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Why do historians increasingly prefer the term “Mamluk dynasty” over “Slave Dynasty”?

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1. Why do historians increasingly prefer the term “Mamluk dynasty” over “Slave Dynasty”?

Because only three rulers in the line, Aibak, Iltutmish, and Balban, were actually enslaved themselves

Because the term “slave” wasn’t used in medieval sources

Because the dynasty never actually practiced slavery

Because “Mamluk” refers to a different dynasty entirely

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