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Indian Polity and Constitution Mixed Practice — MCQs with Answers (Set 13)

A mixed set of 25 Indian Polity and Constitution MCQs on smaller topics that have no set of their own. Each answer links to its topic Article.

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Q1. Which judgment declared that ‘equality is antithetic to arbitrariness’?

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Answer: B

E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu (1974) held that equality is antithetic to arbitrariness. Article 14 thus strikes at arbitrary State action, not just classification.

Related topics: Right to Equality: Article 14 and the India-USA Comparison

Q2. Under the reasonable classification test, the intelligible differentia must be rationally related to —

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Answer: D

The correct answer is the object sought to be achieved by the law. The grouping needs a rational link to the law’s aim. Memory hook: differentia must match the object.

Related topics: Right to Equality: Article 14 and the India-USA Comparison

Q3. What does Article 14 of the Indian Constitution guarantee?

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Answer: C

The correct answer is equality before the law and equal protection of the laws. Article 14 gives both to any person. Memory hook: Article 14 means equality.

Related topics: Right to Equality: Article 14 and the India-USA Comparison

Q4. When did Ambedkar introduce the idea of constitutional morality in the Constituent Assembly?

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Answer: A

Ambedkar moved the Draft Constitution for consideration on 4 November 1948. In that speech he spoke of constitutional morality.

Related topics: Constitutional Morality: Doctrine, Origin and Judicial Use

Q5. What does constitutional morality chiefly require of institutions?

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Answer: C

Constitutional morality demands fidelity to the Constitution’s spirit, not just its text. Institutions must act on its core values and principles.

Related topics: Constitutional Morality: Doctrine, Origin and Judicial Use

Q6. Who coined the term “constitutional morality” in the Indian context?

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Answer: B

Dr B.R. Ambedkar coined the term in his Constituent Assembly speech of 4 November 1948. He urged that constitutional morality must be cultivated.

Related topics: Constitutional Morality: Doctrine, Origin and Judicial Use

Q7. With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements: 1. N. Gopalaswamy Iyengar Committee suggested that a minister and a secretary be designated solely for pursuing the subject of administrative reform and promoting it. 2. In 1970, the Department of Personnel was constituted on the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Commission, 1966, and this was placed under the Prime Minister’s charge. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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Answer: B

The answer is 2 only. Statement 2 is supported. The Department of Personnel was set up in 1970, on acceptance of the First ARC’s recommendations, under the Prime Minister. Statement 1 is marked wrong in the answer key. The summary of the Ayyangar Committee lists other recommendations: four bureaus, a limit on departments and three grades of minister.

Related topics: The Second Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC-II)

Q8. What was the main pressure behind removing the Right to Property from Part III in 1978?

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Answer: B

The correct answer is tension between land-reform legislation and property-rights litigation slowing redistributive laws.

Related topics: Right to Property: Article 300A and Its Constitutional Journey

Q9. Since the Right to Property became a legal right rather than a Fundamental Right, through which route can it primarily be enforced?

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Answer: B

The correct answer is ordinary courts, including High Courts under Article 226. It lost the fast-track Article 32 route once it stopped being a Fundamental Right.

Related topics: Right to Property: Article 300A and Its Constitutional Journey

Q10. What does Article 300A of the Constitution provide?

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Answer: A

The correct answer is no person shall be deprived of their property save by authority of law.

Related topics: Right to Property: Article 300A and Its Constitutional Journey

Q11. What is the position of the Right to Property in India?

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Answer: B

The correct answer is legal right available to any person. Since the 44th Amendment, 1978, it is a legal right under Article 300A, not a Fundamental Right, and it is not restricted to citizens only.

Related topics: Right to Property: Article 300A and Its Constitutional Journey

Q12. Is parole granted automatically to a prisoner who presents a sufficient case for it?

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Answer: B

The answer is No, parole is discretionary, not a matter of right. The Home Ministry says parole is not an absolute right. It calls it a concession. The Model Prison Manual says the concession can be cancelled. The Supreme Court in Asfaq added a limit: a conviction for a serious crime cannot, by itself, be the reason to deny it. Why the others fail: it does not become an enforceable right. No “under 5 years” rule appears in the model rules. Parole does exist in Indian prison rules. Memory hook: parole is a concession, not a claim.

Related topics: Judicial Custody, Police Custody, and Parole

Q13. Can a police officer interrogate a suspect who is in judicial custody without seeking anyone’s approval?

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Answer: B

The answer is No, the police need the court’s approval first. The Magistrate decides in which custody an accused is held. In the 2026 case the police filed a memo before the Magistrate seeking police custody. The Supreme Court then gave seven days with unrestricted access for questioning. Why the others fail: “freely, at any time” ignores the Magistrate. A “written consent” of the suspect is not the test. “Never possible” is wrong, because police custody can be granted. Memory hook: the Magistrate holds the key to the interrogation room.

Related topics: Judicial Custody, Police Custody, and Parole

Q14. Where is an accused physically held during judicial custody, as opposed to police custody?

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Answer: B

The answer is jail, under a magistrate’s custody. The BNSS says nobody may be detained except in a police station under police custody, or in a prison under judicial custody, or in a place declared a prison. In the 2026 Supreme Court case the accused in judicial custody was lodged in a Central Prison. Why the others fail: a police station is police custody. Home surveillance is not one of the places the BNSS allows. A court holding cell is not the place for judicial custody. Memory hook: judicial means jail.

Related topics: Judicial Custody, Police Custody, and Parole

Q15. With reference to India, consider the following statements: 1. When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to such prisoner because it becomes a matter of his/her right. 2. State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules.

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Answer: B

The answer is 2 only. Statement 1 is wrong. The Home Ministry says parole is not an absolute right. It calls parole a concession. The Model Prison Manual calls it a legal right only of an eligible prisoner, on stated conditions. Statement 2 is right. Prisons are State subjects, and States have made their own rules. Why the others fail: “1 only” and “both” treat parole as a right. “Neither” denies the State rules. Memory hook: parole is a concession, States write the rules.

Related topics: Judicial Custody, Police Custody, and Parole

Q16. With reference to India, consider the following statements: 1. Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked up in police station, not in jail. 2. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court.

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Answer: B

The answer is 2 only. Statement 1 is wrong. The BNSS allows a person to be held in a police station under police custody, or in a prison under judicial custody. So judicial custody means prison. Statement 2 is right. The Magistrate decides the custody. In the 2026 Supreme Court case the police asked the Magistrate for police custody of an accused already in judicial custody. Why the others fail: “1 only” and “both” accept the police-station claim. “Neither” rejects the approval rule. Memory hook: judicial means jail, police means station.

Related topics: Judicial Custody, Police Custody, and Parole

Q17. What is UN-Habitat’s actual role with respect to the ‘Right to the City’ concept?

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Answer: B

The correct answer is it promotes and discusses the idea through global forums and reports, without formal treaty enforcement.

Related topics: Right to the City: UN-Habitat and Urban Rights

Q18. Is ‘Right to the City’ a formally agreed international human right monitored by UN-Habitat’s binding treaty commitments?

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Answer: B

The correct answer is no, it is an evolving planning and participation concept, not a formal binding right.

Related topics: Right to the City: UN-Habitat and Urban Rights

Q19. Consider the following statements: 1. ‘Right to the City’ is an agreed human right and the UN-Habitat monitors the commitments made by each country in this regard. 2. ‘Right to the City’ gives every occupant of the city the right to reclaim public spaces and public participation in the city. 3. ‘Right to the City’ means that the State cannot deny any public service or facility to the unauthorized colonies in the city.

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Answer: D

The correct answer is 2 and 3, per the official UPSC key. ‘Right to the City’ is not a formally agreed, UN-Habitat-monitored human right — statement 1 is false. It does genuinely emphasise reclaiming public space and participation (statement 2) and non-denial of services to unauthorized colonies (statement 3).

Related topics: Right to the City: UN-Habitat and Urban Rights

Q20. Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?

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Answer: B

The correct answer is (b) Fifth Schedule. Para 5(2)(a) of the Fifth Schedule empowers the Governor to make regulations prohibiting or restricting land transfers by Scheduled Tribes members in Scheduled Areas, which can render such transfers null and void — reinforced by cases like Samatha v. Andhra Pradesh (1997). Read more.

Related topics: The Fifth Schedule of the Indian Constitution

Q21. Consider the following statements: 1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’. 2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times. 3. The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined in the Constitution of India.

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Answer: A

The correct answer is (a) 1 and 2 only. The Act does exempt several posts and has been amended five times — statements 1 and 2 are correct. “Office of Profit” is NOT defined anywhere in the Constitution’s text — statement 3 is false. Read more.

Related topics: Office of Profit and Conduct Rules

Q22. If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it?

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Answer: A

The correct answer is (a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.. Fifth Schedule areas carry land-alienation restriction as their core practical consequence; it does not itself create a local body, a UT, or Special Category State status. Read more.

Related topics: The Fifth Schedule of the Indian Constitution

Q23. With reference to India, consider the following statements: 1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates. 2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.

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Answer: B

The answer is B, statement 2 only. Section 7(1)(h) and (i) let the BCI lay down legal education standards and recognise universities. Statement 1 is false because the official key marks only statement 2 as correct. Hook: the BCI shapes legal education.

Related topics: Bar Council of India (BCI)

Q24. What is NIUA’s actual institutional role, most precisely?

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Answer: B

The correct answer is An autonomous think-tank supporting the Ministry with research and solutions. The Ministry’s own report calls NIUA an autonomous non-statutory body for urban research. NIUA calls itself a premier urban think tank.

“Apex body” is the UPSC trap. NIUA is a research institute, not the top body of the Ministry. It is not a state planning authority or a private firm.

Memory hook: Think tank, not top body.

Related topics: India Sanitation Coalition and the National Institute of Urban Affairs

Q25. The National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA) works under which Ministry?

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Answer: B

The correct answer is Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. NIUA was set up in 1976 as an autonomous body under the aegis of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA).

Rural Development and Panchayati Raj deal with villages. The Home Ministry deals with internal security. NIUA studies cities.

Memory hook: NIUA studies cities, so its Ministry is the urban one.

Related topics: India Sanitation Coalition and the National Institute of Urban Affairs

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