Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the word in quotes: The leader’s views were ‘equivocal’ on the contentious issue.

clear. 'Equivocal' means unclear or open to two readings. Its opposite is 'clear'. So option (c) is correct.

Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the word in quotes: The authorities interacted with a group of ‘mutinous’ students.

obedient. 'Mutinous' means rebellious. The opposite is 'obedient'. So option (d) is correct.

Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the word in quotes: His behaviour was quite ‘belligerent’.

amiable. 'Belligerent' means aggressive. The opposite is 'amiable', meaning friendly. So option (d) is correct.

Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the word in quotes: He was ‘effusive’ in his praise.

reticent. 'Effusive' means gushing in expression. The opposite is 'reticent', meaning reserved. So option (d) is correct.

Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the word in quotes: He is often accused of being ‘iniquitous’ in his conduct.

virtuous. 'Iniquitous' means wicked or unjust. The opposite is 'virtuous'. So option (c) is correct.

CDS (II) 2024 — English (Full Question Paper)

Fill in the Blanks

Directions: Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and is followed by four choices. Select the most appropriate choice to fill in the blank.

Working in dim light ______ eye issues such as glaucoma.

(a)contributes
(b)precipitates
(c)eradicates
(d)eliminates

Answer: (b) precipitates

Dim light strains the eyes and can bring on conditions like glaucoma. ‘Precipitates’ means triggers or hastens, so it fits. So option (b) is correct.

He owns several sports cars and has an ______ lifestyle.

(a)opulent
(b)occult
(c)ocular
(d)obscure

Answer: (a) opulent

A person with several sports cars lives richly. ‘Opulent’ means luxurious and wealthy. So option (a) is correct.

Those medicines, ______ are used to treat kidney infection, have been withdrawn from the market.

(a)what
(b)which
(c)when
(d)who

Answer: (b) which

The clause adds extra detail about the medicines. A non-defining clause for things uses ‘which’. So option (b) is correct.

______ intake of sugar can cause health problems.

(a)Access
(b)Excess of
(c)Excessive
(d)Excessively

Answer: (c) Excessive

The noun ‘intake’ needs an adjective before it. ‘Excessive’ is the adjective, meaning too much. So option (c) is correct.

10.

She suffered ______ pain because of the leg injury.

(a)hurting
(b)excruciating
(c)consuming
(d)protracting

Answer: (b) excruciating

An injury can cause very severe pain. ‘Excruciating’ means extremely painful. So option (b) is correct.

11.

The country’s politics ______ complex, with more than ten parties competing for power.

(a)are
(b)am
(c)is
(d)were

Answer: (c) is

‘Politics’ takes a singular verb when it means a country’s political life. So ‘is’ is correct. So option (c) is correct.

12.

The job advertisement stipulates that the applicant ______ three years’ experience.

(a)have
(b)had
(c)shall have
(d)must have

Answer: (d) must have

The advertisement sets a required condition. ‘Must have’ states that requirement clearly. So option (d) is correct.

13.

Newspapers have reported heavy flooding in the coastal areas. The damage ______ to be extensive.

(a)expected
(b)is expecting
(c)has been expected
(d)is expected

Answer: (d) is expected

The damage is not yet confirmed, only expected. The present passive ‘is expected’ fits. So option (d) is correct.

14.

The local bank was robbed by a group of men, ______ were armed.

(a)four of whom
(b)four of these
(c)four of those
(d)four whom

Answer: (a) four of whom

We need to say four of the men were armed. ‘Four of whom’ links the two ideas correctly. So option (a) is correct.

15.

The country ______ several economic changes in the past two decades.

(a)underwent
(b)had undergone
(c)will be undergoing
(d)have been undergoing

Answer: (a) underwent

The change happened in the past two decades and is described as complete. The simple past ‘underwent’ fits. So option (a) is correct.

Idioms and Phrases

Directions: Given below are some idioms / phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d), which is the most appropriate meaning and mark your response accordingly.

16.

A watched pot never boils

(a)Surveillance destroys creativity
(b)To experience failure due to over eagerness
(c)To have no chance of achieving something
(d)Desperate anticipation makes time drag on

Answer: (d) Desperate anticipation makes time drag on

The proverb says time seems to drag when you wait anxiously. That is desperate anticipation making time drag on. So option (d) is correct.

17.

Look to your laurels

(a)To make an extra effort to secure one’s position
(b)To look suitable for a particular situation
(c)To guard one’s trophies
(d)To praise oneself

Answer: (a) To make an extra effort to secure one’s position

‘Look to your laurels’ warns you to work harder to keep your lead. It means to make an extra effort to secure one’s position. So option (a) is correct.

18.

Play devil’s advocate

(a)To try to defeat someone by tricking them
(b)To perform with a lot of skills
(c)To delay doing something
(d)To pretend to be against an idea in order to discuss it more carefully

Answer: (d) To pretend to be against an idea in order to discuss it more carefully

A devil’s advocate argues against an idea to test it. The aim is to examine it more carefully. So option (d) is correct.

19.

Be in the same boat

(a)To say two things in the same breath
(b)To be in the same unpleasant situation
(c)To do something that is dangerous
(d)To pretend to be something that you are not

Answer: (b) To be in the same unpleasant situation

People ‘in the same boat’ share the same bad situation. So option (b) is correct.

20.

Tilt at windmills

(a)To be young and inexperienced
(b)To celebrate good news
(c)To blow hot air
(d)To waste time dealing with enemies and problems that do not exist

Answer: (d) To waste time dealing with enemies and problems that do not exist

Tilting at windmills means fighting imaginary enemies. It is a waste of effort on problems that do not exist. So option (d) is correct.

Ordering of Words in a Sentence

Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled as P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences, namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

21.

P: the essence of human resource development is
Q: remedial role in
R: balancing the socio-economic fabric of the country
S: education which plays a significant and

(a)PSQR
(b)PQSR
(c)RSQP
(d)RQSP

Answer: (a) PSQR

The sentence reads: the essence of human resource development is education which plays a significant and remedial role in balancing the socio-economic fabric. That order is PSQR. So option (a) is correct.

22.

P: in this endeavour
Q: gender budgeting is a critical strategy
R: is central to mitigate gender inequalities and
S: financing for gender equality

(a)QPRS
(b)QRPS
(c)SRQP
(d)SPRQ

Answer: (c) SRQP

Financing for gender equality is central to mitigate inequalities. Gender budgeting is a critical strategy in this endeavour. That order is SRQP. So option (c) is correct.

23.

P: balanced diet and are vital items of
Q: are essential ingredients for a wholesome and
R: fruit and vegetables
S: mass consumption

(a)RQPS
(b)RPSQ
(c)SRPQ
(d)SQRP

Answer: (a) RQPS

Fruit and vegetables are essential for a wholesome and balanced diet. They are vital items of mass consumption. That order is RQPS. So option (a) is correct.

24.

P: relating to the reduction of greenhouse gases
Q: and extending financial support to
R: developing countries
S: India’s position is reflected in decisions

(a)SRPQ
(b)SPQR
(c)PRSQ
(d)RSPQ

Answer: (b) SPQR

India’s position is reflected in decisions relating to cutting greenhouse gases. It also reflects financial support to developing countries. That order is SPQR. So option (b) is correct.

25.

P: disbursement of pension expeditiously
Q: all efforts are made to process the
R: once all requisite documents are received from
S: the beneficiaries

(a)QPSR
(b)RSQP
(c)PRSQ
(d)SPQR

Answer: (b) RSQP

The beneficiaries must send documents first. Then all efforts are made to process pension quickly. That order is RSQP. So option (b) is correct.

26.

P: than interpreting it
Q: combating poverty continues
R: understanding poverty is more important
S: to elude humanity because

(a)QSRP
(b)PRSQ
(c)SRQP
(d)RSPQ

Answer: (a) QSRP

Combating poverty continues to elude humanity because understanding it matters more than interpreting it. That order is QSRP. So option (a) is correct.

27.

P: the National Education Policy-2020 envisages
Q: and pedagogy in schools and colleges
R: following the liberal approach
S: a restructuring of existing curriculum

(a)SRQP
(b)PQRS
(c)RPSQ
(d)RQSP

Answer: (c) RPSQ

The policy follows a liberal approach and envisages a restructuring of curriculum and pedagogy. That order is RPSQ. So option (c) is correct.

28.

P: the Amazon Basin in the central north
Q: America’s physiography is
R: in the west and
S: dominated by the Andes Mountains

(a)RSPQ
(b)SPRQ
(c)QSRP
(d)PQRS

Answer: (c) QSRP

America’s physiography is dominated by the Andes in the west and the Amazon Basin in the central north. That order is QSRP. So option (c) is correct.

29.

P: encompassing a great many
Q: has been eclectic
R: historically and culturally Indian society
S: differences and contradictions

(a)RQPS
(b)RSQP
(c)PQRS
(d)PQSR

Answer: (a) RQPS

Historically and culturally, Indian society has been eclectic, encompassing many differences and contradictions. That order is RQPS. So option (a) is correct.

30.

P: systems of India and is considered
Q: the Siddha system is
R: to be a form of age-old experiential wisdom
S: one of the ancient comprehensive medical

(a)RPSQ
(b)QSPR
(c)PSQR
(d)PRSQ

Answer: (b) QSPR

The Siddha system is one of the ancient comprehensive medical systems of India. It is considered a form of age-old experiential wisdom. That order is QSPR. So option (b) is correct.

Ordering of Sentences

Directions: In this section, each item consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled as P, Q, R and S. You are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly on the Answer Sheet.

31.

S1: Indian defence forces are fully aligned with national agenda of Atmanirbhar Bharat and have already embarked in mission mode.

S6: As a result, the Indian defence industry will be apprised about the anticipated requirements of the armed forces and is thus better prepared to realize its goal.
P: This will provide opportunity to the Indian industry to harness their potential and build an ecosystem which can sustain itself by being responsive to the needs of the defence forces.
Q: Two Positive Indigenization Lists, comprising 101 and 108 items respectively, have been issued.
R: Projects fielded are aimed to encourage indigenization of defence technologies and reduce dependence on import.
S: The lists intend to implement ban on import of these items in a staggered manner up to 2025 and promote indigenous production.
The correct sequence should be :

(a)PSRQ
(b)QPRS
(c)QSRP
(d)SRPQ

Answer: (c) QSRP

First comes the pair of Positive Indigenization Lists. Next their aim, then the projects, then the benefit to industry. That order is QSRP. So option (c) is correct.

32.

S1: Our Constitution makers were fully conscious of the fact that the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes had been oppressed and underprivileged sections of our society over the centuries and they deserved a special dispensation so that their condition may be vastly improved.

S6: Consequently, adequate safeguards were provided for these communities in our Constitution.
P: Similarly, they were also sensitive of the difficulties and problems which were likely to be faced by the persons belonging to the Anglo-Indian community in the country.
Q: One such provision related to the reservation of seats for these communities in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies.
R: This provision found place in Article 330 and Article 332 of the Constitution.
S: For this purpose, several special provisions were incorporated in our Constitution.
The correct sequence should be :

(a)SQRP
(b)SPRQ
(c)QPRS
(d)QRSP

Answer: (a) SQRP

The Constitution gave special provisions. One was the reservation of seats. Article 330 and 332 give this. Then the Anglo-Indian concern. That order is SQRP. So option (a) is correct.

33.

S1: Startup India is a flagship initiative of the Government of India.

S6: Under the Startup India scheme, eligible companies can get recognized as startups in order to access a host of tax benefits, easier compliance, IPR fast-tracking and other benefits.
P: These programmes are managed by a dedicated Startup India team, which reports to DPIIT.
Q: It envisions transforming India into a country of job creators instead of job seekers.
R: It intends to catalyse the startup culture and build a strong and inclusive ecosystem for innovation and entrepreneurship in India.
S: Launched in 2016, Startup India has rolled out several programmes with the objective of supporting entrepreneurs and building up a robust startup ecosystem.
The correct sequence should be :

(a)PQSR
(b)PSQR
(c)PSRQ
(d)RSQP

Answer: (d) RSQP

R explains what Startup India intends. S says it launched in 2016. Q adds the vision. P says who manages the programmes. That order is RSQP. So option (d) is correct.

34.

S1: In India the first Livestock Census was conducted during 1919 – 1920.

S6: For the first time, data was collected through tablet computers, which reduced the time gap in data collection, data processing and report generation.
P: Since its inception it is being conducted quinquennially by all States/UTs.
Q: The 20th Livestock Census was conducted with participation of Animal Husbandry Departments of States/UTs.
R: This five-yearly census is the only source which gives disaggregated information on various species of animals and poultry birds.
S: The main objective of the census is to provide information on livestock population, species-wise and breed-wise, along with age, sex-composition, etc., in rural and urban areas.
The correct sequence should be :

(a)PRSQ
(b)PSQR
(c)QRSP
(d)QSPR

Answer: (a) PRSQ

After the first census, the five-yearly cycle is described. Then its value, its objective and the 20th census. That order is PRSQ. So option (a) is correct.

35.

S1: India has been a welfare state since Independence.

S6: Elimination of poverty, ignorance, diseases and inequality of opportunities, and providing a better quality of life were the basic premise upon which all the plans of the development were built.
P: The policies and programmes have been designed with the aim of alleviation of rural poverty.
Q: The primary objective of all governmental endeavours has been the welfare of its rural population.
R: It was realized that a sustainable strategy of poverty alleviation has to be based on increasing the productive employment opportunities in the process of growth itself.
S: Ensuring rural welfare has been one of the main objectives of planned development in India.
The correct sequence should be :

(a)PRSQ
(b)QPSR
(c)RQSP
(d)SRPQ

Answer not given

The keys look doubtful for this question, so no answer is shown here.

36.

S1: Covid-19 pandemic threw a lot of challenges on the entire economy.

S6: In order to address this need and to promote economic activities post pandemic, MoHUA initiated ARHCs, a sub-scheme under MAY(U).
P: These urban migrants stay in slums, informal settlements, unauthorized colonies, peri-urban areas to save cost on housing.
Q: Hence, they need decent rental housing at affordable rate near their worksites.
R: The biggest challenge was reverse migration of urban migrants/poor in the country.
S: The migration took place due to the temporary shutting down of industries and other sectors.
The correct sequence should be :

(a)PQRS
(b)SRQP
(c)QSRP
(d)RSPQ

Answer: (d) RSPQ

The pandemic created a challenge. Reverse migration followed, with industries shutting down. Migrants live in slums, so they need affordable rentals. That order is RSPQ. So option (d) is correct.

37.

S1 : Press Trust of India (PTI) is a non-profit making cooperative owned by the country’s newspapers with a mandate to provide effective and unbiased news to all subscribers.

S6: Increasingly, more and more subscribers are opting for satellite reception.
P: It offers its news services in English and Hindi languages.
Q: Over 500 newspapers and several news services subscribe to PTI, including many overseas news entities.
R: PTI now has its own satellite delivery system.
S: Bhasha is the Hindi language news service of the agency.
The correct sequence should be :

(a)QRSP
(b)QPSR
(c)RPSQ
(d)RQSP

Answer: (b) QPSR

Over 500 newspapers subscribe to PTI. It offers English and Hindi services, including Bhasha. It also has a satellite system. That order is QPSR. So option (b) is correct.

38.

S1: The National School of Drama (NSD) was set up by the Sangeet Natak Akademi in 1959.

S6: The NSD has promoted Children’s Theatre as well.
P: Post admission, the students at NSD are required to undergo training of three year’s duration.
Q: The eligible applicants for admission are screened through two stages.
R: The objective of the NSD is to train students in all aspects of theatre, including theatre history, production, scene design, costume design, lighting, make-up, etc.
S: In 1975, it became an autonomous organisation.
The correct sequence should be :

(a)PQRS
(b)SRQP
(c)QSRP
(d)RSPQ

Answer: (b) SRQP

NSD was set up in 1959 and became autonomous in 1975. Its objective, admission and training follow. That order is SRQP. So option (b) is correct.

39.

S1: Gaganyaan is a national programme wherein ISRO is leveraging the domain expertise of various agencies for expediting its execution.

S6: It will lay the foundation for a sustained Indian human space exploration programme in the long run.
P: With this programme, a new vertical has been created within ISRO to steer this growth.
Q: The Gaganyaan Programme marks an inflection point in the growth profile of India’s space endeavour.
R: This new vertical envisages undertaking the demonstration of human space flight to Low Earth Orbit in the short-term.
S: A new ISRO centre, Human Spaceflight Centre has been formed for Low Earth Orbit flights.
The correct sequence should be :

(a)QPRS
(b)QSRP
(c)RSPQ
(d)SPRQ

Answer: (a) QPRS

The Gaganyaan programme marks an inflection point. A new vertical and a new centre were created for it. That order is QPRS. So option (a) is correct.

40.

S1: India has the largest youth population in the world.

S6: The role of the Department of Youth Affairs is to act as a facilitator and catalytic agent for youth development.
P: The Department has also recognised adolescents as an important segment of the youth.
Q: Youth represent the most dynamic and vibrant segment of the population.
R: To optimally tap their constructive and creative energies, the Department of Youth Affairs pursues the twin objectives of personality development and nation building.
S: Other Ministries and the State Governments are also working to support youth development and to enable productive youth participation.
The correct sequence should be :

(a)PSRQ
(b)QRPS
(c)RPQS
(d)SPRQ

Answer: (b) QRPS

Youth are the most dynamic segment. The Department pursues twin objectives, then recognises adolescents, then other ministries help. That order is QRPS. So option (b) is correct.

Word Classes

Directions: Each of the following sentences has a word / words underlined. Read the sentence carefully and find which word class the underlined word/words belongs/belong to. Indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

41.

Consequently, this poses a threat to agriculture and human health.

(a)Adjective
(b)Adverb
(c)Verb
(d)Noun

Answer: (b) Adverb

‘Consequently’ tells us the result of something. A word that modifies a sentence like this is an adverb. So option (b) is correct.

42.

His only answer was a grunt.

(a)Noun
(b)Adjective
(c)Pronoun
(d)Determiner

Answer: (b) Adjective

‘Only’ comes before the noun ‘answer’ and describes it. So it is an adjective. So option (b) is correct.

43.

To swim every day is good for health.

(a)Participle
(b)Infinitive verb
(c)Gerund
(d)Adjective

Answer: (b) Infinitive verb

‘To swim’ is the base verb with ‘to’. That makes it an infinitive. So option (b) is correct.

44.

I didn’t tell him anything except that I needed the money.

(a)Adjective
(b)Adverb
(c)Preposition
(d)Conjunction

Answer not given

The keys look doubtful for this question, so no answer is shown here.

45.

She married at 18 and gave birth to her first child shortly thereafter.

(a)Pronoun
(b)Determiner
(c)Adjective
(d)Adverb

Answer: (d) Adverb

‘Thereafter’ tells us when she gave birth. A word that tells when is an adverb. So option (d) is correct.

Directions: Identify the part of the speech of the underlined word/ phrase in the sentence and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

46.

He is one of the tallest boys in his class.

(a)Possessive Pronoun
(b)Noun
(c)Reflexive Pronoun
(d)Numeral Adjective

Answer: (a) Possessive Pronoun

‘His’ shows that the class belongs to the boy. Of the four options, ‘possessive pronoun’ is the only one that names a word of ownership. So option (a) is correct.

47.

The mighty river Brahmaputra flows through the plains of Assam.

(a)Adverb
(b)Adjective
(c)Noun
(d)Pronoun

Answer: (b) Adjective

‘Mighty’ describes the river. A word that describes a noun is an adjective. So option (b) is correct.

48.

The money which one earns is not the money for himself, it is for the family and society.

(a)Noun
(b)Pronoun
(c)Verb
(d)Adverb

Answer: (b) Pronoun

‘Himself’ stands in for a person. It is a pronoun. So option (b) is correct.

49.

The Principal said, “We should always be disciplined.”

(a)Preposition
(b)Adverb
(c)Adjective
(d)Determiner

Answer: (b) Adverb

‘Always’ tells how often the students should be disciplined. It is an adverb. So option (b) is correct.

50.

The river that flows through the village is a tributary of the Cauvery.

(a)Pronoun
(b)Noun
(c)Verb
(d)Adjective

Answer: (b) Noun

‘River’ names a thing. It is a noun. So option (b) is correct.

Passages

Directions: In this section, you have two short passages. After each passage, you will find some items based on the passage. Read the passage carefully and answer the items based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and the opinion of the author only. Passage – I

Passage I

It must not be imagined that a walking tour, as some would have us fancy, is merely a better or worse way of seeing the country. There are many ways of seeing landscape quite as good; and none more vivid, in spite of canting dilettantes, than from a railway train. But landscape on a walking tour is quite an accessory. He who is indeed of the brotherhood does not voyage in quest of the picturesque, but of certain jolly humours — of the hope and spirit with which the march begins at morning, and the peace and spiritual repletion of the evening’s rest. He cannot tell whether he puts his knapsack on, or takes it off, with more delight. The excitement of the departure puts him in key for that of the arrival. Whatever he does is not only a reward in itself, but will be further rewarded in the sequel; and so pleasure leads on to pleasure in an endless chain. It is this that so few can understand; they will either be always lounging or always at five miles an hour; they do not play off the one against the other, prepare all day for the evening, and all evening for the next day.

Now, to be properly enjoyed, a walking tour should be gone upon alone. If you go in a company, or even in pairs, it is no longer a walking tour in anything but name; it is something else and more in the nature of a picnic. A walking tour should be gone upon alone, because freedom is of the essence; because you should be able to stop and go on, and follow this way or that, as the freak takes you; and because you must have your own pace, and neither trot alongside a champion walker, nor mince in time with a girl. And then you must be open to all impressions and let your thoughts take colour from what you see. You should be as a pipe for any wind to play upon. “I cannot see the wit,” says Hazlitt, “of walking and talking at the same time. When I am in the country I wish to vegetate like the country” — which is the gist of all that can be said upon the matter. There should be no cackle of voices at your elbow, to jar on the meditative silence of the morning. And so long as a man is reasoning he cannot surrender himself to that fine intoxication that comes of much motion in the open air, that begins in a sort of dazzle and sluggishness of the brain, and ends in a peace that passes comprehension.

51.

According to the passage, what is the primary purpose of a walking tour?

(a)Seeing the landscape
(b)Quest of the picturesque
(c)Longing for pleasure
(d)Desire for education

Answer: (c) Longing for pleasure

The author says the walker seeks jolly humours, hope and spirit, and pleasure leading to pleasure. So the primary purpose is the longing for pleasure. So option (c) is correct.

52.

According to the passage, a walking tour should be gone upon alone because:

(a)It is more in the nature of a picnic.
(b)He may put his knapsack on, or take it off, with more delight.
(c)It will add to individual excitement.
(d)It will provide freedom which is of the utmost importance.

Answer: (d) It will provide freedom which is of the utmost importance.

The passage says freedom is of the essence in a walking tour. That freedom is of the utmost importance. So option (d) is correct.

53.

According to the passage, what can adversely affect the walking tour?

(a)Walking and talking at the same time
(b)Walking to rise above the everyday worries of life
(c)Walking to experience the beauty of the surroundings
(d)Walking to meditate in silence

Answer: (a) Walking and talking at the same time

The author says walking and talking together spoil the tour. So walking and talking at the same time harms it. So option (a) is correct.

54.

According to the passage, how should a walking tour conclude?

(a)With the meditative peace above the real surroundings
(b)With a peace that delights you
(c)With the impressions of the surroundings
(d)With the sounds of the birds around you

Answer: (a) With the meditative peace above the real surroundings

The tour ends in a peace that passes comprehension. This is a meditative calm. So option (a) is correct.

55.

What is the meaning of the word “dilettantes” in the passage?

(a)Persons who cultivate an aesthetic pursuit without real interest
(b)Professionals
(c)Morning joggers
(d)Schooled travellers

Answer: (a) Persons who cultivate an aesthetic pursuit without real interest

A dilettante pursues an art or interest without real commitment. So option (a) is the meaning. So option (a) is correct.

Passage II

Historical analysis combines several levels of thinking and study, posing a question about the past, setting up the problem in a form intended to facilitate its solution, solving the problem, and verifying the solution or interpretation. Academic history relies on formal analysis, based on rational and systematic apprehension of relevant evidence. Yet such formal analysis can be seen as a subset of the broader category of interpretation, including responses to evidence that are impressionistic and informal rather than formal and logically structured. Indeed, the many genres of academic and popular history run the full gamut from logically systematic to impressionistic.

Historians come from a widely varying range of philosophical traditions, and the varying philosophies lead to quite different ways of posing questions and answers. The distinctions among philosophical principles sketched here help to show a how it is that different analytical priorities arise on the main topics proposed for analysis; they also show how historians can rely on similar data yet come to different or conflicting conclusions. Nineteenth century philosophical outlooks remain central to the world-historical analysis: most the notably the dialectics of G.W.F. Hegel and the materialism of Karl Marx. Another great nineteenth-century current of thought was positivism, elaborated by Auguste Comte and focusing on study through breaking large problems into small ones, seeking deterministic relationship within the smaller problems. Philosophies of structuralism and post modernism have developed in more recent times, rejecting the positivist separation of problems into discrete sub-problems and emphasizing interaction among aspects of a problem.

56.

Which of the following does <i>not</i> amount to historical analysis?

(a)Posing a question about the past, setting up the problem in a form intended to facilitate its solution.
(b)Solving the problem and verifying the solution or interpretation.
(c)Combines several levels of thinking and study to arrive at a conclusion.
(d)Drawing from evidence to make impressionistic and informal conclusion.

Answer: (d) Drawing from evidence to make impressionistic and informal conclusion.

Historical analysis rests on questions, evidence and careful reasoning. Drawing impressionistic, informal conclusions does not amount to it. So option (d) is correct.

57.

‘The many genres of academic and popular history run the full gamut from logically systematic to impressionistic’ means:

(a)The range of texts varies from those based on objective analysis and those based on subjective assertions.
(b)Historical analysis that is rarely vague to that which establishes evidence.
(c)Historical analysis that is always vague to that which establishes no evidence.
(d)Historical analysis that is rarely systematic to that which establishes evidence.

Answer: (a) The range of texts varies from those based on objective analysis and those based on subjective assertions.

‘From logically systematic to impressionistic’ describes a range from objective analysis to subjective assertion. Option (a) says that. So option (a) is correct.

58.

What, according to the author, makes historians come to conflicting conclusions?

1. They are influenced by their philosophical beliefs in asking questions on the same data.
2. They apply different interpretations on the same data.
3. They go for the primary data and evidence.
4. They are influenced by the current political developments.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)3 and 4 only
(c)2 and 4 only
(d)1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Historians reach different conclusions because of their philosophical beliefs and different readings of the same data. So only statements 1 and 2 hold. So option (a) is correct.

59.

Which word(s) from the passage can be substituted for the assertion that “all events and human actions are ultimately shaped by causes external to the will”?

(a)Impressionistic
(b)Idealist approach to history
(c)Deterministic relationship
(d)Dialectics

Answer: (c) Deterministic relationship

A deterministic relationship says events are shaped by causes outside the will. So ‘deterministic relationship’ is the matching phrase. So option (c) is correct.

60.

Which one of the following relates to the post-modernist approach to History?

(a)Post-modernist approach builds on positivism.
(b)Post-modernist approach emphasises interaction among aspects of a problem.
(c)Post-modernist approach rejects both; the separation of problems into sub-problems and interaction among them.
(d)Post-modernist approach supports separation of problems and interaction among them.

Answer: (b) Post-modernist approach emphasises interaction among aspects of a problem.

Passage II says postmodernism rejects the separation of problems into sub-problems. It stresses interaction among the aspects of a problem. So option (b) is correct.

Prepositions and Determiners

Directions: Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space with four options. Select whichever preposition or determiner you consider the most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

61.

I saw Nandini ______ she was waiting for the bus.

(a)during
(b)while
(c)on
(d)for

Answer: (b) while

‘While’ joins two actions happening at the same time. It fits the waiting for the bus. So option (b) is correct.

62.

This sauce has to be used ______ 23rd September.

(a)by
(b)for
(c)into
(d)with

Answer: (a) by

‘By’ a date means no later than that date. It fits a use-by date. So option (a) is correct.

63.

I’ll be working on this report ______ 10:30 p.m.

(a)during
(b)since
(c)until
(d)in

Answer: (c) until

‘Until’ shows that the work continues up to 10:30 p.m. So option (c) is correct.

64.

I have ______ energy left to complete the work.

(a)few
(b)many
(c)little
(d)any

Answer: (c) little

‘Little’ goes with the uncountable noun ‘energy’. It gives a negative sense of almost none. So option (c) is correct.

65.

I had ______ trouble finding the house.

(a)any
(b)some
(c)few
(d)all

Answer: (b) some

‘Some’ fits the sense of a little trouble in finding the house. So option (b) is correct.

66.

______ of these officers are very well-trained.

(a)Much
(b)Not
(c)Most
(d)One

Answer: (c) Most

‘Most of these officers’ is the correct partitive form. It means the majority. So option (c) is correct.

67.

I don’t like going to ______ dentist.

(a)these
(b)an
(c)the
(d)no article

Answer: (c) the

A specific dentist is meant, so we use ‘the’. So option (c) is correct.

68.

They placed the African elephant ______ their endangered list.

(a)in
(b)at
(c)about
(d)on

Answer: (d) on

A list is something an item is placed ‘on’. So ‘on their endangered list’ is correct. So option (d) is correct.

69.

______ travel industry is changing rapidly.

(a)An
(b)A
(c)The
(d)no article

Answer: (c) The

A particular industry is meant, so ‘The’ is needed. So option (c) is correct.

70.

She is ______ MP from Rajasthan.

(a)any
(b)a
(c)an
(d)no article

Answer: (c) an

‘MP’ begins with the vowel sound ’em’. So we use ‘an’. So option (c) is correct.

Spotting Errors

Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled as (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

71.

Everything (a) what happened (b) was because of my actions. (c)

(a)Everything
(b)what happened
(c)was because of my actions.
(d)No error

Answer: (b) what happened

‘Everything what happened’ is wrong. After ‘everything’ we use ‘that’, so part (b) has the error. So option (b) is correct.

72.

Some people (a) could write well (b) while others didn’t. (c)

(a)Some people
(b)could write well
(c)while others didn’t.
(d)No error

Answer: (c) while others didn’t.

The verb should be ‘couldn’t’ to match ‘could write well’ by contrast. Part (c) has the error. So option (c) is correct.

73.

The police are working hard (a) until they are able to (b) arrest the culprits. (c)

(a)The police are working hard
(b)until they are able to
(c)arrest the culprits.
(d)No error

Answer: (d) No error

All three parts are correct and the meaning is clear. So there is no error. So option (d) is correct.

74.

Since he was going to live in South Korea for some time, (a) he thought he should (b) learn something about their culture. (c)

(a)Since he was going to live in South Korea for some time,
(b)he thought he should
(c)learn something about their culture.
(d)No error

Answer not given

The keys look doubtful for this question, so no answer is shown here.

75.

The company’s phenomenal success (a) are largely due to (b) the new director and his team. (c)

(a)The company’s phenomenal success
(b)are largely due to
(c)the new director and his team.
(d)No error

Answer: (b) are largely due to

The subject ‘success’ is singular, so the verb should be ‘is’. Part (b) has the error. So option (b) is correct.

76.

I am owning (a) two houses (b) in Bengaluru. (c)

(a)I am owning
(b)two houses
(c)in Bengaluru.
(d)No error

Answer: (a) I am owning

‘Own’ is a stative verb and is not used in the continuous form. Part (a) has the error. So option (a) is correct.

77.

A boy was injured (a) in the accident and was taken (b) onto hospital. (c)

(a)A boy was injured
(b)in the accident and was taken
(c)onto hospital.
(d)No error

Answer: (c) onto hospital.

We say ‘taken to hospital’, not ‘onto hospital’. Part (c) has the error. So option (c) is correct.

78.

Mr. Malhotra is a historian (a) who’s books (b) have won international acclaim. (c)

(a)Mr. Malhotra is a historian
(b)who’s books
(c)have won international acclaim.
(d)No error

Answer: (b) who’s books

‘Who’s’ means ‘who is’. The possessive form ‘whose’ is needed, so part (b) has the error. So option (b) is correct.

79.

I hate it (a) when I break (b) in hives. (c)

(a)I hate it
(b)when I break
(c)in hives.
(d)No error

Answer not given

The keys look doubtful for this question, so no answer is shown here.

80.

Either Vikas (a) or his friends (b) is going to cook dinner. (c)

(a)Either Vikas
(b)or his friends
(c)is going to cook dinner.
(d)No error

Answer: (c) is going to cook dinner.

With ‘either … or’, the verb agrees with the nearer subject, ‘friends’. So the verb should be ‘are’, and part (c) has the error. So option (c) is correct.

Synonyms

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words/group of words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

81.

The village headman was old and cantankerous.

(a)polite
(b)ill-tempered
(c)weak
(d)serious

Answer: (b) ill-tempered

‘Cantankerous’ means bad-tempered. The nearest meaning is ‘ill-tempered’. So option (b) is correct.

82.

Psychological problems among the youth can be attributed to the pernicious influence of the Internet.

(a)harmful
(b)innocuous
(c)positive
(d)tricky

Answer: (a) harmful

‘Pernicious’ means harmful. The nearest meaning is ‘harmful’. So option (a) is correct.

83.

Our teacher told us not to be verbose while writing.

(a)exaggerate
(b)short
(c)informal
(d)succinct

Answer not given

The printed question asks for the option nearest in meaning to the underlined word. 'Verbose' means wordy. None of the four options means that. 'Succinct' is the opposite of 'verbose'. So the item is faulty as printed, and no answer is shown here. The stem is copied as printed in the UPSC booklet.

84.

The actor narrated the story in a resonant voice.

(a)soft
(b)harsh
(c)deep
(d)quivering

Answer: (c) deep

A ‘resonant’ voice is deep and echoing. The nearest meaning is ‘deep’. So option (c) is correct.

85.

They were fed-up with his doltish behaviour.

(a)wise
(b)imbecilic
(c)clever
(d)precocious

Answer: (b) imbecilic

‘Doltish’ means stupid. The nearest meaning is ‘imbecilic’. So option (b) is correct.

Meanings of Words

Directions: In the following items, a word is given, followed by two suggested meanings. You are required to identify the correct meaning of the word and indicate your choice by using the code that follows:

86.

‘Anarchism’

1. Absence of government and/or authority
2. Chaos and disorder in the absence of government

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer not given

The keys look doubtful for this question, so no answer is shown here.

87.

‘Pristine’

1. In the original condition
2. In the defiled condition

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

‘Pristine’ means in the original, unspoiled condition. So only statement 1 is right. So option (a) is correct.

88.

‘Enormity’

1. The fact of something being serious and grave
2. Abominable crime or sin

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer not given

The keys look doubtful for this question, so no answer is shown here.

89.

‘Quotidian’

1. To quote inaccurately
2. Someone fond of quoting others

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

‘Quotidian’ means daily or ordinary. Neither meaning given is right. So option (d) is correct.

90.

‘Immolate’

1. To kill somebody or self by burning
2. To kill somebody or self or an animal as an act of sacrifice

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer not given

The keys look doubtful for this question, so no answer is shown here.

91.

‘Minimise’

1. Reduce something to the smallest possible degree
2. Reduce expenses, or the degree of anything or of any activity

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

To minimise is to reduce to the smallest degree. Both meanings given fit. So option (c) is correct.

92.

‘Deify’

1. To treat someone in high office with utmost reverence
2. Worship or treat someone as a god

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

To deify is to treat or worship someone as a god. Only statement 2 is right. So option (b) is correct.

93.

‘Raconteur’

1. Someone who is capable of telling stories in an interesting manner
2. Somebody who believes in only telling tall tales

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

A raconteur tells stories well. Statement 1 is right and statement 2 is wrong. So option (a) is correct.

94.

‘Emasculate’

1. Making someone strong and powerful
2. Increase one’s musculature

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

To emasculate is to weaken, not to strengthen. Neither meaning is right. So option (d) is correct.

95.

‘Perturbation’

1. Mental anxiety and disturbance
2. Deviation of a system or moving object caused by an outside influence

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Perturbation means worry and also a deviation caused by an outside influence. Both meanings fit. So option (c) is correct.

Correct Use of Words

Directions: In the following items, a pair of sentences are given in which the keywords have been underlined. Identify the sentence/s in which the underlined words have been used correctly in the context and mark your choice using the code that follows:

96.

1. In spite the cold he decided to climb the mountain top.
2. Despite of the warning she was determined to swim the entire distance.

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

‘In spite’ needs ‘of’, and ‘despite’ is not followed by ‘of’. Neither sentence is correct. So option (d) is correct.

97.

1. The issue of human rights is immanent in the constitution of most countries.
2. They invited an imminent person as the chief guest for the event.

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

‘Immanent’ means inherent, so sentence 1 is right. The right word in sentence 2 is ’eminent’, so sentence 2 is wrong. So option (a) is correct.

98.

1. Among those who had applied for the job I found four candidates to be outstanding.
2. Amidst the confusion caused by the melee, the perpetrators slipped away.

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

‘Among’ suits more than two, and ‘amidst’ suits a confused scene. Both sentences are right. So option (c) is correct.

99.

1. They will soon be applying for the permission.
2. They shall be pleased with the arrangements made by us.

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

‘Will’ is correct for simple future in sentence 1. ‘Shall’ should be ‘will’ in sentence 2, so only sentence 1 is right. So option (a) is correct.

100.

1. You have been frivolous, whereas I have been serious.
2. The difficulties seemed insurmountable; nevertheless, the courage to carry on was undaunted.

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

‘Whereas’ shows contrast and ‘nevertheless’ shows concession. Both are used correctly. So option (c) is correct.

Matching List

Directions: In the following items, two lists of words are provided. You are required to match the associations between List I and List II and mark your answer using the given code.

101.

Match List I with List II using the code below.

List I (Game)	List II (Arena)
A. Golf	1. Court
B. Cricket	2. Pitch
C. Polo	3. Course
D. Tennis	4. Ground

Code: A B C D

(a)3 2 4 1
(b)3 4 2 1
(c)1 4 2 3
(d)1 2 4 3

Answer: (a) 3 2 4 1

Golf is played on a course, cricket on a pitch, polo on a ground and tennis on a court. So option (a) is correct.

102.

Match List I with List II using the code below.

List I (Animal)	List II (Sound)
A. Dolphin	1. Trumpet
B. Elephant	2. Chatter
C. Monkey	3. Chirp
D. Cheetah	4. Click

Code: A B C D

(a)3 2 1 4
(b)4 2 1 3
(c)4 1 2 3
(d)3 1 2 4

Answer: (c) 4 1 2 3

A dolphin clicks, an elephant trumpets, a monkey chatters and a cheetah chirps. So option (c) is correct.

103.

Match List I with List II using the code below.

List I (Animal)	List II (Grouping)
A. Fish	1. Colony of
B. Ducks	2. Flock of
C. Ants	3. Paddling of
D. Crows	4. School of

Code: A B C D

(a)2 1 3 4
(b)4 3 1 2
(c)4 1 3 2
(d)2 3 1 4

Answer: (b) 4 3 1 2

Fish form a school, ducks a paddling, ants a colony and crows a flock. So option (b) is correct.

104.

Match List I with List II using the code below.

List I (Grouping)	List II (Object)
A. Clump of	1. Clothes
B. Bunch of	2. Firewood
C. Stack of	3. Flowers
D. Bundle of	4. Grass

Code: A B C D

(a)1 3 2 4
(b)1 2 3 4
(c)4 2 3 1
(d)4 3 2 1

Answer: (d) 4 3 2 1

We say a clump of grass, a bunch of flowers, a stack of firewood and a bundle of clothes. So option (d) is correct.

105.

Match List I with List II using the code below.

List I (Sport)	List II (Related word)
A. Swimming	1. Touché
B. Kho Kho	2. Butterfly
C. Kabaddi	3. Chaser
D. Fencing	4. Ankle hold

Code: A B C D

(a)2 4 3 1
(b)1 4 3 2
(c)1 3 4 2
(d)2 3 4 1

Answer: (d) 2 3 4 1

Butterfly is a swimming stroke, chaser is a Kho Kho term, ankle hold is Kabaddi and touché is fencing. So option (d) is correct.

Combining Sentences

Directions: In the following items, two sentences are given. You are required to identify the option that most appropriately combines both the sentences into one sentence, and mark your response accordingly.

106.

He was adamant about refusing the honour bestowed upon him. He did not trust the credentials of the organisation that intended to recognise his contribution.

(a)He was adamant about refusing the honour bestowed upon him as because he did not trust the credentials of the organisation that intended to recognise his contribution.
(b)He was adamant about refusing the honour bestowed upon him due to he did not trust the credentials of the organisation that intended to recognise his contribution.
(c)He was adamant about refusing the honour bestowed upon him since he did not trust the credentials of the organisation that intended to recognise his contribution.
(d)He was adamant about refusing the honour bestowed upon him whenever he did not trust the credentials of the organisation that intended to recognise his contribution.

Answer: (c) He was adamant about refusing the honour bestowed upon him since he did not trust the credentials of the organisation that intended to recognise his contribution.

‘Since’ correctly gives the reason. The other options are wrong or ungrammatical. So option (c) is correct.

107.

He undertook the difficult task. He did so albeit the fact that he did not have any spare time.

(a)He undertook the difficult task in spite of the fact that he did not have any spare time.
(b)He undertook the difficult task because of the fact that he did not have any spare time.
(c)He undertook the difficult task contrary to the fact that he did not have any spare time.
(d)He undertook the difficult task nevertheless for the fact that he did not have any spare time.

Answer: (a) He undertook the difficult task in spite of the fact that he did not have any spare time.

‘In spite of the fact’ shows contrast, matching the idea. The others do not. So option (a) is correct.

108.

He wrote the exam with the utmost confidence. He was grossly underprepared for the examination.

(a)He wrote the exam with the utmost confidence so he was grossly underprepared for the examination.
(b)He wrote the exam with the utmost confidence for whenever he was grossly underprepared for the examination.
(c)He wrote the exam with the utmost confidence nevertheless he was grossly underprepared for the examination.
(d)He wrote the exam with the utmost confidence although he was grossly underprepared for the examination.

Answer: (d) He wrote the exam with the utmost confidence although he was grossly underprepared for the examination.

‘Although’ shows contrast between confidence and being underprepared. So option (d) is correct.

109.

He pledged to donate his body parts. He was himself the beneficiary of organ transplantation.

(a)He pledged to donate his body parts though he was himself the beneficiary of organ transplantation.
(b)He pledged to donate his body parts because he was himself the beneficiary of organ transplantation.
(c)He pledged to donate his body parts if he was himself the beneficiary of organ transplantation.
(d)He pledged to donate his body parts but he was himself the beneficiary of organ transplantation.

Answer: (a) He pledged to donate his body parts though he was himself the beneficiary of organ transplantation.

Being a transplant beneficiary and still donating is a surprising contrast. ‘Though’ fits. So option (a) is correct.

110.

He was adamant to undertake the journey to the hills. He had promised to visit his school.

(a)He was adamant to undertake the journey to the hills for he had promised to visit his school.
(b)He was adamant to undertake the journey to the hills even he had promised to visit his school.
(c)He was adamant to undertake the journey to the hills if he had promised to visit his school.
(d)He was adamant to undertake the journey to the hills forever he had promised to visit his school.

Answer: (a) He was adamant to undertake the journey to the hills for he had promised to visit his school.

‘For’ gives the reason for being adamant. The other options are ungrammatical. So option (a) is correct.

Improvement of Sentences

Directions: In the following items, a sentence is given with one or more underlined words. From the options provided mark the correct answer from among (a), (b) or (c), which is the most appropriate improvement over the word (s) to be substituted. If no improvement can be identified, mark your response as (d).

111.

Similar mishaps are continually happening on the new highway because of improper signalling.

(a)manifesting
(b)occurring
(c)repeating
(d)no improvement

Answer not given

The keys look doubtful for this question, so no answer is shown here.

112.

The visiting school children circumnavigated around the Dal Lake with visible delight during their visit to Srinagar.

(a)circumnavigated about
(b)circumnavigated on
(c)circumnavigated
(d)no improvement

Answer: (c) circumnavigated

‘Circumnavigate’ already means to go around. ‘Around’ is repeated, so we drop it. So option (c) is correct.

113.

The Principal of the school assembled the students and emphasised the importance of discipline in their everyday lives.

(a)emphasised on the importance
(b)emphasised over the importance
(c)emphasised upon the importance
(d)no improvement

Answer: (d) no improvement

‘Emphasise’ takes the object directly. We do not add a preposition, so there is no improvement. So option (d) is correct.

114.

The group was accused of biased participation in the discussion because their entire attention was centred around their own proposal.

(a)centred on
(b)centred in
(c)centred over
(d)no improvement

Answer: (a) centred on

‘Centred on’ is the correct preposition. ‘Centred around’ is considered poor usage. So option (a) is correct.

115.

He claimed that he was merely an uninterested participant in the negotiation.

(a)an interested
(b)a disinterested
(c)a uninterested
(d)no improvement

Answer not given

The keys look doubtful for this question, so no answer is shown here.

Active and Passive Voice

Directions: In the following items, you are required to select the most appropriate voice of the given phrase and mark your response from the options that follow.

116.

Change from Active to Passive voice:

Respect your elders

(a)You should respect elders
(b)Elders are respected
(c)Respect the elders
(d)Elders should be respected

Answer: (d) Elders should be respected

An imperative becomes a passive with ‘should be’. ‘Elders should be respected’ fits. So option (d) is correct.

117.

Change from Active to Passive voice:

Shut the door

(a)The door is to be shut
(b)Let the door be shut
(c)The door be shut
(d)No change

Answer: (b) Let the door be shut

An imperative command in the passive begins with ‘Let’. So ‘Let the door be shut’. So option (b) is correct.

118.

Change from Passive to Active voice:

Sujata was advised by her mother to carry an umbrella while stepping out into the rain

(a)Her mother advised Sujata to carry an umbrella while stepping out into the rain
(b)Sujata advised her mother to carry an umbrella while stepping out into the rain
(c)The mother advised Sujata to carry an umbrella while stepping out into the rain
(d)No change

Answer: (a) Her mother advised Sujata to carry an umbrella while stepping out into the rain

The active form puts the mother as the subject. Option (a) keeps the same meaning. So option (a) is correct.

119.

Change from Passive to Active voice:

He was said to be a good cricketer

(a)They said he is a good cricketer
(b)They said he was a good cricketer
(c)He is a good cricketer
(d)No change

Answer: (b) They said he was a good cricketer

The passive ‘was said’ becomes ‘They said’. The tense stays past. So option (b) is correct.

120.

Change from Passive to Active voice:

His hair is being cut by a professional

(a)A professional will be cutting his hair
(b)A professional is cutting his hair
(c)He will be getting a professional haircut
(d)No change

Answer: (b) A professional is cutting his hair

‘Is being cut’ is present continuous passive. The active is ‘is cutting’. So option (b) is correct.

Questions transcribed from the official Combined Defence Services Examination (II), 2024 question booklet (RAKU-F-ENG), English. Hindi text omitted (English version only). Answers follow two matching unofficial keys (Set A), checked against the question content. 10 questions are marked because the keys look doubtful.

CDS (II) 2024 — English (Full Question Paper)

English

MCQ on CDS II 2024 English: Practice Set

Passage I

Passage II

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