleus's proton and neutron count unchanged. View this question →
General Science
In a bipolar junction transistor
- (a)all the three regions (the emitter, the base and the collector) have equal concentrations of impurity
- (b)the emitter has the least concentration of impurity
- (c)the collector has the least concentration of impurity
- (d)the base has the least concentration of impurity
Answer: (d) the base has the least concentration of impurity
The base is thin and lightly doped, letting most carriers from the heavily-doped emitter pass through to the collector. View this question →
General Science
The pressure exerted by a 760 mm column of mercury at 0°C is known as
- (a)1 pascal
- (b)1 atmosphere
- (c)1 bar
- (d)1 poise
Answer: (b) 1 atmosphere
This is the standard reference pressure defined by a 760 mm mercury column at 0°C. View this question →
General Science
Which one of the following physical quantities has the same dimensions as that of Planck’s constant h?
- (a)Linear momentum
- (b)Angular momentum
- (c)Force
- (d)Potential energy
Answer: (b) Angular momentum
Both Planck's constant and angular momentum share the same units of joule-seconds. View this question →
General Science
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
- (a)The response of the ear to sound of increasing intensity is approximately logarithmic.
- (b)The sensitivity of the human ear does not vary with the frequency of the sound.
- (c)When two or more waves traverse the same medium, the displacement of any element of the medium is the algebraic sum of the displacements due to each wave.
- (d)Longitudinal waves can travel in all media—solids, liquids and gases.
Answer: (b) The sensitivity of the human ear does not vary with the frequency of the sound.
This statement is actually false. Human ear sensitivity varies significantly with frequency, peaking around 2000-5000 Hz. View this question →
General Science
Which one of the following hormones is essential for the uptake of glucose by cells in the human body?
- (a)GH
- (b)TSH
- (c)Insulin
- (d)Cortisol
Answer: (c) Insulin
It signals cells to take up glucose from the bloodstream, lowering blood sugar levels. View this question →
General Science
Which of the following cells do not contain nucleus? 1. Root hair cells 2. Red blood cells 3. Platelets 4. Monocytes. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)1, 2 and 4
- (d)2, 3 and 4
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Mature red blood cells eject their nucleus before entering the bloodstream, making room to carry more oxygen. Platelets aren't even full cells — they're fragments broken off a larger cell, with no nucleus of their own. Root hair cells and monocytes both keep a normal nucleus.
Related: GenSci0003 — Biology Fundamentals for Competitive Exams
(Source: MIT Whitehead Institute, How Red Blood Cells Nuke Their Nuclei)
General Science
Biological catalysts are protein molecules which 1. speed up a chemical reaction 2. remain unchanged after reaction 3. function optimally at 37°C 4. do not have an enzymatic activity. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 only
- (b)1, 2 and 3
- (c)2 and 3 only
- (d)1, 3 and 4
Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 3
Enzymes speed up reactions, come out chemically unchanged afterward, and (for most human enzymes) work best around body temperature; statement 4 is false since having enzymatic activity is exactly what defines them. View this question →
General Science
‘Altitude sickness’ is caused at high altitude due to
- (a)high partial pressure of oxygen
- (b)low partial pressure of oxygen
- (c)low level of haemoglobin
- (d)high partial pressure of carbon dioxide
Answer: (b) low partial pressure of oxygen
Thinner air at altitude reduces available oxygen, causing hypoxia and altitude sickness. View this question →
General Science
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
- A.Mg
- B.Ca
- C.Sr
- D.Ba
- 1.Gives red colour to flame
- 2.Sulphate compound used in medicine to examine the alimentary canal
- 3.Traps the energy of sunlight in photosynthesis
- 4.Control of muscle contraction
- (a)A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
- (b)A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
- (c)A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
- (d)A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
Answer: (c) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
Mg is central to chlorophyll’s role in photosynthesis; Ca regulates muscle contraction; Sr gives a red flame colour; Ba (as barium sulfate) is used to examine the alimentary canal in medical imaging.
General Science
Which one of the following statements is correct?
- (a)The oxidation number for hydrogen is always zero.
- (b)The oxidation number for hydrogen is always +1.
- (c)The oxidation number for hydrogen is always −1.
- (d)Hydrogen can have more than one oxidation number.
Answer: (d) Hydrogen can have more than one oxidation number.
It's usually +1, but takes -1 in metal hydrides and 0 in its elemental form. View this question →
General Science
In case of a standard hydrogen electrode
- (a)absolute electrode potential is not zero
- (b)absolute electrode potential is zero
- (c)both absolute and standard electrode potential values are zero
- (d)electrode potential is zero only at 25°C
Answer: (a) absolute electrode potential is not zero
Chemists only assign it a standard potential of exactly 0V by arbitrary convention, as a reference point, not because its true absolute potential is zero. View this question →
General Science
The elemental composition of an adult human body by mass is
- (a)C > O > H > N
- (b)O > C > H > N
- (c)N > C > H > O
- (d)N > C > O > H
Answer: (b) O > C > H > N
Oxygen makes up roughly 65% of body mass, followed by carbon (~18%), hydrogen (~10%), and nitrogen (~3%). View this question →
Geography
With regard to water transportation in India, which of the following statements are correct? 1. Headquarters of Central Inland Water Transport Corporation is located at Delhi. 2. Headquarters of Inland Waterways Authority of India is located at Noida. 3. National Inland Navigation Institute is located at Kolkata. 4. First National Inland Waterway was between Haldia and Allahabad. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)2 and 3
- (c)2 and 4 only
- (d)1, 2 and 4
Answer: (c) 2 and 4 only
IWAI is headquartered in Noida and National Waterway 1 does run from Haldia to Allahabad; the Central Inland Water Transport Corporation is actually headquartered in Kolkata, not Delhi. View this question →
Geography
If the latitude and longitudinal extent of an Indian State/UT is 15°48′00″N to 14°53′15″N and 74°20′13″E to 74°40′33″E, then which one of the following is that State/UT?
- (a)Puducherry
- (b)Chandigarh
- (c)Goa
- (d)Delhi
Answer: (c) Goa
Its coastal territory falls within roughly this latitude-longitude range on India's west coast. View this question →
Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
- A.North Eastern Railway
- B.East Central Railway
- C.South East Central Railway
- D.South Eastern Railway
- 1.Kolkata
- 2.Bilaspur
- 3.Hajipur
- 4.Gorakhpur
- (a)A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
- (b)A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
- (c)A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
- (d)A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
Answer: (d) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
North Eastern Railway is headquartered at Gorakhpur, East Central Railway at Hajipur, South East Central Railway at Bilaspur, and South Eastern Railway at Kolkata.
Geography
Which of the following statements concerning atmosphere of the Earth are correct? 1. In stratosphere, temperature increases with altitude. 2. In mesosphere, temperature decreases with altitude. 3. The lowest temperature of the atmosphere is recorded in the upper part of mesosphere. 4. Tropopause is an isothermal zone. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)1, 2 and 3 only
- (c)3 and 4 only
- (d)1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Stratospheric warming from ozone, mesospheric cooling, the mesopause's record-low temperatures, and the tropopause's near-isothermal nature are all accurate. View this question →
Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
- A.Bongaigaon
- B.Koraput
- C.Pinjore
- D.Sirpur
- 1.Oil Refinery
- 2.Aircraft Engine Manufacturing
- 3.Tractor Manufacturing
- 4.Paper Mill
- (a)A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
- (b)A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
- (c)A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
- (d)A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
Answer: (c) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
Bongaigaon (Assam) hosts an oil refinery; Koraput (Odisha) hosts HAL’s aircraft engine division; Pinjore (Haryana) hosted HMT’s tractor manufacturing unit; Sirpur (Telangana) is home to Sirpur Paper Mills.
Geography
Which one of the following is not a tributary of the river Ganga?
- (a)Son
- (b)Mahananda
- (c)Teesta
- (d)Sharada
Answer: (c) Teesta
It actually flows into the Brahmaputra system (via the Jamuna in Bangladesh), not into the Ganga. View this question →
Geography
Which one of the following pairs of lakes is connected by Soo Canal?
- (a)Superior and Michigan
- (b)Superior and Huron
- (c)Huron and Ontario
- (d)Huron and Erie
Answer: (b) Superior and Huron
The Soo Locks/Canal on the St. Marys River links these two Great Lakes. View this question →
General Science
In total internal reflection, the light travels from
- (a)rarer to denser medium and it occurs with no loss of intensity
- (b)denser to rarer medium and it occurs with no loss of intensity
- (c)rarer to denser medium and it occurs with loss of intensity
- (d)denser to rarer medium and it occurs with loss of intensity
Answer: (b) denser to rarer medium and it occurs with no loss of intensity
All the light reflects back into the denser medium rather than refracting out. View this question →
General Science
The energy of a photon, whose momentum is 10 MeV/c, where c is the speed of light, is given by
- (a)10 MeV
- (b)100 MeV
- (c)1 MeV
- (d)0.1 MeV
Answer: (a) 10 MeV
For a photon, energy equals momentum times the speed of light (E = pc), so 10 MeV/c times c gives exactly 10 MeV. View this question →
General Science
Liquids and gases never show
- (a)diamagnetic property
- (b)paramagnetic property
- (c)ferromagnetic property
- (d)electromagnetic property
Answer: (c) ferromagnetic property
It needs a rigid crystal lattice to sustain aligned magnetic domains, a structure liquids and gases lack. View this question →
General Science
Light travels in a straight line (rectilinear propagation of light). This statement does hold if the medium of travel for light is
- (a)of variable refractive index
- (b)made up of slabs of different refractive indices
- (c)homogeneous and transparent
- (d)inhomogeneous and transparent
Answer: (c) homogeneous and transparent
A uniform refractive index throughout means light isn't bent, so it keeps travelling in a straight line. View this question →
Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
- A.Strait of Hormuz
- B.Strait of Bab-el-Mandeb
- C.Strait of Malacca
- D.Strait of Sunda
- 1.Java Sea
- 2.Andaman Sea
- 3.Red Sea
- 4.Gulf of Persia
- (a)A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
- (b)A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
- (c)A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
- (d)A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
Answer: (d) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
The Strait of Hormuz opens into the Gulf of Persia. The Strait of Bab-el-Mandeb connects to the Red Sea. The Strait of Malacca opens into the Andaman Sea, and the Strait of Sunda opens into the Java Sea.
Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
- A.Agulhas Current
- B.Humboldt Current
- C.Labrador Current
- D.Falkland Current
- 1.Andaman
- 2.South Africa
- 3.Peru
- 4.Canada
- 5.Argentina
- (a)A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
- (b)A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
- (c)A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
- (d)A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
Answer: (b) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
Agulhas Current flows past South Africa; Humboldt Current flows along Peru’s coast; Labrador Current flows past Canada; Falkland Current flows along Argentina’s Patagonian coast.
Geography
Which one of the following fishing banks is located off the coast of the United Kingdom?
- (a)Great Fisher Bank
- (b)Grand Banks
- (c)Dogger Bank
- (d)Reed Bank
Answer: (c) Dogger Bank
A large sandbank in the North Sea off the UK's east coast, historically a major fishing ground. View this question →
Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
- A.Satpura
- B.Dhuvaran
- C.Tanakpur
- D.Dabhol
- 1.Maharashtra
- 2.Uttarakhand
- 3.Gujarat
- 4.Madhya Pradesh
- (a)A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
- (b)A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
- (c)A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
- (d)A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
Answer: (a) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
Satpura Thermal Power Station is in Madhya Pradesh, Dhuvaran Thermal Power Station is in Gujarat, Tanakpur Hydro Power Station is in Uttarakhand, and Dabhol Power Station is in Maharashtra.
Geography
Which of the following statements regarding soil is/are correct? 1. Alluvial soils are rich in nitrogen content. 2. Black soils are rich in iron and lime but deficient in nitrogen. 3. Laterite soils are rich in iron and aluminium but deficient in nitrogen and potassium. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)3 only
- (c)2 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only
Alluvial soil is actually POOR in nitrogen, not rich, which makes statement 1 false. Black soil and laterite soil are correctly described.
Related: IndGeo0013 — Alluvial Soil of India
General Science
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
- (a)Position of the Sun, Earth and Moon in a straight line of 180° angle is known as syzygy.
- (b)Syzygy conjunction causes solar eclipse.
- (c)Syzygy opposition causes lunar eclipse.
- (d)Syzygy conjunction occurs at the time of perihelion only.
Answer: (d) Syzygy conjunction occurs at the time of perihelion only.
This is actually false. Syzygy conjunction (new moon) happens roughly every month regardless of Earth's position in its orbit, not only near perihelion. View this question →
Geography
Which one of the following is not related to wind erosion?
- (a)Wind gap
- (b)Zeugen
- (c)Dreikanter
- (d)Demoiselle
Answer: (a) Wind gap
It's actually a river-cut notch left by stream capture, not a wind-erosion feature like zeugen, ventifacts (dreikanter), or mushroom/demoiselle rocks. View this question →
Environment & Ecology
Which one of the following is correct?
- (a)Guindy National Park is known for tiger reserve.
- (b)Namdapha National Park is meant for lion conservation.
- (c)Jaldapara is a biosphere reserve.
- (d)Rann of Kutch is a Wild Ass Sanctuary.
Answer: (d) Rann of Kutch is a Wild Ass Sanctuary.
It hosts a Wild Ass Sanctuary in its Little Rann area, Gujarat. Guindy is known for blackbuck, Namdapha for tigers (not lions), and Jaldapara is a wildlife sanctuary, not a biosphere reserve. View this question →
Environment & Ecology
Which one of the following statements concerning the natural vegetation of India is not correct?
- (a)Sal is found in moist deciduous forests.
- (b)Casuarina is largely found along the coastal region of Tamil Nadu.
- (c)Deodar is a coniferous species of tree.
- (d)Shola forests are found mainly on the upper reaches of Himalaya.
Answer: (d) Shola forests are found mainly on the upper reaches of Himalaya.
This is actually false. Shola forests are found in the upper reaches of the Western Ghats and Nilgiris in South India, not the Himalaya. View this question →
Environment & Ecology
Which one of the following statements concerning research centres in India is not correct?
- (a)Rajiv Gandhi Centre for Biotechnology is located at Kolkata.
- (b)Central Arid Zone Research Institute is located at Jodhpur.
- (c)Centre for Social Forestry and Eco-Rehabilitation is located at Allahabad.
- (d)Institute of Forest Productivity is located at Ranchi.
Answer: (a) Rajiv Gandhi Centre for Biotechnology is located at Kolkata.
This is actually false. It is located in Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala, not Kolkata. View this question →
History & Culture
Statement I : The Pahi-kashta peasants were non-resident cultivators cultivating lands on a contractual basis. Statement II : The Pahi-kashta peasants worked under the temptation of favourable terms of revenue or the compulsion of economic distress.
- (a)Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
- (b)Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
- (c)Statement I is true but Statement II is false
- (d)Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Answer: (a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
Pahi-kashta cultivators worked land outside their home village on contract, motivated by exactly the favourable terms or economic pressures Statement II describes. View this question →
History & Culture
Statement I : The Zamindars were an exploitative class in Mughal India. Statement II : The Zamindars often received the support of the peasantry in a large number of agrarian uprisings in North India in the seventeenth century.
- (a)Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
- (b)Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
- (c)Statement I is true but Statement II is false
- (d)Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Answer: (b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
Zamindars did extract revenue from peasants, yet many also led or joined 17th-century agrarian revolts with peasant backing, a separate historical fact rather than a cause of their exploitative role. View this question →
History & Culture
Statement I : King Ashoka abolished capital punishment and disbanded his army. Statement II : After Kalinga War, Ashoka was remorseful and became a Buddhist.
- (a)Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
- (b)Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
- (c)Statement I is true but Statement II is false
- (d)Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Answer: (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Ashoka never actually abolished capital punishment or disbanded his army — his edicts show only added safeguards, like a three-day stay of execution. He genuinely was remorseful after the Kalinga War and turned to Dhamma, the change most exam questions on this topic actually test.
Related: AncHist0014 — Ashoka and His Edicts
Int’l Relations & Defence
Which one of the following does not signify a battle tank?
- (a)T-55
- (b)T-155
- (c)T-72
- (d)T-90
Answer: (b) T-155
T-55, T-72, and T-90 are all main battle tanks. T-155 Firtina is a Turkish self-propelled howitzer, an artillery gun, not a tank.
Related: SciTech0019 — Indian Army Tanks and Armoured Vehicles
History & Culture
Which of the following Gods are also known as Lokapalas or the Guardians of the Universe?
- (a)Yama, Indra, Varuna and Kubera
- (b)Indra, Varuna, Skanda and Kubera
- (c)Indra, Varuna, Yama and Brahma
- (d)Yama, Shiva, Kubera and Indra
Answer: (a) Yama, Indra, Varuna and Kubera
These are the four principal Lokapalas guarding the cardinal directions in Hindu cosmology. View this question →
Polity & Governance
Which among the following Acts were repealed by Article 395 of the Constitution of India? 1. The Government of India Act, 1935 2. The Indian Independence Act, 1947 3. The Abolition of Privy Council Jurisdiction Act, 1949 4. The Government of India Act, 1919. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)1 and 3 only
- (c)1, 2 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Article 395 of the Constitution repealed the Government of India Act 1935 and the Indian Independence Act 1947 (1 and 2). The GOI Act 1919 had already been repealed by the 1935 Act, and the Abolition of Privy Council Jurisdiction Act 1949 was a separate surviving statute – so only 1 and 2 were repealed by Article 395.
Related: ModHist0006 — The Indian Councils Acts of 1861 and 1892 · ModHist0085 — Indian Independence Act, 1947 · View this question →
Polity & Governance
On 26th November, 1949, which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India came into effect? 1. Citizenship 2. Elections 3. Provisional Parliament 4. Fundamental Rights. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)2, 3 and 4
- (b)1, 2 and 3
- (c)1 and 3 only
- (d)1 and 2 only
Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 3
Provisions on citizenship, elections, and the provisional Parliament took effect on 26 November 1949, while Fundamental Rights and most of the Constitution only came into force on 26 January 1950. View this question →
Polity & Governance
Which of the following statements regarding the Constituent Assembly of India is/are correct? 1. The Assembly was elected indirectly by the members of the Provincial Legislative Assemblies. 2. The elections were held on the basis of Universal Adult Franchise. 3. The scheme of election was laid down by the Cabinet Delegation. 4. The distribution of seats was done on the basis of the Mountbatten Plan. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 only
- (b)1, 2 and 3
- (c)2 and 4
- (d)1 and 3 only
Answer: (d) 1 and 3 only
The Assembly was indirectly elected by provincial assembly members under the scheme the Cabinet Mission laid down; the elections were not on universal adult franchise, and seat distribution followed the Cabinet Mission Plan, not the later Mountbatten Plan. View this question →
General Science
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
- (a)Centre for Science and Environment in a recent study found that a number of commonly available brands of prepackaged breads tested positive for potassium bromate and potassium iodate.
- (b)Food Safety and Standards Authority of India recommended to the Health Ministry to remove potassium bromate from the list of permissible food additives.
- (c)The Union Government banned the use of potassium bromate as a food additive on the basis of the above recommendation.
- (d)Potassium bromate is a neurotoxin.
Answer: (d) Potassium bromate is a neurotoxin.
This is actually false. It's classified as a possible carcinogen, which is why India banned it as a food additive, not because of neurotoxicity. View this question →
Int’l Relations & Defence
Which of the following voted for Brexit in June 2016?
- (a)England and Scotland
- (b)England and Wales
- (c)Scotland and Northern Ireland
- (d)Wales and Northern Ireland
Answer: (b) England and Wales
Both voted to Leave the EU, while Scotland and Northern Ireland voted to Remain. View this question →
Science & Tech
Which one of the following statements about reusable space vehicle of ISRO is not correct?
- (a)In June 2016, ISRO successfully launched India’s first reusable space vehicle.
- (b)The space vehicle was launched from Satish Dhawan Space Centre at Sriharikota in Andhra Pradesh.
- (c)The reusable launch vehicle climbed to a height of 65 km before automatically steering back for landing.
- (d)The vehicle was initially boosted by a rocket that contained liquid fuel.
Answer: (d) The vehicle was initially boosted by a rocket that contained liquid fuel.
Statements (a), (b), and (c) are all correct: the RLV-TD flew in May 2016 from Sriharikota, and climbed to 65 km before an automatic return. Statement (d) is false: the booster was the solid-fuelled HS9 rocket motor, not a liquid-fuelled one. Related: SciTech0083 — ISRO
Int’l Relations & Defence
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
- (a)BrahMos is a supersonic cruise missile made by India and Russian Federation.
- (b)The name BrahMos came from two rivers, Brahmaputra of India and Moskva of Russia.
- (c)Indian military scientists were capable of integrating BrahMos cruise missile with Sukhoi-30 MKI fighter.
- (d)Defence Research and Development Organization is the manufacturer of Sukhoi-30 MKI fighter.
Answer: (d) Defence Research and Development Organization is the manufacturer of Sukhoi-30 MKI fighter.
This is actually false. The fighter jet is manufactured by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) under license from Russia's Sukhoi, not DRDO. View this question →
History & Culture
Which one of the following sources tells us about women protesting against the infidelity of their husbands or the neglect of the wife and children by the male head of the household?
- (a)The Kitab-ul-Hind
- (b)Documents belonging to the Village Panchayats of Rajasthan, Gujarat and Maharashtra
- (c)Sculptures from Mandor
- (d)The Ain-i-Akbari of Abul Fazl
Answer: (b) Documents belonging to the Village Panchayats of Rajasthan, Gujarat and Maharashtra
These local records preserve women's petitions and complaints about family neglect and infidelity in ways formal chronicles do not. View this question →
Economy
The All India Census was 1. first attempted in 1872 2. regularly undertaken since 1881 3. always undertaken as a five-year exercise. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)1 and 2 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only
India's first census attempt was in 1872, with regular decennial censuses since 1881; the census has always been a ten-year, not five-year, exercise. View this question →
History & Culture
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
- A.Sumit Sarkar
- B.Shahid Amin
- C.Ranajit Guha
- D.Bipan Chandra
- 1.The Rise and Growth of Economic Nationalism in India
- 2.A Rule of Property for Bengal
- 3.The Swadeshi Movement in Bengal, 1903–1908
- 4.Event, Metaphor, Memory—Chauri Chaura, 1922–1992
- (a)A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
- (b)A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
- (c)A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
- (d)A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
Answer: (a) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
Sumit Sarkar wrote The Swadeshi Movement in Bengal, 1903–1908. Shahid Amin wrote Event, Metaphor, Memory—Chauri Chaura, 1922–1992. Ranajit Guha wrote A Rule of Property for Bengal, and Bipan Chandra wrote The Rise and Growth of Economic Nationalism in India.
History & Culture
What form of Shiva is most prominent in the Brihadeshvara Temple built by the Chola dynasty?
- (a)Harihara
- (b)Bhairava
- (c)Rudra
- (d)Tripurantaka
Answer: (d) Tripurantaka
This form of Shiva, destroyer of the three demon cities, is a recurring and prominent theme in the Chola-era Brihadeshvara Temple's iconography. View this question →
Polity & Governance
The basic structure doctrine with regard to the Constitution of India relates to 1. the power of judicial review 2. the judgment in Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) 3. the constraints on Article 368 of the Constitution of India 4. the judgment in Golaknath case (1967). Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1, 2 and 3 only
- (b)1, 2, 3 and 4
- (c)1 and 3 only
- (d)2 and 4 only
Answer: (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
All four are tied to the basic structure doctrine's development: Golaknath first restricted amending fundamental rights, Kesavananda Bharati established the doctrine itself, and both rest on judicial review and Article 368's limits. View this question →
Polity & Governance
Which of the following fundamental rights as enshrined in the Constitution of India belong only to the citizens? 1. Article 19 (Protection of right to freedom of speech) 2. Article 21 (Protection of life and personal liberty) 3. Article 15 (Prohibition of discrimination) 4. Article 16 (Equality of opportunity). Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1, 2 and 3
- (b)2, 3 and 4
- (c)1, 3 and 4
- (d)1 and 4 only
Answer: (c) 1, 3 and 4
Articles 19, 15 and 16 are reserved for citizens, while Article 21's protection of life and personal liberty extends to every person, citizen or not. View this question →
Polity & Governance
A citizen of India will lose his or her citizenship if he or she 1. renounces Indian citizenship 2. voluntarily acquires the citizenship of another country 3. marries a citizen of another country 4. criticizes the Government. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1, 2 and 3
- (b)2, 3 and 4
- (c)1 and 2 only
- (d)1 and 4
Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only
Renouncing citizenship or voluntarily taking another country's citizenship both trigger loss of Indian citizenship; marrying a foreign national or criticising the government does not. View this question →
Polity & Governance
Which one of the following statements is not correct with respect to protection of individuals being tried for offences?
- (a)A confession can never be used as evidence against the accused.
- (b)The accused must have violated an existing law.
- (c)An accused cannot be tried and punished for the same offence again.
- (d)The quantum of punishment must be provided in law as it existed on the date of commission of an offence.
Answer: (a) A confession can never be used as evidence against the accused.
This is actually false. The constitutional protection only bars COMPELLED self-incrimination; a genuinely voluntary confession, given the proper safeguards, can still be used as evidence. View this question →
Sports & Current Affairs
Neil O’Brien, who died recently, was a famous
- (a)journalist
- (b)billiards player
- (c)dramatist
- (d)quiz master
Answer: (d) quiz master
Neil O'Brien was widely regarded as India's original and most celebrated quizmaster. View this question →
Science & Tech
Consider the following statement : “If you feel you are trapped in a black hole, don’t give up. There is a way out.” Who among the following made the above statement?
- (a)Albert Einstein
- (b)Stephen Hawking
- (c)C. V. Raman
- (d)Abdus Salam
Answer: (b) Stephen Hawking
He is known for this widely quoted remark about escaping black holes via Hawking radiation. View this question →
Int’l Relations & Defence
Recently the Government of India cleared the proposal for the production of 18 indigenous ‘Dhanush’ artillery guns to be produced in India by
- (a)Indian Army
- (b)US Army
- (c)Indian Ordnance Factory Board
- (d)Indian and US Army jointly
Answer: (c) Indian Ordnance Factory Board
Dhanush, an indigenised upgrade of the Bofors gun, is produced at its Gun Carriage Factory in Jabalpur. View this question →
Sports & Current Affairs
Who among the following won the Men’s Singles Title in the Australian Open Tennis Tournament, 2016?
- (a)Jamie Murray
- (b)Bruno Soares
- (c)Novak Djokovic
- (d)Andy Murray
Answer: (c) Novak Djokovic
He beat Andy Murray in the 2016 Australian Open men's singles final. View this question →
History & Culture
Which of the following statements about the philosopher Shankara is/are true? 1. Shankara espoused a form of Vedanta called Advaita. 2. He elaborated on the philosophy of Gaudapada. 3. Shankara tried to demonstrate that the Upanishads and Brahmasutras contain a unified, systematic philosophy. 4. Shankara founded the Amanaya Mathas. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)1, 2 and 3
- (c)3 and 4
- (d)4 only
Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 3
Shankara did found Advaita, elaborate on his paramaguru Gaudapada’s philosophy, and set out to show the Upanishads and Brahmasutras form one unified system. The Amanaya Mathas’ founding is only traditionally attributed to him; the detailed legend of him personally founding all four dates from centuries after his death.
Related: AncHist0024 — Medieval Philosophy and Temple Architecture
History & Culture
Which of the following statements about the Deccan Riots of 1875 is/are true? 1. The Deccan Riots resulted in protection for peasants through the Deccan Agriculturalists Relief Act of 1879. 2. The riots did not spread to the whole of Maharashtra because of prompt suppression by the British. 3. The British were unable to contain the riots and they spread throughout Maharashtra. 4. The cotton boom in the Deccan that had been caused by the artificial demand generated by the American Civil War caused the impoverishment of the peasants. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 only
- (b)1 and 3
- (c)2 and 4 only
- (d)1, 2 and 4
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 4
Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct: the Deccan Riots led to the Deccan Agriculturists’ Relief Act (1879), were contained by prompt suppression (not spread), and the American Civil War cotton boom had earlier impoverished the peasants. Statement 3 is wrong.
Related: ModHist0008 — Grievance and Reform: Deccan Riots, Famine Commission, Arms Act · View this question →
History & Culture
Why are the Gypsies regarded as of Indian origin? 1. They follow Indian religious practices. 2. Their language, called Romani, is an Indo-Aryan language. 3. They believe that they came from India. 4. Epigraphic evidence locates their original home in Uttar Pradesh. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 and 4 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)1, 2 and 4
- (d)2 and 3
Answer: (b) 2 only
The Romani language's clear Indo-Aryan roots are the main established evidence for Roma/Gypsy origins in India; they don't uniformly follow Indian religions, and there's no epigraphic proof pinning their homeland to Uttar Pradesh. View this question →
History & Culture
The term Upari refers to which one of the following?
- (a)A category of proprietary tenure under the Mughal rule
- (b)A category of tenancy tenure under the Maratha rule
- (c)A soldier in the Maratha army
- (d)A village headman in the Mughal period
Answer: (b) A category of tenancy tenure under the Maratha rule
Upari cultivators were non-hereditary tenant farmers, distinct from settled village landholders. View this question →
History & Culture
The ‘water frame’ of Richard Arkwright was a device for
- (a)producing a new type of painting
- (b)irrigating fields for rice cultivation
- (c)producing strong threads of yarn
- (d)the faster movement of steamships
Answer: (c) producing strong threads of yarn
Arkwright's water-powered spinning frame was a key innovation of the Industrial Revolution's textile mechanisation. View this question →
History & Culture
The ‘four great needs’ of the people as identified by the Guomindang were
- (a)clothing, food, housing and transportation
- (b)education, food, housing and health care
- (c)food, housing, education and employment
- (d)employment, housing, education and health care
Answer: (a) clothing, food, housing and transportation
These are the traditional four basic needs the Guomindang identified in its programme for the Chinese people. View this question →
History & Culture
Which one of the following was the earlier name of Tokyo?
- (a)Osaka
- (b)Kyoto
- (c)Samurai
- (d)Edo
Answer: (d) Edo
The city was renamed Tokyo in 1868 when it became Japan's imperial capital. View this question →
History & Culture
The epic, Silappadikaram refers to the
- (a)story of Rama
- (b)Jaina elements in the storyline
- (c)culture of Sri Lankan Buddhists
- (d)cult of Shakti worship
Answer: (b) Jaina elements in the storyline
This Tamil epic was composed by Ilango Adigal, a Jain monk, and reflects Jain themes throughout. View this question →
History & Culture
Rakshasa type of marriage is
- (a)marriage by purchase
- (b)marriage by capture
- (c)marriage by giving dowry
- (d)marriage by seduction
Answer: (b) marriage by capture
Among the eight traditional forms of Hindu marriage, the Rakshasa form involved forcibly abducting the bride. View this question →
Sports & Current Affairs
Who among the following was defeated by Chile to won the Copa America Football Championship, 2016?
- (a)Colombia
- (b)Argentina
- (c)Ecuador
- (d)Peru
Answer: (b) Argentina
Chile beat Argentina on penalties in the 2016 Copa America Centenario final. View this question →
Environment & Ecology
Which one of the following is the highest altitude zoo in the world?
- (a)Cheyenne Mountain Zoo
- (b)Pandit G. B. Pant High Altitude Zoo
- (c)Himalayan Zoological Park, Gangtok
- (d)Padmaja Naidu Himalayan Zoological Park
Answer: (d) Padmaja Naidu Himalayan Zoological Park
It's often cited as the world's highest-altitude major zoo, specialising in high-altitude species like the red panda and snow leopard. View this question →
Int’l Relations & Defence
Which one of the following statements about the Missile Technology Control Regime is not correct?
- (a)The Missile Technology Control Regime is an informal and voluntary partnership initially formed among G-7 countries.
- (b)Members of the Missile Technology Control Regime prevent the proliferation of missile and unmanned aerial vehicle technology capable of carrying above 500 kg payload for more than 300 km.
- (c)China applied to join the Regime but members did not offer the membership.
- (d)No other country outside the membership follows the Regime rules.
Answer: (d) No other country outside the membership follows the Regime rules.
This statement is false. Several non-members, including Israel and even China itself after its 2004 membership bid was rejected, voluntarily follow MTCR guidelines without being formal members. The other three statements are correct: the MTCR began as an informal, voluntary G-7 partnership, its Category I threshold covers missiles and UAVs carrying over 500 kg for more than 300 km, and China’s own membership bid was indeed turned down.
Related: IntlRel0006 — India and the Global Non-Proliferation Regime
Int’l Relations & Defence
The first Tejas squadron of Indian Air Force consists of
- (a)20 aircrafts with 4 in reserve
- (b)100 aircrafts with 10 in reserve
- (c)20 aircrafts with no reserve
- (d)25 aircrafts with 5 in reserve
Answer: (a) 20 aircrafts with 4 in reserve
No. 45 Squadron “Flying Daggers,” India’s first Tejas squadron, was raised on 1 July 2016 with a strength of 20 aircraft, including 4 held in reserve.
Int’l Relations & Defence
The headquarters of ‘Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific’ is located at
- (a)Singapore
- (b)Manila
- (c)Bangkok
- (d)Hong Kong
Answer: (c) Bangkok
Bangkok, Thailand, is home to UNESCAP's headquarters. View this question →
Economy
Which of the following with regard to the term ‘bank run’ is correct?
- (a)The net balance of money a bank has in its chest at the end of the day’s business
- (b)The ratio of bank’s total deposits and total liabilities
- (c)A panic situation when the deposit holders start withdrawing cash from the banks
- (d)The period in which a bank creates highest credit in the market
Answer: (c) A panic situation when the deposit holders start withdrawing cash from the banks
A bank run happens when depositors, fearing insolvency, rush to pull out their cash all at once. View this question →
Economy
Which of the following will be the outcome if an economy is under the inflationary pressure? 1. Domestic currency heads for depreciation. 2. Exports become less competitive with imports getting costlier. 3. Cost of borrowing decreases. 4. Bondholders get benefitted. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 and 2
- (b)2 and 3
- (c)1 and 3 only
- (d)1, 3 and 4
Answer: (a) 1 and 2
Inflation tends to weaken the domestic currency and erode export competitiveness; it typically raises, not lowers, borrowing costs and hurts bondholders by eroding the real value of their fixed returns. View this question →
Economy
According to the Classical Theory of Employment, deviations from the state of full employment are
- (a)purely temporary in nature
- (b)permanent in nature
- (c)imaginary situations
- (d)normal situations
Answer: (a) purely temporary in nature
Classical economists held that flexible wages and prices self-correct any deviation, returning the economy to full employment. View this question →
Economy
Capital deepening refers to
- (a)going for more fixed capital per worker
- (b)emphasis on social overhead capital
- (c)constant capital-output ratio
- (d)increasing capital-output ratio
Answer: (a) going for more fixed capital per worker
Capital deepening raises the capital-to-labour ratio, unlike capital widening, which just adds more workers at the same ratio. View this question →
Polity & Governance
Which one of the following statements is not correct with respect to Article 32 of the Constitution of India?
- (a)It provides remedies to citizens for the enforcement of fundamental rights.
- (b)It is a part of fundamental rights.
- (c)The Supreme Court cannot refuse a writ petition under Article 32 on the ground of delay.
- (d)Protection under Article 32 also applies to the enforcement of ordinary law which has nothing to do with the fundamental rights.
Answer: (d)
Article 32 lets you move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights only. Option (d) is wrong because Article 32 does not extend to ordinary law that has nothing to do with Fundamental Rights — that wider ground is covered by Article 226 (High Courts). The Court can refuse a writ for delay, so (c) is also a false statement, making (d) the correct choice for the ‘not correct’ wording.
Polity & Governance
Which one of the following writs is issued by the Supreme Court to secure the freedom of a person upon unlawful arrest?
- (a)Habeas Corpus
- (b)Mandamus
- (c)Certiorari
- (d)Quo Warranto
Answer: (a) Habeas Corpus
Habeas corpus, Latin for ‘produce the body’, is the writ that frees a person held in unlawful arrest or detention. Mandamus commands a public duty, certiorari quashes a lower court’s order, and quo warranto questions a claim to public office — none of them releases an illegally detained person.
Polity & Governance
According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a fundamental duty?
- (a)To respect the National Flag
- (b)To defend the country
- (c)To provide education to one’s child
- (d)To promote village and cottage industries
Answer: (d)
Respecting the National Flag (51A(a)), defending the country (51A(d)), and educating one’s child aged 6-14 (51A(k), added 2002) are all real Fundamental Duties. Promoting village and cottage industries is not — it’s a Directive Principle, under Article 43. Same trap as confusing Article 51 with Article 51A: a real constitutional value, just filed under the wrong Part. (Source: Constitution of India)
Related: Polity0085 — Fundamental Rights vs. Fundamental Duties.
Polity & Governance
Under Article 352 of the Constitution of India, an emergency can be declared if security of any part of India is threatened by 1. war 2. external aggression 3. armed rebellion 4. internal disturbance. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1, 2 and 3
- (b)2, 3 and 4
- (c)1, 3 and 4
- (d)1 and 2 only
Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3
After the 44th Amendment (1978), ‘internal disturbance’ was replaced by ‘armed rebellion’ as the ground for a national emergency under Article 352. So the valid grounds are war, external aggression and armed rebellion – 1, 2 and 3.
Related: ModHist0002 — Indira Gandhi’s India: Bank Nationalisation and the Emergency · ModHist0035 — Why the Emergency Was Declared: The Allahabad Verdict · View this question →
Polity & Governance
Which one of the following statements is not true of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005?
- (a)This Act provides civil remedies to protect a woman subjected to domestic violence.
- (b)Only women can make a complaint under this legislation.
- (c)Relief may be sought only against the husband or a male live-in partner with whom the woman has lived in a domestic relationship.
- (d)The Act includes not just wives but also women in marriage-like relationships.
Answer: (c) Relief may be sought only against the husband or a male live-in partner with whom the woman has lived in a domestic relationship.
This is actually incorrect. Following the Supreme Court's 2016 Hiral P. Harsora ruling, relief can also be sought against female relatives of the respondent, not just male partners. View this question →
Economy
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
- (a)Creation of National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF) was announced in the Union Budget, 2015-16.
- (b)NIIF is a fund for enhancing infrastructure facility in the country.
- (c)NIIF and NIF (National Investment Fund) are the names of the same organization.
- (d)NIIF can have more than one alternative investment fund.
Answer: (c) NIIF and NIF (National Investment Fund) are the names of the same organization.
This is actually false. NIIF is a newer infrastructure investment fund, while NIF was an older, separate fund for managing disinvestment proceeds. View this question →
Int’l Relations & Defence
Which one of the following is not correct in respect of Andaman and Nicobar Command?
- (a)It is the first integrated theatre command in India.
- (b)Its headquarters is at Port Blair.
- (c)It is commanded by a three-star officer.
- (d)It was set up by the British during the Second World War.
Answer: (d) It was set up by the British during the Second World War.
The Andaman and Nicobar Command was set up in 2001, on the recommendation of a Group of Ministers formed after the Kargil War, not by the British. It is India’s first tri-service integrated theatre command, headquartered at Port Blair and led by a three-star officer in rotation. Related: IndGeo0031 — Andaman and Nicobar Islands (Physical Geography).
Int’l Relations & Defence
Who is the Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee?
- (a)The Chief of Army Staff
- (b)The Chief of Naval Staff
- (c)The Chief of Air Staff
- (d)The member who has been the longest on the Committee
Answer: (d) The member who has been the longest on the Committee
This question predates the CDS post, created only in January 2020. Before that, the chairmanship rotated by seniority to whichever service chief had served longest, not to a fixed service. Since 2020, the Chief of Defence Staff has been the permanent Chairman instead. Source: Wikipedia, Chief of Defence Staff (India).
Related: Polity0113 — India’s Defence Organisational Structure
Int’l Relations & Defence
Jammu and Kashmir Rifles is
- (a)an infantry regiment of the Indian Army
- (b)a battalion of the Rashtriya Rifles
- (c)the name of the Armed Police of the State of Jammu and Kashmir
- (d)a paramilitary force under the Ministry of Home Affairs
Answer: (a) an infantry regiment of the Indian Army
It's one of the Army's oldest and most decorated infantry regiments. View this question →
Int’l Relations & Defence
Which one of the following is correct?
- (a)Infantry Regiment is also known as the Mechanized Infantry Regiment.
- (b)Corps of Electrical and Mechanical Engineers is subsumed in the Corps of Engineers.
- (c)Army Medical Corps and Army Dental Corps are two divisions of the Army Service Corps.
- (d)Army has its own Corps of Air Defence.
Answer: (d) Army has its own Corps of Air Defence.
The other options wrongly merge distinct, separately organised corps — Infantry and Mechanized Infantry, EME and Engineers, and AMC/ADC with the Army Service Corps are all separate. View this question →
Int’l Relations & Defence
Which one of the following is not one of the Commands of the Indian Army?
- (a)South Western Command
- (b)North Eastern Command
- (c)Central Command
- (d)Army Training Command (ARTRAC)
Answer: (b) North Eastern Command
The Indian Army’s seven real Commands are Northern, Southern, Eastern, Western, Central, South Western, and the Army Training Command (ARTRAC). “North Eastern Command” does not exist as an Army Command.
Int’l Relations & Defence
Which one of the following statements is correct?
- (a)The rank of Second Lieutenant has been abolished.
- (b)The Chief of Army Staff carries the rank of Field Marshal.
- (c)All officers posted to Andaman and Nicobar Islands wear the ranks of the Indian Navy.
- (d)The rank of Major General is higher than the rank of Lieutenant General.
Answer: (a) The rank of Second Lieutenant has been abolished.
Since 2008, new Indian Army officers are commissioned directly as Lieutenant. Field Marshal is a rare honorary rank, not the Army Chief's standard rank, and Lieutenant General actually outranks Major General. View this question →
Int’l Relations & Defence
Which one of the following is not an Air Defence Missile system?
- (a)Akash
- (b)Trishul
- (c)Tatra
- (d)Astra
Answer: (c) Tatra
It's actually a Czech-origin heavy military truck used to transport equipment, not a missile system at all, unlike Akash, Trishul, and Astra. View this question →
Economy
Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to the composition of national income in India?
- (a)The share of manufacturing sector has declined.
- (b)The share of services sector has increased sharply.
- (c)The share of agriculture has remained static.
- (d)The share of services sector has declined.
Answer: (b) The share of services sector has increased sharply
Over the decades, services’ share of India’s national income rose sharply, while agriculture’s share fell and manufacturing stayed small.
Economy
In India, the term ‘hot money’ is used to refer to
- (a)Currency + Reserves with the RBI
- (b)Net GDR
- (c)Net Foreign Direct Investment
- (d)Foreign Portfolio Investment
Answer: (d) Foreign Portfolio Investment
These volatile, short-term capital flows chase quick returns and can exit a market as fast as they enter, earning the name 'hot money'. View this question →
Economy
Which of the following is/are credit rating agency/agencies in India?
- (a)CRISIL
- (b)CARE
- (c)ICRA
- (d)All of the above
Answer: (d) All of the above
CRISIL, CARE, and ICRA are all real, SEBI-registered credit rating agencies operating in India. SEBI regulates credit rating agencies directly, under the SEBI (Credit Rating Agencies) Regulations, 1999.
Related: Polity0121 — SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India)
Economy
Who among the following is the Chairman of the Fourteenth Finance Commission?
- (a)C. Rangarajan
- (b)Vijay Kelkar
- (c)Y. V. Reddy
- (d)Rakesh Mohan
Answer: (c) Y. V. Reddy
The former RBI Governor chaired the Fourteenth Finance Commission. View this question →
Int’l Relations & Defence
The members of NAFTA are
- (a)USA, Canada and Mexico
- (b)USA, Canada and India
- (c)USA, Canada and Japan
- (d)USA, UK and India
Answer: (a) USA, Canada and Mexico
These are the three founding members of the North American Free Trade Agreement. View this question →
Polity & Governance
Which of the following are constitutional provisions and laws for the protection of the rights of the Scheduled Castes in India? 1. Article 17 of the Constitution of India 2. The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 3. The Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 and 3 only
- (b)1 and 2 only
- (c)1, 2 and 3
- (d)2 and 3 only
Answer: (c)
All three are real protections. Article 17 abolishes untouchability outright and is directly enforceable in court. The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 and the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 give that constitutional guarantee its statutory teeth. (Source: Constitution of India)
Related: Polity0088 — Special Provisions for Minorities, SC and ST.
Polity & Governance
Which one of the following is not true about the powers of the Supreme Court?
- (a)The Supreme Court has original and exclusive jurisdiction in inter-governmental disputes.
- (b)The Supreme Court has advisory jurisdiction on a question of law or fact which may be referred to it by the President of India.
- (c)The Supreme Court has the power to review its own judgment or order.
- (d)The Supreme Court has the exclusive power to issue writs to protect the fundamental rights of the people.
Answer: (d) The Supreme Court has the exclusive power to issue writs to protect the fundamental rights of the people.
This is actually incorrect. High Courts also hold writ jurisdiction to protect fundamental rights under Article 226, so the Supreme Court's power under Article 32 isn't exclusive. View this question →
Polity & Governance
The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India pertains to the administration of tribal areas in which of the following States?
- (a)Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram
- (b)Meghalaya, Tripura, Manipur and Mizoram
- (c)Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya and Tripura
- (d)Manipur, Meghalaya, Tripura and Arunachal Pradesh
Answer: Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram
The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration of tribal areas in states like Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. It gives these areas local self-government.
Related: GK0032 — Mizoram · ModHist0050 — The Bodoland Movement: From Agitation to Autonomous Council
Polity & Governance
Which one of the following statements with regard to the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India is not correct?
- (a)It was inserted by the Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951.
- (b)The Acts and Regulations specified in the Ninth Schedule shall become void on the ground that it violates a fundamental right in Part III of the Constitution.
- (c)The Supreme Court has the power of judicial review of an Act included in the Ninth Schedule on the doctrine of basic structure.
- (d)The appropriate Legislature can repeal or amend an Act specified in the Ninth Schedule.
Answer: (b)
Article 31B actually says the opposite: a Ninth Schedule Act shall not be deemed void, or ever to have become void, for violating a Part III fundamental right. Statement (b) inverts that protection. (a), (c), and (d) are each independently correct. (Source: Article 31B, Constitution of India)
Related: Polity0096 — Revisiting the 50% Cap on Reservation.
History & Culture
Consider the following statements about Harappan cities : 1. Roads were not always absolutely straight and did not always cross one another at right angles. 2. A striking feature is the uniformity in the average size of the bricks for houses and for city walls. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Even in the best-planned Harappan cities, some roads and lanes deviated from a perfect grid. At the same time, brick sizes stayed strikingly uniform across the civilisation, always keeping the same 4:2:1 length-width-height ratio for both houses and city walls, from Gujarat to Punjab.
Related: AncHist0005 — Harappan Civilisation: Life, Economy and Decline
History & Culture
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
- A.Kurinchi
- B.Palai
- C.Neytal
- D.Mullai
- 1.Pastoral region
- 2.Seashore
- 3.Arid region
- 4.Mountainous region
- (a)A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
- (b)A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
- (c)A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
- (d)A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
Answer: (c) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
Kurinchi denotes hilly, mountainous tracts. Palai denotes arid, desert regions. Neytal denotes the coastal seashore, and Mullai denotes pastoral, forest regions.
Polity & Governance
Which of the following statements with regard to the conduct of elections in India is/are not correct? 1. The responsibility for the preparation of the electoral rolls is vested in the Election Commission of India. 2. The Model Code of Conduct comes into existence as soon as the date of the election is announced. 3. The laws relating to delimitation of constituencies are made by the Election Commission of India. 4. No election shall be called in question except by an election petition. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)3 only
- (b)1, 2 and 4
- (c)1, 2 and 3
- (d)4 only
Answer: (a) 3 only
Delimitation of constituencies is actually carried out by a separate Delimitation Commission set up under an Act of Parliament, not by the Election Commission of India. View this question →
Polity & Governance
Which one of the following statements with regard to the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes is not correct?
- (a)The Union and every State Government shall consult the Commission on all major policy matters affecting Scheduled Tribes.
- (b)All the reports of the Commission and its recommendations shall be laid only before Lok Sabha.
- (c)The Commission, while investigating any matter, has all the powers of a Civil Court.
- (d)The Commission has the power to regulate its own procedures.
Answer: (b) All the reports of the Commission and its recommendations shall be laid only before Lok Sabha.
This is the false statement. Under Article 338A(6), the NCST’s reports must be laid before BOTH Houses of Parliament, not the Lok Sabha alone. The other three statements are correct. Source: Article 338A, Constitution of India. Related: Polity0059 — National Commissions, UPSC and Anti-Corruption Bodies.
Polity & Governance
The right to form associations and unions is a right
- (a)guaranteed to everybody
- (b)to freedom guaranteed to citizens only
- (c)to equality before law
- (d)to life and personal liberty
Answer: (b) to freedom guaranteed to citizens only
Article 19(1)(c) grants this freedom only to citizens, not to everybody, so option (a) is wrong. It is a Fundamental Right under Article 19, not Article 14 (equality) or Article 21 (life and liberty).
The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011 added the words “or co-operative societies” to this same clause, so Article 19(1)(c) now reads “to form associations or unions or co-operative societies” — the constitutional basis the Ministry of Cooperation’s own work rests on.
Related: Polity0112 — Ministry of Cooperation · Polity0002 — Fundamental Rights of Indian Citizens.
Polity & Governance
Some Indian territory was transferred in 2015 to Bangladesh by following which procedure?
- (a)By an agreement between the Government of India and the Government of Bangladesh
- (b)By a legislation passed by the Parliament amending Schedule 1 to the Constitution of India
- (c)By amending Schedule 1 to the Constitution of India by exercising amending power of the Parliament
- (d)By amending Schedule 1 to the Constitution of India by exercising amending power of the Parliament and ratification by sixteen State Legislatures
Answer: (d) By amending Schedule 1 to the Constitution of India by exercising amending power of the Parliament and ratification by sixteen State Legislatures
The 100th Constitutional Amendment altered Schedule 1's territorial boundaries and required ratification by the affected State Legislatures alongside Parliament's amending power, implementing the India-Bangladesh Land Boundary Agreement. View this question →
English-language questions transcribed from the official Combined Defence Services Examination (II), 2016 question booklet (SDC-S-SND), General Knowledge paper. Hindi text omitted (bilingual booklet). Answer key not included.
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