General Knowledge — Full Question Paper
Scattering of α-particles by a thin gold foil suggests the presence of
- (a)electron in an atom
- (b)proton in an atom
- (c)positively charged nucleus at the centre of an atom
- (d)isotopes of gold
Answer: (c)
Rutherford’s gold foil experiment showed a few alpha particles bounced back sharply, revealing a small, dense, positive nucleus.
The elements of which of the following pairs are isobars?
- (a)1H and 3H
- (b)1H and 2H
- (c)12C and 14C
- (d)40Ar and 40Ca
Answer: (d)
Isobars share the same mass number but different atomic numbers, unlike isotopes, which share the atomic number.
Which one of the following chemical reactions is not feasible?
- (a)Fe + CuSO₄ → FeSO₄ + Cu
- (b)Zn + CuSO₄ → ZnSO₄ + Cu
- (c)Cu + PbCl₂ → CuCl₂ + Pb
- (d)Mg + CuSO₄ → MgSO₄ + Cu
Answer: (c)
Copper is less reactive than lead, so it cannot displace lead from its compound.
A solution having pH equal to zero is known as
- (a)highly alkaline solution
- (b)highly acidic solution
- (c)weakly acidic solution
- (d)neutral solution
Answer: (b)
A pH of zero sits at the extreme acidic end of the scale, far from the neutral value of 7.
Which one of the following acids is produced in human stomach?
- (a)Formic acid
- (b)Sulphuric acid
- (c)Nitric acid
- (d)Hydrochloric acid
Answer: (d)
Hydrochloric acid helps digest food and kills many ingested bacteria in the stomach.
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer: List-I (Compound): A. Boric acid, B. Citric acid, C. Magnesium hydroxide, D. Acetic acid. List-II (Use): 1. Antiseptic, 2. Food preservative, 3. Antacid, 4. Pickle.
- (a)A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
- (b)A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
- (c)A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
- (d)A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
Answer: (a)
Boric acid is an antiseptic, citric acid preserves food, magnesium hydroxide is an antacid, and acetic acid preserves pickles.
The property of the sound waves that determines the pitch of the sound is its
- (a)frequency
- (b)amplitude
- (c)wavelength
- (d)intensity
Answer: (a)
Higher frequency sound waves are perceived as higher pitch; amplitude instead determines loudness.
Which one of the following is not a property of the X-rays?
- (a)They are deflected by electric fields.
- (b)They are not deflected by magnetic fields.
- (c)They have high penetration length in matter.
- (d)Their wavelength is much smaller than that of visible light.
Answer: (a)
X-rays are electrically neutral electromagnetic waves, so neither electric nor magnetic fields deflect them.
Which one of the following is not true about the image formed by a plane mirror?
- (a)It is of the same size as the subject.
- (b)It is laterally inverted.
- (c)It is real image.
- (d)It is formed as far behind the mirror as the object is in front.
Answer: (c)
A plane mirror actually forms a virtual image, one that cannot be projected onto a screen.
In a periscope, the two plane mirrors are kept
- (a)parallel to each other
- (b)perpendicular to each other
- (c)at an angle of 60° with each other
- (d)at an angle of 45° with each other
Answer: (a)
Each mirror tilts 45 degrees to the light path, but the two mirrors are parallel to one another.
If the speed of light in air is 3×108 m/s, then the speed of light in a medium of refractive index 3/2 is
- (a)2×108 m/s
- (b)9/4×108 m/s
- (c)3/2×108 m/s
- (d)3×108 m/s
Answer: (a)
Speed in a medium equals speed in air divided by refractive index: (3×10^8)/(3/2) = 2×10^8 m/s.
Which one of the following types of radiation has the shortest wavelength?
- (a)Radio waves
- (b)Visible light
- (c)Infrared (IR)
- (d)Ultraviolet (UV)
Answer: (d)
Among these four, UV sits at the shortest-wavelength end of the electromagnetic spectrum.
The unit of the force constant k of a spring is
- (a)N-m
- (b)N/m
- (c)N-m²
- (d)N/m²
Answer: (b)
Since force equals the spring constant times displacement, k is measured in newtons per metre.
Which one of the following is not an epidemic disease?
- (a)Cholera
- (b)Malaria
- (c)Smallpox
- (d)Elephantiasis
Answer: (d) Elephantiasis
Elephantiasis (lymphatic filariasis) is a chronic, slow-developing endemic disease transmitted steadily in fixed zones, not one that occurs in sudden epidemic outbreaks like cholera, malaria, or smallpox. Related: EnvEco0006 — Nuclear and Biological Disasters: India’s Major Case Studies.
Which one of the following animals has a three-chambered heart?
- (a)Scoliodon
- (b)Salamander
- (c)Pigeon
- (d)Human being
Answer: (b)
Amphibians like salamanders have a three-chambered heart (two atria, one ventricle).
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of events during sexual reproduction in plants?
- (a)Seedling, formation of embryo, pollination, fertilization, division of zygote
- (b)Formation of embryo, seedling, pollination, fertilization, division of zygote
- (c)Pollination, fertilization, division of zygote, formation of embryo, seedling
- (d)Seedling, formation of embryo, division of zygote, pollination, fertilization
Answer: (c)
Plants follow this order in sexual reproduction: pollination, fertilization, division of zygote, formation of embryo, seedling.
When air is blown from mouth into a test tube containing limewater, the limewater turns milky. This is due to the presence of
- (a)water vapour
- (b)oxygen
- (c)carbon dioxide
- (d)carbon monoxide
Answer: (c)
Exhaled breath contains CO2, which reacts with limewater to form insoluble calcium carbonate, turning it milky.
Which one of the following is the ‘energy currency’ for cellular processes?
- (a)Glucose
- (b)ATP
- (c)ADP
- (d)Pyruvic acid
Answer: (b)
ATP stores and transfers chemical energy, spent to power nearly all cellular processes.
Which one of the following is the first enzyme to mix with food in the digestive tract?
- (a)Trypsin
- (b)Cellulose
- (c)Pepsin
- (d)Amylase
Answer: (d)
Salivary amylase in the mouth begins breaking down starch before food reaches the stomach.
Mahatma Gandhi’s Dandi March, a great event in Indian freedom struggle, was associated with
- (a)iron
- (b)sodium chloride
- (c)sulphur
- (d)aluminium
Answer: (b)
Gandhi marched to Dandi to make salt himself, defying the British salt tax and monopoly.
Related: ModHist0063 — Civil Disobedience and the Salt March
Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Name): A. Bleaching powder, B. Baking soda, C. Washing soda, D. Slaked lime. List-II (Formula): 1. NaHCO₃, 2. Na₂CO₃·10H₂O, 3. Ca(OH)₂, 4. CaOCl₂.
- (a)A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
- (b)A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
- (c)A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
- (d)A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
Answer: (a)
Bleaching powder is CaOCl2, baking soda is NaHCO3, washing soda is Na2CO3.10H2O, and slaked lime is Ca(OH)2.
The number of water molecules associated with copper sulphate molecule to form crystals is
- (a)2
- (b)4
- (c)5
- (d)6
Answer: (c)
Copper sulphate crystallizes as CuSO4.5H2O, with five water molecules per formula unit.
Silver articles become black after some time when exposed to air because
- (a)silver gets oxidized to silver oxide
- (b)silver reacts with moist carbon dioxide in the air to form silver carbonate
- (c)silver reacts with sulphur in the air to form a coating of silver sulphide
- (d)silver reacts with nitrogen oxides in the air to form silver nitrate
Answer: (c)
Silver reacts with trace sulphur in the air, forming a black coating of silver sulphide.
If x is the temperature of a system in Kelvin and y is the temperature of the system in °C, then the correct relation between them is
- (a)x = 273 − y
- (b)x = 273 + y
- (c)x = 173 + y
- (d)x = 173 − y
Answer: (b)
Kelvin temperature equals Celsius temperature plus 273, since 0 degrees C equals 273 K.
The resistivity ρ of a material may be expressed in units of
- (a)ohm
- (b)ohm/cm
- (c)ohm-cm
- (d)ohm-cm²
Answer: (c)
Resistivity is resistance times cross-sectional area divided by length, giving units of ohm times length.
The electromagnetic waves, which are used for satellite communication, are
- (a)infrared radiations
- (b)ultraviolet radiations
- (c)radio waves
- (d)visible lights
Answer: (c)
Satellite links use radio-frequency signals, including microwaves, to relay communication over long distances.
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of organs that occur in the path of urine flow in human body?
- (a)Kidney, ureter, urinary bladder, urethra
- (b)Kidney, urinary bladder, ureter, urethra
- (c)Kidney, ureter, urethra, urinary bladder
- (d)Urinary bladder, kidney, urethra, ureter
Answer: (a)
Urine forms in the kidney, travels down the ureter to the bladder, then exits through the urethra.
Which of the following endocrine glands is not found in pair in humans?
- (a)Adrenal
- (b)Pituitary
- (c)Testis
- (d)Ovary
Answer: (b)
The pituitary is a single gland at the base of the brain, unlike the paired adrenal glands, testes, or ovaries.
Which one of the following cell organelles contains DNA?
- (a)Golgi apparatus
- (b)Mitochondrion
- (c)Lysosome
- (d)Endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: (b)
Mitochondria carry their own DNA and ribosomes, a legacy of their likely independent origin.
Who among the following scientists introduced the concept of immunization to the medical world?
- (a)Edward Jenner
- (b)Robert Koch
- (c)Robert Hooke
- (d)Carl Linnaeus
Answer: (a)
Edward Jenner’s development of the smallpox vaccine in 1796 introduced the concept of immunization to medicine.
On 31st December, 1929, in which one of the following Congress Sessions was proclamation of Purna Swaraj made?
- (a)Ahmedabad
- (b)Calcutta
- (c)Lahore
- (d)Lucknow
Answer: (c) Lahore
Congress adopted the Purna Swaraj resolution at its December 1929 Lahore session, with Jawaharlal Nehru presiding as Congress President. Nehru hoisted the tricolour on the banks of the Ravi at midnight on 31 December 1929 to mark the moment.
Related: ModHist0092 — Jawaharlal Nehru as a Freedom Fighter
Which one of the following Acts reserved seats for women in Legislatures in accordance with the allocation of seats for different communities?
- (a)The Government of India Act, 1858
- (b)The Indian Councils Act, 1909
- (c)The Government of India Act, 1919
- (d)The Government of India Act, 1935
Answer: (d)
The Government of India Act, 1935 reserved legislature seats for women, generally allotted along the same communal lines as other seats.
Which one among the following was demanded by the All India Depressed Classes Leaders’ Conference at Bombay in 1931?
- (a)Universal adult suffrage
- (b)Separate electorates for untouchables
- (c)Reserved seats for the minorities
- (d)A unitary State in India
Answer: (b) Separate electorates for untouchables
Ambedkar, representing the Depressed Classes, demanded separate electorates as a distinct political minority. Gandhi opposed this, and the 1932 Poona Pact later replaced it with reserved seats in a joint electorate instead.
Who among the following was one of the founders of the Indian Society of Oriental Art?
- (a)Rabindranath Tagore
- (b)Abanindranath Tagore
- (c)Dwarakanath Tagore
- (d)Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyaya
Answer: (b) Abanindranath Tagore
Abanindranath Tagore co-founded the Indian Society of Oriental Art in 1907, along with his brother Gaganendranath Tagore and others, with British art educator E.B. Havell as a key early supporter. Rabindranath Tagore founded a separate institution, Visva-Bharati at Santiniketan.
Source: Wikipedia, Indian Society of Oriental Art. Related: ArtnCulture0038 — The Bengal School of Painting and ArtnCulture0017 — Rabindranath Tagore: The Poet Who Became a Painter.
Who among the following Sultans succeeded in finally breaking and destroying the power of Turkan-i-Chihalgani?
- (a)Iltutmish
- (b)Balban
- (c)Alauddin Khalji
- (d)Muhammad bin Tughluq
Answer: (b) Balban
Turkan-i-Chihalgani, also called the Chahalgani or “the Forty,” was the elite corps of Turkic slave-nobles that dominated the early Delhi Sultanate court. Balban rose through this group himself, then systematically broke its independent power once he became Sultan in 1266, executing rivals, flogging disloyal governors, and stripping nobles of their land grants, a policy historians call “blood and iron.” Related: MedHist0051 — Balban: Zil-i-Ilahi and the Centralized Sultanate.
Who among the following Mongol leaders/commanders did not cross Indus to attack India?
- (a)Chenghiz Khan
- (b)Tair Bahadur
- (c)Abdullah
- (d)Qutlugh Khwaja
Answer: (a) Chenghiz Khan
Genghis Khan chased the fleeing Khwarazmian prince Jalaluddin Mingburnu to the Indus and defeated him there at the Battle of the Indus in 1221 CE, but decided not to cross into India himself and turned back to Mongolia. Tair Bahadur, Abdullah, and Qutlugh Khwaja were later Mongol commanders who did cross the Indus and raid into Punjab. Source: Battle of the Indus, Wikipedia. Related: MedHist0003 — The Slave (Mamluk) Dynasty of Delhi · MedHist0030 — Mongol Raids on the Delhi Sultanate.
Related: WorldHist0050 — Genghis Khan and the Rise of the Mongol Empire, covering why Genghis Khan turned back at the Indus instead of invading India himself.
In the region of eastern shore of Adriatic Sea, a cold and dry wind blowing down from the mountain is known as
- (a)Mistral
- (b)Bora
- (c)Bise
- (d)Blizzard
Answer: (b)
Bora is a cold, dry, katabatic wind sweeping down from mountains onto the eastern Adriatic coast, especially in Croatia.
Nyishi tribe is found mainly in
- (a)Andaman and Nicobar
- (b)Arunachal Pradesh
- (c)Nilgiri-Kerala
- (d)Kashmir Valley
In the field of tourism, which one of the following Indian States is described as ‘One State Many Worlds’?
- (a)Assam
- (b)West Bengal
- (c)Karnataka
- (d)Rajasthan
The number of people per unit area of arable land is termed as
- (a)agricultural density
- (b)arithmetic density
- (c)physiological density
- (d)economic density
Answer: (c)
Physiological density measures population against only cultivable land, unlike arithmetic density, which uses total land area.
Which one of the following rivers joins Ganga directly?
- (a)Chambal
- (b)Son
- (c)Betwa
- (d)Ken
Answer: (b)
Son flows into the Ganga directly, while Chambal, Betwa, and Ken are tributaries of the Yamuna instead.
Which one of the following is not a type of commercial agriculture?
- (a)Dairy farming
- (b)Grain farming
- (c)Livestock ranching
- (d)Intensive subsistence agriculture
Answer: (d)
Subsistence farming produces mainly for the farmer’s own family, not for the market, so it isn’t commercial agriculture.
Which one of the following is not a land use category?
- (a)Forestland
- (b)Pasture land
- (c)Marginal land
- (d)Barren and wasteland
Answer: (c)
India’s nine-fold land use classification includes forests, pastures, and barren/wasteland, but not ‘marginal land.’
Which one of the following is not an objective of the MGNREGA?
- (a)Providing up to 100 days of skilled labour in a financial year
- (b)Creation of productive assets
- (c)Enhancing livelihood security
- (d)Ensuring empowerment to women
Answer: (a) Providing up to 100 days of skilled labour in a financial year
MGNREGA guarantees 100 days of unskilled manual work to each rural household. Skilled-labour provision is not one of its objectives, so option (a) is the one that is NOT an objective.
The real objectives are creating productive assets, enhancing livelihood security and empowering women.
Related: Poverty, Employment and Income Distribution
Related: IndEco0140 — MGNREGA and the Viksit Bharat–G RAM G Act
Which one of the following statements with regard to the functioning of the Panchayats is not correct?
- (a)Panchayats may levy, collect and appropriate taxes, duties, tolls, etc.
- (b)A person who has attained the age of 25 years will be eligible to be a member of a Panchayat.
- (c)Every Panchayat shall ordinarily continue for five years from the date of its first meeting.
- (d)A Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution shall continue only for the remainder of the full period.
Answer: (b)
The actual minimum age to be a Panchayat member is 21 years, not 25.
Which one of the following is the earliest launched scheme of the Government of India?
- (a)Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana
- (b)Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana
- (c)Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana
- (d)Deendayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana
Answer: (b)
Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana launched in December 2000, years before the other three schemes.
Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS)?
- (a)Members of the Parliament (MPs) sanction, execute and complete works under the scheme.
- (b)Nominated Members of the Parliament can recommend works for implementation anywhere in the country.
- (c)The scheme is fully funded by the Government of India.
- (d)The annual entitlement per MP is ₹5 crore.
Answer: (a)
MPs only recommend works under MPLADS; the District Authority actually sanctions and executes them.
Related: Polity0039 — MPLADS: The MP Local Area Development Scheme
Saubhagya, a Government of India Scheme, relates to which of the following areas?
- (a)Achieving universal household electrification
- (b)Providing clean cooking fuel to poor households
- (c)Rationalizing subsidies on LPG
- (d)Stopping female foeticide
Answer: (a)
Saubhagya aimed to connect every willing household in India to the power grid.
The ‘Basel Convention’ is aimed at protecting human health and environment against adverse effects of which of the following?
- (a)Hazardous wastes
- (b)Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs)
- (c)Mercury
- (d)Chemicals and pesticides
Answer: (a) Hazardous wastes
The Basel Convention (1989) controls the transboundary movement of hazardous wastes and their disposal — e-waste, with its toxic metals, is a hazardous waste under this framework. POPs, mercury, and pesticides are instead covered by the Stockholm, Minamata, and Rotterdam Conventions respectively. Related: EnvEco0031 — E-Waste Recycling in India.
Which one of the following is the biggest cause of incidence of migration of female persons in India?
- (a)Employment
- (b)Education
- (c)Marriage
- (d)Business
Answer: (c)
Census data consistently shows marriage as the single largest reason women migrate within India.
Which one of the following is not correct about Repo rate?
- (a)It is the interest rate charged by the Central Bank on overnight loan.
- (b)It is the interest rate paid by the commercial banks on overnight borrowing.
- (c)It is the interest rate agreed upon in the loan contract between a commercial bank and the Central Bank.
- (d)It is the cost of collateral security.
Answer: (d) It is the cost of collateral security
The repo rate is the rate the central bank charges banks for overnight loans, backed by collateral. It is not the cost of the collateral itself, so this statement is the one that is not correct.
The Cash Reserve Ratio refers to
- (a)the share of Net Demand and Time Liabilities that banks have to hold as liquid assets
- (b)the share of Net Demand and Time Liabilities that banks have to hold as balances with the RBI
- (c)the share of Net Demand and Time Liabilities that banks have to hold as part of their cash reserves
- (d)the ratio of cash holding to reserves of banks
Answer: (b)
CRR is deposited with the RBI itself, unlike SLR, which banks can hold as their own liquid assets.
In economics, if a diagram has a line passing through the origin and has 45° angle with either axis and it is asserted that along the line X = Y, what is tacitly assumed?
- (a)Both variables are pure numbers.
- (b)Both variables are in the same unit.
- (c)Both variables are in different units.
- (d)At least one variable is a pure number.
Answer: (b)
A 45-degree line only makes X equal Y meaningfully if both axes share the same unit.
Who among the following won the Best Men’s Player Award of FIFA Football Awards, 2019?
- (a)Cristiano Ronaldo
- (b)Virgil van Dijk
- (c)Lionel Messi
- (d)Xavi
In September 2019, which one of the following travel giants declared itself bankrupt?
- (a)Expedia
- (b)Cox & Kings
- (c)SOTC
- (d)Thomas Cook
Answer: (d)
The 178-year-old Thomas Cook collapsed in September 2019, stranding travellers worldwide.
Greta Thunberg, a teenaged environment activist who was in news recently, hails from
- (a)Sweden
- (b)Germany
- (c)USA
- (d)Canada
Answer: (a)
Greta Thunberg’s solo school strikes in Sweden in 2018 grew into the global Fridays for Future movement.
Recently the Reserve Bank of India has imposed limitations, initially for a period of six months, on the withdrawal of amount by account holders of which one of the following banks?
- (a)IndusInd Bank
- (b)Dhanlaxmi Bank
- (c)Punjab and Maharashtra Cooperative Bank
- (d)South Indian Bank
Answer: (c)
The RBI capped withdrawals at Punjab and Maharashtra Cooperative Bank in September 2019 after uncovering major loan irregularities.
Amitabh Bachchan was recently conferred with the prestigious Dada Saheb Phalke Award. Who among the following was the first recipient of the award?
- (a)Prithviraj Kapoor
- (b)Devika Rani
- (c)Sohrab Modi
- (d)Naushad
Answer: (b) Devika Rani
The Dadasaheb Phalke Award was instituted in 1969. Devika Rani, known as the “First Lady of Indian Cinema,” was its very first recipient that same year.
Related: ArtnCulture0021 — Dadasaheb Phalke: The Father of Indian Cinema
The famous Mughal painting, depicting Jahangir embracing the Safavid king Shah Abbas, was painted by which one of the following Mughal painters?
- (a)Abd al-Samad
- (b)Abul Hasan
- (c)Dasavant
- (d)Bishandas
Answer: (b) Abul Hasan
Abul Hasan painted this scene around 1618, but the embrace never actually happened. Jahangir and Shah Abbas never met in real life. The painting shows Jahangir standing on a much bigger globe, with his lion pushing Abbas’s lamb back toward Iran, to say Jahangir was the greater ruler.
Related: ArtnCulture0003 — Mughal Painting: Characteristic Features and Manuscripts, MedHist0015 — Jahangir, Shah Jahan and Dara Shikoh, and ArtnCulture0014 — Jahangir and Shah Jahan: Two Emperors, Two Painting Styles
Which of the following statements about ‘Mughal Mansab’ system are correct? 1. ‘Zat’ rank was an indicator of a Mansabdar’s position in the imperial hierarchy and the salary of the Mansabdar. 2. ‘Sawar’ rank indicated the number of horsemen the Mansabdar was required to maintain. 3. In the seventeenth century, Mansabdars holding 1000 or above ‘Sawar’ rank were designated as nobles (Umara). Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)1 and 3 only
- (c)2 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a)
Zat determined rank and pay, and Sawar set cavalry strength. But the noble threshold of 1000-plus was tied to Zat, not Sawar.
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
- (a)Kuddapah-kar : Rocky wastelands
- (b)Nancai : Wet fields
- (c)Puncai : Dry fields
- (d)Tottakal : Garden lands
Answer: (a)
Kuddapah-kar actually referred to a rice-growing season in the Tamil region, not to wasteland.
Which of the following rulers were identified through matronymics (names derived from that of the mother)?
- (a)Mallas of Pava
- (b)Videhas of Mithila
- (c)Yaudheyas
- (d)Satavahanas
Answer: (d)
Several Satavahana kings, like Gotamiputra Satakarni, took names built from their mother’s name.
Which one of the following statements about the famous text of Panchatantra is correct?
- (a)It is a philosophical text reflecting the debates of the time and refuting rival positions.
- (b)It is a text ushering in linguistics as a formal science.
- (c)It is a text discussing developments in various spheres of natural sciences.
- (d)It is a text showing through illustration what should and should not be done.
Answer: (d)
The Panchatantra teaches practical statecraft and conduct (niti) through animal fables, showing right and wrong action by example rather than through philosophy, linguistics, or natural science.
Related: ArtnCulture0011 — The Panchatantra and the Fable Tradition in Ancient Indian Literature
Geomorphic factors influencing plant and animal distributions are
- (a)slope angle and relief only
- (b)slope aspect and relative relief
- (c)slope angle, slope aspect and relief
- (d)slope angle, slope aspect and relative relief
Answer: (d)
Slope angle, slope aspect, and relative relief together shape microclimate and habitat conditions.
Which one of the following groups of cities does not have Sclerophyll as its natural vegetation cover?
- (a)Valparaiso and Cape Town
- (b)Lisbon and Perth
- (c)Los Angeles and Adelaide
- (d)Las Vegas and Queensland
Answer: (d)
The other three pairs sit in Mediterranean-climate zones with sclerophyll vegetation; Las Vegas is desert and Queensland is largely tropical.
Which of the following are warm ocean currents?
- (a)Kuroshio and California Current
- (b)North Atlantic Drift and Brazil Current
- (c)Canaries and Benguela Current
- (d)West Wind Drift and Falkland Current
Answer: (b)
North Atlantic Drift and Brazil Current are both warm; the other pairs mix warm with cold or are both cold.
In India, how many States/Union Territories have more than two international boundaries?
- (a)1
- (b)2
- (c)3
- (d)4
Answer: (d)
West Bengal, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh, and Jammu & Kashmir (with Ladakh) each border three or more countries.
In the Hadley cell thermal circulation, air rises up and finally descends at
- (a)intertropical convergence zone
- (b)doldrums
- (c)subtropical high-pressure cells
- (d)equatorial troughs
Answer: (c)
Air rises at the equator and descends around 30 degrees latitude at the subtropical high-pressure cells, completing the Hadley cell.
Which one of the following soils is characterized by very high content of organic matter?
- (a)Vertisol
- (b)Histosol
- (c)Gelisol
- (d)Spodosol
Answer: (b)
Histosols are organic, peat-like soils that form where slow decomposition lets plant matter accumulate.
Overseas Indians can exercise franchise in an election to the Lok Sabha under which of the following conditions? 1. They must be citizens of India. 2. Their names must figure in the electoral roll. 3. They must be present in India to vote. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1, 2 and 3
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)1 and 2 only
- (d)1 only
Answer: (a)
Overseas electors can register, but must still appear in person at their home constituency to vote — no postal or proxy voting for them.
Which one of the following is not a feature of the Ayushman Bharat Scheme?
- (a)There is no cap on family size and age.
- (b)The scheme includes pre- and post-hospitalization expenses.
- (c)A defined transport allowance per hospitalization will also be paid to the beneficiary.
- (d)The scheme provides a benefit cover of ₹10 lakh per family.
Answer: (d)
PM-JAY’s actual benefit cover is ₹5 lakh per family per year, not ₹10 lakh — option (d) is the false statement. The other three are genuine features: there is no cap on family size or age, pre- and post-hospitalisation expenses are covered, and a defined transport allowance is paid per hospitalisation.
Related: Polity0111 — Ayushman Bharat (PM-JAY)
Related: GenSci0035 — Healthcare Affordability and Accessibility in India
Which of the following are considered to be the four pillars of human development?
- (a)Equity, inclusion, productivity and empowerment
- (b)Equity, productivity, empowerment and sustainability
- (c)Productivity, gender, inclusion and equity
- (d)Labour, productivity, inclusion and equity
Answer: (b)
The UNDP frames equity, productivity, empowerment and sustainability as the four pillars of human development.
Which one of the following was added as a fundamental duty through the Constitution (86th Amendment) Act, 2002?
- (a)To strive towards excellence in individual and collective activity
- (b)To provide opportunities for education to one’s child between the age of 6 and 14 years
- (c)To work for the welfare of women and children
- (d)To promote peace and harmony
Answer: (b)
The 86th Amendment Act, 2002 added this as Article 51A(k) — a parent or guardian’s duty to provide education for a child aged six to fourteen. The other options were already among the original ten duties added by the 42nd Amendment in 1976. (Source: Constitution of India)
Related: Polity0085 — Fundamental Rights vs. Fundamental Duties.
Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India protects a person against double jeopardy?
- (a)Article 20
- (b)Article 21
- (c)Article 22
- (d)Article 23
Answer: (a)
Article 20’s second clause bars prosecuting and punishing someone twice for the same offence.
Related: Polity0234 — Article 20: Double Jeopardy, Ex Post Facto Laws, Self-Incrimination
Consider the following statements about Stone Age in India: 1. Different periods are identified on the basis of the type and technology of stone tools. 2. There are no regional variations in the type and technology of tools in different periods. 3. Stone Age cultures of different periods evolved uniformly in a neat unilinear fashion all over the subcontinent. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a)1 only
- (b)1 and 2 only
- (c)3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a)
Stone Age periods are defined by tool technology, but tools varied by region, and cultures did not progress uniformly across the subcontinent.
From which one of the following factory sites were limestone and chert blades mass produced and sent to various Harappan settlements in Sindh?
- (a)Sukkur and Rohri Hills
- (b)Khetri in Rajasthan
- (c)Chagai Hills
- (d)Hills of Baluchistan
Answer: (a)
Sukkur and Rohri Hills fed standardized chert blade production distributed across Harappan sites, including Mohenjo-Daro.
The work Siyar-ul-Mutakherin, which describes the Battle of Plassey, 1757, was written by
- (a)Salabat Jung
- (b)Qasim Khan
- (c)Ghulam Husain
- (d)Ram Mohan Roy
Answer: (c) Ghulam Husain
Siyar-ul-Mutakherin, a key contemporary account of the Battle of Plassey (1757) and the fall of Bengal, was written by Ghulam Husain Tabatabai. Salabat Jung, Qasim Khan and Ram Mohan Roy are unrelated to this work.
Related: ModHist0004 — The Decline of the Mughal Empire · MedHist0018 — Mughal Decline After Aurangzeb · ModHist0075 — Bengal’s Nawabs and the Road to Plassey · View this question →
Who believed that the Russian designs were ‘an imminent peril to the security and tranquility’ of the Indian Empire in 1836?
- (a)Lord Auckland
- (b)Lord Palmerston
- (c)Lord Canning
- (d)Alexander Burnes
Answer: (a)
Lord Auckland’s fear of Russian expansion, part of the ‘Great Game,’ drove the forward policy leading to the First Anglo-Afghan War.
The ‘Tattvabodhini Sabha’ was established by
- (a)Devendranath Tagore in 1839
- (b)Keshab Chandra Sen in 1857
- (c)Akshay Kumar Datta in 1850
- (d)Dwarakanath Tagore in 1840
Answer: (a)
Devendranath Tagore founded the Tattvabodhini Sabha in 1839 to spread rational, reformed religious thought in Bengal.
What was the code name given to the first ever tri-service military exercise between India and USA?
- (a)Lion Triumph
- (b)Elephant Triumph
- (c)Tiger Triumph
- (d)Bison Triumph
Answer: (c) Tiger Triumph
Tiger Triumph was the first tri-service exercise between India and the USA, a humanitarian assistance and disaster relief drill held in 2019 that involved India’s Army, Navy, and Air Force alongside their US counterparts together for the first time.
Related: IntlRel0007 — India’s Relations with Major Developed Powers
‘Naropa’ is an annual festival of
- (a)Sikkim
- (b)Ladakh
- (c)Arunachal Pradesh
- (d)Nagaland
Answer: (b)
The Naropa festival, held near Hemis in Ladakh, celebrates the teachings of the Buddhist master Naropa.
Which one of the following is India’s official entry for the Best International Feature Film category in the 92nd Academy Awards?
- (a)Bulbul Can Sing
- (b)Super Deluxe
- (c)Gully Boy
- (d)And The Oscar Goes To
Answer: (c)
India selected Gully Boy as its official submission for the 92nd Academy Awards’ international feature category.
The Global Goalkeeper Award is given by
- (a)the Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation
- (b)the United Nations Environment Programme
- (c)the Kellogg School of Management
- (d)the World Meteorological Organization
Answer: (a)
The Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation gives the Global Goalkeeper Award, honouring progress on the UN’s Sustainable Development Goals.
‘Gandhi Solar Park’ is located at
- (a)New York
- (b)Vladivostok
- (c)Thimphu
- (d)Houston
Answer: (a) New York
The Gandhi Solar Park sits on the roof of UN Headquarters, a gift from India marking Mahatma Gandhi’s 150th birth anniversary. It has 193 solar panels, one for each UN member state.
Related: IndEco0121 — Solar Energy in India
Who among the following was the first to arrive in Africa as traders that eventually led to European colonization of Africa?
- (a)French
- (b)Spanish
- (c)Portuguese
- (d)Dutch
Answer: (c)
The Portuguese established the earliest European trading posts along Africa’s coast in the 15th century.
The College of Military Engineering affiliated to Jawaharlal Nehru University is situated at
- (a)New Delhi
- (b)Dehradun
- (c)Nainital
- (d)Pune
Answer: (d)
The College of Military Engineering is located at Dapodi, Pune, training combat engineers for the Indian Army.
Which of the following statements with regard to Coal India Limited (CIL) is/are true? 1. CIL has its headquarters at Kolkata. 2. CIL operates through 82 mining areas spread over twenty provincial States of India. 3. CIL is the single largest coal-producing company in the world. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 only
- (b)1 and 3 only
- (c)2 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only
CIL’s headquarters is genuinely at Kolkata, and it is genuinely the world’s single largest coal-producing company. Statement 2 is false: current official figures put CIL at roughly 85 mining areas across just 8 states, not 82 across twenty.
Related: IndEco0123 — Coal Sector in India
Which one of the following climatic types is found in Central Spain?
- (a)Subarctic
- (b)Mediterranean dry hot summer
- (c)Subtropical Steppe
- (d)Humid continental warm summer
Answer: (b)
Mediterranean dry hot summer is the standard classification for Spain’s interior, even on the drier Meseta plateau.
Which one of the following is not among the principal languages of Jammu and Kashmir?
- (a)Urdu
- (b)Gujari
- (c)Koshur
- (d)Monpa
Answer: (d)
Monpa is spoken in Arunachal Pradesh, not Jammu and Kashmir, where Urdu, Gujari, and Koshur are principal languages.
The major part of Central Asia is dominated by which one of the following language families?
- (a)Indo-European
- (b)Sino-Tibetan
- (c)Austric
- (d)Altaic
Answer: (d)
Turkic languages such as Uzbek, Kazakh, and Kyrgyz, all part of the Altaic family, dominate most of Central Asia.
Which one of the following Articles was defended by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar on the plea that it would be used as ‘a matter of last resort’?
- (a)Article 352
- (b)Article 359
- (c)Article 356
- (d)Article 368
Answer: (c)
Ambedkar defended Article 356 by arguing it would remain a rarely used last resort, not a routine tool.
What is the ground on which the Supreme Court can refuse relief under Article 32?
- (a)The aggrieved person can get remedy from another court
- (b)That disputed facts have to be investigated
- (c)That no fundamental right has been infringed
- (d)That the petitioner has not asked for the proper writ applicable to his/her case
Answer: (c)
Article 32 exists only to enforce Fundamental Rights, so a petition with no rights violation has no basis.
The Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises consists of
- (a)the Department of Heavy Industry and the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade
- (b)the Department of Public Enterprises and the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade
- (c)the Department of Scientific and Industrial Research and the Department of Heavy Industry
- (d)the Department of Heavy Industry and the Department of Public Enterprises
Answer: (d)
The Department of Heavy Industry and the Department of Public Enterprises together make up this ministry.
The First Delimitation Commission in India was constituted in
- (a)1949
- (b)1950
- (c)1951
- (d)1952
Answer: (d)
The Delimitation Commission Act of 1952 set up the first commission to redraw constituency boundaries after independence.
Who among the following stated in the Constituent Assembly that on 26th January, 1950, India was going to enter a life of contradictions?
- (a)Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
- (b)Jawaharlal Nehru
- (c)Mahatma Gandhi
- (d)S. P. Mukherjee
Answer: (a)
In his final Constituent Assembly address, Ambedkar warned political equality would coexist with social and economic inequality.
The power of the Supreme Court to decide in the case of a dispute between two or more States is called
- (a)original jurisdiction
- (b)inherent jurisdiction
- (c)plenary jurisdiction
- (d)advisory jurisdiction
Answer: (a)
Under Article 131, only the Supreme Court can hear disputes directly between states or between the Centre and states.
Who among the following is the Chairman of the Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (EAC-PM)?
- (a)Ratan P. Watal
- (b)Bibek Debroy
- (c)Ashima Goyal
- (d)Sajjid Chinoy
Answer: (b)
Bibek Debroy chaired the EAC-PM, an independent body advising the Prime Minister on economic policy.
Related: IndEco0241 — Economic Advisory Council to the PM (EAC-PM)
Hilsa is the national fish of
- (a)Pakistan
- (b)India
- (c)Bangladesh
- (d)Nepal
Answer: (c)
Hilsa holds deep cultural and economic importance in Bangladesh, officially recognised as its national fish.
The Vijaynagar Advanced Landing Ground of the Indian Air Force, which was reopened recently, is located in
- (a)Jammu and Kashmir
- (b)Arunachal Pradesh
- (c)Karnataka
- (d)Himachal Pradesh
Answer: (b)
The IAF reopened this remote Arunachal Pradesh airstrip near the Myanmar border in 2019 to restore military connectivity.
Rustom-2, which crashed in Karnataka recently, was a/an
- (a)fighter aircraft
- (b)helicopter
- (c)transport aircraft
- (d)unmanned aerial vehicle
Answer: (d)
DRDO’s Rustom-2 UAV, meant for long-endurance surveillance, crashed during a 2019 test flight in Chitradurga district.
The maiden trilateral naval exercise involving India, Singapore and Thailand was held at
- (a)Port Blair
- (b)Chennai
- (c)Panaji
- (d)Kochi
Answer: (c) Panaji
The maiden trilateral naval exercise involving India, Singapore and Thailand was held at Panaji, the capital of Goa. Goa’s coastal location and naval facilities make it a natural site for such exercises.
Related: GK0027 — Goa State Profile
The creation of a Federal Court in India was advocated by which of the following Acts/Commissions?
- (a)The Government of India Act, 1919
- (b)The Lee Commission, 1923
- (c)The Government of India Act, 1935
- (d)The Indian Councils Act, 1909
Answer: (c)
The Government of India Act, 1935 established the Federal Court of India, the forerunner of today’s Supreme Court.
Who founded the ‘Seva Samiti’ at Allahabad in 1914?
- (a)Hridayanath Kunzru
- (b)G. K. Gokhale
- (c)Shri Ram Bajpai
- (d)T. B. Sapru
Answer: (a)
Hridayanath Kunzru, a member of the Servants of India Society, founded the Seva Samiti for disaster relief and social reform.
The State of Hyderabad in the Deccan officially acceded to the Indian Union in the year
- (a)1948
- (b)1950
- (c)1949
- (d)1947
Answer: (a)
India’s Operation Polo ended the Nizam’s resistance and brought Hyderabad into the Union in September 1948.
The Hunter Commission (1882) appointed to survey the state of education in India
- (a)deprecated University education
- (b)overruled the Despatch of 1854
- (c)endorsed the Despatch of 1854 with greater emphasis on primary education
- (d)criticized the grants-in-aid system of schooling
Answer: (c) endorsed the Despatch of 1854 with greater emphasis on primary education
The Hunter Commission (1882), appointed during Ripon’s viceroyalty, endorsed the Wood’s Despatch of 1854 but placed greater emphasis on primary education. It did not deprecate university education, overrule the Despatch, or criticise the grants-in-aid system.
Related: ModHist0007 — Ripon’s Local Self-Government and the Ilbert Bill Controversy · View this question →
The power to legislate on all matters relating to elections to Panchayats lies with
- (a)the Parliament of India
- (b)the State Legislatures
- (c)the State Election Commission
- (d)the Election Commission of India
Answer: (b)
Panchayats are a state subject, so state law governs how their elections are conducted.
The 11th Schedule of the Constitution of India distributes powers between
- (a)the Union and the State Legislatures
- (b)the State Legislatures and the Panchayat
- (c)the Municipal Corporation and the Panchayat
- (d)the Gram Sabha and the Panchayat
Answer: (b)
The 11th Schedule lists 29 subjects state legislatures may hand over to Panchayats.
The provisions of the Constitution of India pertaining to the institution of Panchayat do not apply to which one of the following States?
- (a)Meghalaya
- (b)Tripura
- (c)Assam
- (d)Goa
Answer: (a)
Meghalaya, along with Nagaland and Mizoram, is exempt from the 73rd Amendment’s Panchayat provisions, relying on its own tribal Autonomous District Councils.
Which one of the following rivers does not drain into Black Sea?
- (a)Volga
- (b)Dnieper
- (c)Don
- (d)Danube
Answer: (a)
The Volga actually flows into the Caspian Sea, while the Dnieper, Don, and Danube all empty into the Black Sea.
The National Water Academy (NWA) is located at
- (a)Dehradun
- (b)Hyderabad
- (c)Bhopal
- (d)Khadakwasla
Answer: (d)
The National Water Academy is at Khadakwasla, near Pune, training engineers of the Central Water Commission.
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of formation of the Commissions starting from the earliest?
- (a)Finance Commission, Planning Commission, Investment Commission, Election Commission
- (b)Election Commission, Planning Commission, Finance Commission, Investment Commission
- (c)Planning Commission, Election Commission, Finance Commission, Investment Commission
- (d)Investment Commission, Finance Commission, Planning Commission, Election Commission
Answer: (b)
The Election Commission, Planning Commission, Finance Commission, and Investment Commission formed in that order: 1950, 1950, 1951, and 2004.
The formulation of policy in respect to Intellectual Property Rights (IPRs) is the responsibility of
- (a)the Ministry of Law and Justice
- (b)the Department of Science and Technology
- (c)the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade
- (d)the Ministry of Human Resource Development
Answer: (c)
The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) administers India’s National IPR Policy.
Which one of the following is the latest addition to the AYUSH group of health care system?
- (a)Unani
- (b)Siddha
- (c)Sowa-Rigpa
- (d)Reiki
Answer: (c) Sowa-Rigpa
Sowa-Rigpa, the Trans-Himalayan medical tradition, was formally added to AYUSH when the Ministry of AYUSH was created in 2014, making it the newest of the six recognised systems.
Related: SciTech0029 — Alternative Systems of Medicine (AYUSH vs. Modern Allopathy)
Which one of the following is the nodal agency in India for the United Nations Environment Programme?
- (a)The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
- (b)The Ministry of Science and Technology
- (c)The Ministry of Earth Sciences
- (d)The Ministry of Home Affairs
Answer: (a) The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
Environmental coordination with UNEP naturally sits with India’s dedicated environment ministry, not the Ministry of Science and Technology, Earth Sciences, or Home Affairs.
Related: IntlRel0010 — International Financial, Environmental and Trade Institutions
According to the Census 2011, in India, what is the percentage of people (approximately) considered to be migrants (internal), i.e., now settled in a place different from their previous residence?
- (a)25%
- (b)35%
- (c)45%
- (d)55%
Answer: (b)
Census 2011 counted about 37.5% of India’s population as internal migrants, closest to this option.
Suppose an agricultural labourer earns ₹400 per day in her village. She gets a job to work as babysitter in a nearby town @ ₹700 per day. She chose to work as agricultural labourer. Which one of the following is the opportunity cost of the agricultural labourer?
- (a)₹1,100
- (b)₹700
- (c)₹400
- (d)₹300
Related: Economy0006 — Basic Economic Concepts: Microeconomics
Answer: (b)
Opportunity cost is the value of the best alternative given up, here the Rs 700 babysitting wage she declined.
Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Market structure): A. Perfect competition, B. Monopoly, C. Monopolistic competition, D. Oligopoly. List-II (Characteristic): 1. Only one producer selling one commodity, 2. Few producers selling similar or almost similar products, 3. Many producers selling differentiated products, 4. Many producers selling similar products.
- (a)A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
- (b)A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2
- (c)A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
- (d)A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
Related: Economy0006 — Basic Economic Concepts: Microeconomics
Answer: (b)
Perfect competition has many sellers of similar products, monopoly has one seller, monopolistic competition has many sellers of differentiated products, and oligopoly has few sellers of similar products.
Which one of the following was the host country for World Tourism Day, 2019?
- (a)USA
- (b)India
- (c)Russia
- (d)Canada
Answer: (b)
New Delhi hosted the global event for the first time, under the theme ‘Tourism and Jobs: A Better Future For All.’
BRICS Summit, 2020 will be hosted by
- (a)India
- (b)China
- (c)Russia
- (d)Brazil
Answer: (c)
Russia was scheduled to host the 12th BRICS Summit in Saint Petersburg, later held virtually due to COVID-19.
The Government of India has recently constituted a civilian award in the name of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel in the field of contribution to
- (a)unity and integrity of India
- (b)art and culture
- (c)social work
- (d)entrepreneurship
Answer: (a)
The Rashtriya Ekta Puraskar honours outstanding contributions toward national unity and integration.
Transcribed from the official Combined Defence Services Examination (I), 2020 question booklet (PLKI-S-GNL/58A), General Knowledge paper. English text only; Hindi text omitted. Answer key not included.
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