Full-length practice paper in the MPESB Police Constable pattern. It has 100 questions for 100 marks. Give yourself 2 hours. There is no negative marking. Q1–40 cover General Knowledge and Reasoning. Q41–70 cover Mental Ability. Q71–100 cover Science and Simple Arithmetic.
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Q1. What did the Khasi fighters lack entirely in the Anglo-Khasi War?
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Answer: C
The Khasis had swords, shields, bows and arrows but no firearms. They turned to guerrilla warfare.
Q2. Which President of India was the first Sikh to hold the office?
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Answer: C
Giani Zail Singh, President from 1982 to 1987, was the first Sikh to hold India’s highest constitutional office.
Q3. What distinguishes commercial farming from subsistence farming?
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Answer: B
Commercial farming grows crops specifically to sell for profit, using high inputs of capital and machinery — the opposite goal from subsistence farming’s family-feeding purpose.
Q4. What is the highest civilian award given in India?
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Answer: A
The Bharat Ratna is India’s highest civilian award. Mother Teresa received it in 1980 for her service. Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan and Padma Shri are other civilian awards. None is higher than the Bharat Ratna.
Q5. What is a marine ‘dead zone’?
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Answer: A
A dead zone is an area of water with too little oxygen for most marine life, a condition scientists call hypoxia.
Q6. Jawaharlal Nehru gave G.V. Mavalankar which title?
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Answer: A
Nehru called him the ‘Father of the Lok Sabha,’ though the two also had real institutional disagreements.
Q7. Where did James Cook make his first landfall on the Australian continent in April 1770?
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Answer: B
He landed on 29 April and later claimed the east coast for Britain.
Q8. Jharkhand was formed on 15 November 2000, carved out of which state?
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Answer: C
Jharkhand was carved out of 18 southern districts of Bihar on 15 November 2000.
Q9. In which year was Khangchendzonga declared a national park?
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Answer: A
The answer is 1977. It is state-owned land. Its buffer zone was protected as a forest reserve. Why the others fail: 2016 is the UNESCO listing. 1986 and 1997 are not its key dates. Memory hook: 1977 park, 2016 World Heritage.
Q10. Bandipur Tiger Reserve forms part of which biosphere reserve?
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Answer: A
The answer is the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve. It also covers Nagarahole, Mudumalai and Wayanad. Why the others fail: Nanda Devi is in Uttarakhand, Sundarbans in West Bengal and Panna in Madhya Pradesh. Memory hook: Bandipur sits in the Nilgiris.
Q11. Which peak, recaptured by Indian troops on 4 July 1999, became the most famous victory of the Kargil War?
Q12. Roughly what share of all water on Earth is freshwater?
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Answer: A
Freshwater makes up only about 2.5% of all water on Earth, and most of that is locked in glaciers and ice caps.
Q13. P. Venugopal led the team that performed India’s first successful heart transplant. At which hospital?
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Answer: B
He had built the Cardiothoracic Sciences Centre there himself, after joining AIIMS as faculty.
Q14. Malavath Poorna is known as the youngest girl in the world to have done what?
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Answer: A
She summited Mount Everest on 25 May 2014, at age 13, becoming the youngest girl in the world to do so.
Q15. How many islands of Lakshadweep are inhabited?
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Answer: B
The answer is 10. About 36 islands make up the territory, but only 10 have people. Why the others fail: 36 is the total count, not the inhabited count. Memory hook: 10 of 36.
Q16. Which future national leader gave up his legal practice to organise the Kheda Satyagraha full-time, village by village?
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Answer: D
Vallabhbhai Patel quit his legal practice to organise the Kheda Satyagraha, a campaign that made him Gandhi’s chief lieutenant in Gujarat.
Q17. Who among the following is the author of the book, The Social Contract?
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Answer: D
The answer is Rousseau. His 1762 work ‘The Social Contract’ argued for legitimate political authority resting on the general will of the people.
Q18. Western disturbances matter most for which Indian cropping season?
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Answer: B
The answer is Rabi. Down To Earth calls WDs essential for the Rabi season because they maintain the moisture the soil needs. Why the others fail: Kharif depends on the south-west monsoon. Zaid is a summer crop. WDs bring rain as well as snow. Memory hook: winter rain, winter crop.
Q19. What do quasi-judicial bodies like Administrative Tribunals do?
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Answer: A
Quasi-judicial bodies like Administrative Tribunals have a specific function. They resolve specific categories of disputes. This happens outside the regular court system, functioning somewhat like courts without being formal courts.
Q20. Which one of the following organelles is not found in animal cells?
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Answer: C
The answer is Cell wall. It’s present in plant cells but absent in animal cells, which rely solely on a flexible cell membrane.
Q21. What is recognized as India’s national song (distinct from the national anthem)?
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Answer: B
‘Vande Mataram’ holds the status of national song, distinct from ‘Jana Gana Mana’, which is the national anthem.
Q22. In gratitude to Sheikh Salim Chishti, Akbar built which city around his home?
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Answer: B
Correct: Fatehpur Sikri. Akbar made the village of Sikri, where his son was born, his capital. It was renamed Fathpur after the conquest of Gujarat. Agra, Lahore and Sikandra are other places.
Q23. Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the
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Answer: C
The Atal Innovation Mission is NITI Aayog’s flagship initiative to promote innovation and entrepreneurship, not a department or ministry.
Q24. A writ issued to secure the release of a person found to be detained illegally is
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Answer: B
The answer is Habeas Corpus. This writ orders the production of a detained person before a court to determine if the detention is lawful.
Q25. Who is referred to as the ‘Father of Indian Nuclear Science’?
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Answer: B
Bhabha founded the Tata Institute of Fundamental Research and laid the foundation of India’s nuclear programme.
Q26. In which year was the first Women’s Cricket World Cup held?
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Answer: B
The first Women’s Cricket World Cup was held in 1973, in England. It came two years before the men’s first official World Cup, in 1975.
Q27. The Gandhara school of art shows strong influence from which artistic tradition?
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Answer: B
The Gandhara school shows strong Hellenistic (Greek) influence, from the region’s contact with Greco-Bactrian and Roman art.
Q28. Cricketer Kapil Dev is famously known by which nickname?
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Answer: C
Kapil Dev, from Haryana, led India to its first Cricket World Cup win in 1983.
Q29. What eventually happened to Travancore-Cochin, the state T.K. Narayana Pillai first led?
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Answer: D
Travancore-Cochin merged further, in 1956, into the newly formed state of Kerala, under the States Reorganisation Act, so it no longer exists under its own name.
Q30. Machu Picchu, the ‘old mountain’ citadel, is situated in which country?
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Answer: C
Machu Picchu, an Inca site high in the Andes, is one of Peru’s most famous landmarks.
Q31. Arrange the following words in a logical order. 1. Word 2. Sentence 3. Essay 4. Paragraph
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Answer: B
This sequence follows units of writing from smallest to largest. A word is the smallest unit, a single unit of meaning. Words combine to form a sentence, a complete thought. Sentences combine to form a paragraph, a group of related sentences. Paragraphs combine to form an essay, a full piece of writing. So the order is Word, Sentence, Paragraph, Essay, matching option B.
Q32. If + means ×, − means ÷, × means −, and ÷ means +, which of these equations is correct?
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Answer: A
Substitute the real operations in every option: + becomes ×, − becomes ÷, × becomes −, and ÷ becomes +. Checking option A: 12 − 4 + 18 ÷ 9 becomes 12 ÷ 4 × 18 + 9. Division and multiplication come first, worked left to right. 12 ÷ 4 = 3, then 3 × 18 = 54, then 54 + 9 = 63. This matches the stated total, so option A is correct. Checking option B: 20 + 10 − 2 × 7 becomes 20 × 10 ÷ 2 − 7. 20 × 10 = 200, then 200 ÷ 2 = 100, then 100 − 7 = 93, not 16. Checking option C: 9 × 12 − 6 ÷ 2 becomes 9 − 12 ÷ 6 + 2. 12 ÷ 6 = 2, then 9 − 2 = 7, then 7 + 2 = 9, not 105. Checking option D: 12 ÷ 4 × 18 − 9 becomes 12 + 4 − 18 ÷ 9. 18 ÷ 9 = 2, then 12 + 4 = 16, then 16 − 2 = 14, not 45. Only option A holds true, so option A is correct.
Q33. Vivek is the son of Harish. Harish is the father of Meena. Meena is the sister of Vivek. Shalini is the wife of Vivek. How is Shalini related to Harish?
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Answer: B
Vivek is the son of Harish, so Harish is Vivek’s father. Harish is also the father of Meena, so Meena is Vivek’s sister. Shalini is the wife of Vivek, so Vivek is Shalini’s husband. Vivek is Harish’s son, and Shalini is his wife. A son’s wife is called a daughter-in-law. So Shalini is related to Harish as his daughter-in-law.
Q34. In a family code, ‘A + B’ means A is the father of B. ‘A – B’ means A is the mother of B. ‘A × B’ means A is the brother of B. ‘A ÷ B’ means A is the sister of B. If P + Q, Q × R, and R ÷ S, how is P related to S?
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Answer: C
The code ‘A + B’ means A is the father of B. The code ‘A × B’ means A is the brother of B. The code ‘A ÷ B’ means A is the sister of B. P + Q means P is the father of Q. Q × R means Q is the brother of R. So Q and R are siblings. R ÷ S means R is the sister of S. So R and S are siblings too. This means Q, R and S are all siblings of each other. P is the father of Q. So P is also the father of R and S. So P is related to S as his father.
Q35.
The figure below is a grid with 3 rows and 4 columns of small equal cells.
How many rectangles of all sizes, including squares, are there in this figure?
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Answer: D
A rectangle in this grid is fixed by choosing 2 horizontal lines and 2 vertical lines. A grid with 3 rows has 4 horizontal lines, so there are C(4,2) = 6 ways to pick 2 of them. A grid with 4 columns has 5 vertical lines, so there are C(5,2) = 10 ways to pick 2 of them. Multiply these two counts together: 6 times 10 equals 60. A common mistake is counting only the 12 smallest unit cells, and missing every larger rectangle. The correct total, across every size, is 60.
Q36. Arrange the following words in a logical order. 1. Egg 2. Pupa 3. Caterpillar 4. Butterfly
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Answer: B
This sequence follows the natural life cycle of a butterfly. It starts as an egg laid on a leaf. The egg hatches into a caterpillar, which eats and grows. The caterpillar forms a pupa, where its body changes completely. The pupa opens to release the adult butterfly. So the order is Egg, Caterpillar, Pupa, Butterfly, matching option B.
Q37. In a row of runners, Kabir is 12th from the left end and Zara is 5th from the right end. Kabir and Zara swap places. After swapping, Zara’s new rank from the right end is 12th. How many runners are in the row?
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Answer: D
After the swap, Zara sits in Kabir’s old seat. That seat’s rank from the left was fixed at 12, Kabir’s original rank. We’re told this same seat is now 12th from the right too. Total = rank from left + rank from right − 1 = 12 + 12 − 1 = 23. So the row has 23 runners.
Q38. Input: 16 39 nile volga ganges Step 1: volga 16 39 nile ganges Step 2: volga nile 16 39 ganges What is the output of Step 3?
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Answer: B
Compare the input with Step 1. volga moves to the front of the line. It is the next word in reverse alphabetical order in the input. Compare Step 1 with Step 2. nile moves to the front next. So the rule is: each step moves the next word in reverse alphabetical order to the front of the line. Every number is left alone. It only shifts position as the words move around it. This rule fits every step shown above. Apply the same rule forward to reach Step 3. By Step 3, the front block holds 3 words, in this order: volga, nile, ganges. So the answer is: volga nile ganges 16 39.
Q39. Input: drum flute violin 68 12 harp 33 55 Step 1: 12 drum flute violin 68 harp 33 55 Step 2: 12 flute violin 68 harp 33 55 drum Step 3: 12 33 flute violin 68 harp 55 drum What is the output of Step 5?
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Answer: B
Compare the input with Step 1. The steps take turns. Step 1 moves a number, 12, to the front. Step 2 moves a word, drum, to the end. Step 3 moves a number, 33, to the front. So the rule is: a number-turn and a word-turn keep alternating, one per step. Numbers are placed smallest to largest. Words are placed in alphabetical order. This turn-taking rule fits every step shown above. Follow the same turns forward to reach Step 5. Step 5 is a number turn, placing 55. So the answer is: 12 33 55 violin 68 harp drum flute.
Q40. Statements: All modules are circuits. All circuits are devices. Conclusions: I. All modules are devices. II. Some devices are modules. Which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements?
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Answer: B
Statement 1 says all modules are circuits. Statement 2 says all circuits are devices. Chain the two using the shared term circuits. Every module is a circuit, and every circuit is a device. So every module must be a device. This makes conclusion I valid. Modules form a real, non-empty group inside devices. So at least some devices must be modules. This makes conclusion II valid too. Both conclusions follow from the statements. The correct answer is: both conclusions I and II follow.
Q41. Five students sit around a circular table, facing the centre. The students are Waseem, Yamini, Zubin, Aakash and Bela. Yamini sits immediately to the right of Waseem. Zubin sits second to the right of Waseem. Aakash does not sit next to Waseem. Who sits second to the left of Yamini?
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Answer: D
Five students sit around a circular table, facing the centre. Number the seats 1 to 5 clockwise, starting from Waseem’s seat as seat 1. Facing the centre means a person’s left hand points to the next seat clockwise, and their right hand points to the previous seat. Yamini sits immediately to the right of Waseem, one seat back from seat 1. Moving back once from seat 1 wraps around to seat 5. So Yamini sits in seat 5. Zubin sits second to the right of Waseem, two seats back from seat 1. Moving back twice from seat 1 lands on seat 4. So Zubin sits in seat 4. Only seats 2 and 3 are left, for Bela and Aakash. Aakash does not sit next to Waseem. The seats next to Waseem’s seat 1 are seat 5 and seat 2. Seat 5 is already taken, so this rule means Aakash cannot be in seat 2. So Aakash sits in seat 3, and Bela sits in seat 2. Every seat is filled: Waseem 1, Bela 2, Aakash 3, Zubin 4, Yamini 5. Second to the left of Yamini means two seats forward from seat 5. Moving forward twice from seat 5 wraps around to seat 2. Seat 2 is Bela’s seat. So Bela sits second to the left of Yamini.
Q42. Statements: All harbors are docks. No docks are lagoons. Conclusions: I. No harbors are lagoons. II. No lagoons are harbors. Which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements?
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Answer: A
Statement 1 says all harbors are docks. Statement 2 says no docks are lagoons. The shared term is docks. Harbors sit fully inside docks, and docks never touch lagoons. So harbors can never touch lagoons either. This means no harbors are lagoons. This makes conclusion I valid. A statement saying no X are Y always converts safely to no Y are X. So no harbors are lagoons also means no lagoons are harbors. This makes conclusion II valid too. Both conclusions follow from the statements. The correct answer is: both conclusions I and II follow.
Q43. Select the set of numbers that follows the same pattern as the given set. Given set: (3, 4, 37)
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Answer: A
The given set is (3, 4, 37). Square both numbers: 3 squared is 9, and 4 squared is 16. Now multiply the two numbers together: 3 x 4 = 12. Add all three results: 9 + 16 + 12 = 37. This matches. So the rule is: third number = (first squared) + (second squared) + (first x second). Test (5, 2, 39): 25 + 4 + 10 = 39. This matches, so it works. Test (2, 6, 50): 4 + 36 + 12 = 52, not 50. This fails. Test (6, 1, 42): 36 + 1 + 6 = 43, not 42. This fails. Test (3, 5, 47): 9 + 25 + 15 = 49, not 47. This fails. Only (5, 2, 39) follows the rule. So the answer is (5, 2, 39).
Q44. Anil is the brother of Deepika. Deepika is the wife of Manish. Ishaan is the son of Deepika. How is Ishaan related to Anil?
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Answer: B
Anil is the brother of Deepika, so Anil and Deepika are siblings. Deepika is the wife of Manish, so Deepika and Manish are married. Ishaan is the son of Deepika, so Ishaan is Deepika’s son. Ishaan is the son of Anil’s sister. A sister’s son is called a nephew. So Ishaan is related to Anil as his nephew.
Q45. Statements: All turbines are rotors. All rotors are shafts. Some shafts are couplings. Conclusions: I. All turbines are shafts. II. Some couplings are turbines. Which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements?
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Answer: B
Statement 1 says all turbines are rotors. Statement 2 says all rotors are shafts. Chain these using ‘rotors’: every turbine is a rotor, and every rotor is a shaft. So every turbine must be a shaft. This makes conclusion I valid. Statement 3 says some shafts are couplings. But turbines are only one part of the whole shaft group. The shafts that are couplings may not include any turbines at all. So conclusion II, some couplings are turbines, is not guaranteed. It only follows if the coupling-shafts happen to overlap with turbines, and nothing confirms that. The correct answer is: only conclusion I follows.
Q46. Which of the following years is NOT a leap year?
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Answer: B
A year is a leap year if it divides evenly by 4. A century year only stays a leap year if it also divides by 400. Check 2000: it divides by 4 and by 400. So 2000 is a leap year. Check 2400: it also divides by 4 and by 400. So 2400 is a leap year too. Check 2016: it divides by 4, and it is not a century year. So 2016 is a leap year as well. Check 1800: it divides by 4, but 1800 divided by 400 leaves a remainder. So 1800 fails the century test. The year that is not a leap year is 1800.
Q47. Five colleagues compare their heights. Alok is taller than Neha but shorter than Sunita. Tarun is shorter than Neha. Sunita is shorter than Deepak, who is the tallest of all five. Who is the shortest?
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Answer: B
Build the height order from the clues, tallest to shortest. Deepak is tallest, and Sunita is just below Deepak. Alok is shorter than Sunita but taller than Neha. Tarun is shorter than Neha. The full order is: Deepak, Sunita, Alok, Neha, Tarun. Tarun is at the bottom, so Tarun is the shortest.
Q48. If CAT is coded as DBU, how is DOG coded using the same pattern?
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Answer: A
Each letter is shifted forward by one position in the alphabet: C->D, A->B, T->U. Applying this to DOG: D->E, O->P, G->H, giving EPH.
Q49. Input: opal 73 topaz ruby 56 64 29 Step 1: 73 topaz ruby 56 64 29 opal Step 2: 73 56 topaz 64 29 opal ruby How many steps are required to complete the rearrangement?
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Answer: B
Compare the input with Step 1. Two moves happen together in each step. The next largest number goes to the front: that is 73. At the same time, the next word in alphabetical order goes to the end: that is opal. In Step 2, 56 moves to the front and ruby moves to the end, together. So the rule is: each step sends the next number to the front and the next word to the end, at the same time. One extra word never takes part in this. It just keeps shifting out of the way. This rule fits every step shown above. There are 3 numbers and 3 words to place. Each step places one of each, together. So the rearrangement needs exactly 3 steps.
Q50. In a certain code language, TIME is coded as 33. How will WORK be coded in that language?
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Answer: C
In TIME, add up the alphabet positions of only the consonants, T and M, skipping the vowels I and E: T=20, M=13, and 20+13=33, which matches. So the rule is: add up the alphabet positions of only the consonants in the word. In WORK, the consonants are W, R, and K, since O is the only vowel. W=23, R=18, K=11, and 23+18+11=52. So the answer is 52.
Q51. Arrange the following words in a logical order. 1. Job Posting 2. Interview 3. Offer Letter 4. Application
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Answer: B
This sequence follows the usual hiring process at a company. A company first advertises the role through a job posting. Interested candidates then send in their application. Shortlisted candidates are called for an interview. Successful candidates finally receive an offer letter. So the order is Job Posting, Application, Interview, Offer Letter, matching option B.
Q52. If + means −, and − means +, find the value of: 18 + 7 − 5 + 9
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Answer: A
Under this rule, + actually means −, and − actually means +. Rewrite the expression with the real operations: 18 − 7 + 5 − 9. First, 18 − 7 = 11. Next, 11 + 5 = 16. Finally, 16 − 9 = 7. So the value of the expression is 7.
Q53. Arrange the following words in a logical order. 1. Conflict 2. Confide 3. Confuse 4. Confirm 5. Conflate
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Answer: D
All five words share the same first four letters, C-O-N-F. So compare the letters that follow. Confide has I then D, which comes first. Confirm has I then R, which comes second. Conflate has L then A, which comes third. Conflict has L then I, which comes fourth. Confuse has U, which comes last since U follows I and L. So the order is Confide, Confirm, Conflate, Conflict, Confuse, matching option D.
Q54. Suppose 9 January 2027 falls on a Saturday. What day of the week is 14 June 2027?
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Answer: C
Take 9 January 2027 as the known reference day, a Saturday. Count the days from 9 January to 14 June 2027. January contributes 22 remaining days, since 31 minus 9 equals 22. February 2027 is not a leap year, so it contributes 28 days. March contributes 31 days, April contributes 30, and May contributes 31. June contributes 14 days, up to the target date. Adding these gives 22 plus 28 plus 31 plus 30 plus 31 plus 14, which is 156 days. Divide 156 by 7. That gives 22 full weeks, with a remainder of 2 days. Move 2 days forward from Saturday. Saturday plus 1 is Sunday, plus 2 is Monday. So 14 June 2027 falls on a Monday.
Q55. Suppose 14 July 2019 falls on a Sunday. What day of the week is 14 July 2026?
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Answer: C
Take 14 July 2019 as the known reference day, a Sunday. The span to 14 July 2026 covers 7 one-year gaps. Each gap runs from 14 July of one year to 14 July of the next. Check which gaps pass through a 29 February. The gap starting in 2019 passes through February 2020, a leap year. The gap starting in 2023 passes through February 2024, also a leap year. No other gap in this span passes through a leap February. So 2 of the 7 gaps carry an extra day, and 5 gaps are ordinary. Each ordinary gap contributes 1 odd day, and each leap-affected gap contributes 2. The total is 5 times 1, plus 2 times 2, which equals 5 plus 4, or 9 odd days. Divide 9 by 7. That gives 1 full week, with a remainder of 2 days. Move 2 days forward from Sunday. Sunday plus 2 is Tuesday. So 14 July 2026 falls on a Tuesday.
Q56.
How many letters in the word ‘VITAMIN’ look exactly the same in mirror image as in the original?
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Answer: A
A letter has the same mirror image only if it is symmetric left to right. The standard list is A, H, I, M, O, T, U, V, W, X, and Y. The word ‘VITAMIN’ has 7 letters. Checking each one against that list gives a match every time it appears: V, I, T, A, M, I. That is 6 matching letters in total, so the answer is 6.
Q57.
Two views of the same die are shown below. Which letter is opposite to W?
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Answer: D
The letter ‘W’ shows up in both views. In View 1, ‘W’ sits next to ‘R’ and ‘Z’. In View 2, ‘W’ sits next to ‘V’ and ‘X’. A cube face touches four other faces and never touches the face opposite it. So ‘W’ is next to ‘R’, ‘Z’, ‘V’ and ‘X’. The one face never seen next to ‘W’ is its opposite. That face is ‘Y’, so the answer is Y.
Q58.
The figure below shows a clock face.
What time does the mirror image of this clock show?
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Answer: A
A clock’s mirror image follows one rule: mirror time = 11:60 minus the actual time. Here the given time is 3:15. 11:60 minus 3:15 works out to 8:45. So the answer is 8:45. This rule works both ways: applying it twice returns the original time.
Q59. If + means ÷, − means ×, × means −, and ÷ means +, find the value of: 16 − 8 + 4 × 2 ÷ 4
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Answer: B
Substitute the real operations: − becomes ×, + becomes ÷, × becomes −, and ÷ becomes +. The expression becomes: 16 × 8 ÷ 4 − 2 + 4. Multiplication and division come first, worked left to right. 16 × 8 = 128, then 128 ÷ 4 = 32. The expression is now: 32 − 2 + 4. Working left to right, 32 − 2 = 30, then 30 + 4 = 34. So the value of the expression is 34.
Q60. Rohan is standing in a queue at a bakery. He is 9th from the front of the queue and 14th from the back. How many people are in the queue in total?
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Answer: A
Rohan’s rank from the front is 9. His rank from the back is 14. The formula is: Total = rank from front + rank from back − 1. We subtract 1 because Rohan himself is counted once in each rank. Total = 9 + 14 − 1 = 22. So the queue has 22 people.
Q61. A cube has a different symbol on each of its six faces: Sun, Moon, Star, Cloud, Leaf and Wave. Two views of the same cube are shown below. View 1: Sun on top, Moon on front, Star on right. View 2: Sun on top, Cloud on front, Leaf on right. Based on these two views, which symbol is opposite Sun?
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Answer: A
The cube’s six faces show Sun, Moon, Star, Cloud, Leaf and Wave. In View 1, Sun sits with Moon and Star, so Sun is adjacent to both. In View 2, Sun sits with Cloud and Leaf, so Sun is adjacent to both as well. Together, Sun is now known to be adjacent to four different faces: Moon, Star, Cloud and Leaf. A cube face can be adjacent to at most four others, touching every face except its opposite. Since Sun is already adjacent to Moon, Star, Cloud and Leaf, only Wave is left. So Wave must be the face opposite Sun. The symbol opposite Sun is Wave.
Q62. Find the missing number. Row 1: 4, 7, 21 Row 2: 6, 9, ?
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Answer: B
Look at Row 1. Add the first two numbers: 4 + 7 = 11. Double that sum: 11 x 2 = 22. Subtract 1: 22 – 1 = 21. This matches Row 1’s third number. The rule is: third number = (first + second) x 2, minus 1. Apply it to Row 2: 6 + 9 = 15. Then 15 x 2 = 30, and 30 – 1 = 29.
Q63. At what time between 3 o’clock and 4 o’clock do the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock coincide?
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Answer: D
The hands coincide when the hour hand’s angle equals the minute hand’s angle. This means 30 x H plus 0.5 x M equals 6 x M. So 30 x H equals 5.5 x M, and M equals 60 x H divided by 11. Between 3:00 and 4:00, H equals 3. So M equals 180 divided by 11, which is 16 and 4/11 minutes. The hands coincide at exactly 3:16 4/11.
Q64. At what time between 4 o’clock and 5 o’clock do the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock form a right angle for the second time?
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Answer: C
A right angle means the hands are 90 degrees apart. This happens at M = (60H ± 180) / 11 minutes past H. For H = 4, the two values are 60/11 and 420/11. The first is 5 5/11 minutes, so 4:05 5/11. The second is 38 2/11 minutes, so 4:38 2/11, which is the answer.
Q65. A clock shows 4:10. What time does its reflection show in still water directly below it?
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Answer: C
A water image time follows this rule: water time equals 6:00 minus the actual time. At 4:10, this subtraction needs borrowing, since 10 is more than 0. Rewrite 6:00 as 5 hours and 60 minutes. Subtract the hours: 5 minus 4 equals 1. Subtract the minutes: 60 minus 10 equals 50. So the water image reads 1:50.
Q66. In a row of 40 students at assembly, Devika’s rank is 21st from the back. Farah stands 6 ranks ahead of Devika in the same row. What is Farah’s rank from the front?
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Answer: D
First convert Devika’s rank to a front-based rank. Rank from front = total − rank from back + 1 = 40 − 21 + 1 = 20. So Devika is 20th from the front. Farah is 6 ranks ahead, so Farah’s rank is smaller by 6. Farah’s rank from the front = 20 − 6 = 14.
Q67.
The figure below is a 4 by 4 grid, made up of small equal squares.
How many squares of all sizes are there in this figure?
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Answer: C
Count squares one size at a time, from smallest to largest. A size k square fits in (n-k+1) positions along each side of an n by n grid. For this 4 by 4 grid, here is each size’s count. 1 by 1 gives 16, 2 by 2 gives 9, 3 by 3 gives 4. 4 by 4 gives 1. Add every size together to get the total. The sum is 30. A common mistake is counting only the 16 smallest unit squares, and forgetting the larger squares made by combining them. The correct total, across every size, is 30.
Q68. In a certain code language, ‘birds can fly high’ is coded as ‘ru mo ka ti’, and ‘planes can fly higher’ is coded as ‘mo pa ka lo’. What is the common code for ‘can fly’?
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Answer: A
The words ‘can’ and ‘fly’ both appear in both sentences. Compare the two code groups: ‘ru mo ka ti’ and ‘mo pa ka lo’. The codes common to both groups are ‘mo’ and ‘ka’. Since ‘can’ and ‘fly’ are the only words common to both sentences, their codes must be this common pair. So the answer is mo, ka.
Q69. A watch loses 3 minutes for every hour of real time. It was set correctly at 8:00 AM. What time will it show at real 2:00 PM the same day?
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Answer: C
The watch loses 3 minutes for every real hour that passes. From 8:00 AM to 2:00 PM, exactly 6 real hours pass. Total loss equals 3 minutes times 6, which is 18 minutes. A losing watch always falls behind the real time. So subtract this loss from the correct time. 2:00 PM minus 18 minutes gives 1:42 PM. The faulty watch shows 1:42 PM at real 2:00 PM.
Q70. In a certain code language, GOLD is written as FNKC. How will SILVER be written in that language?
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Answer: C
In GOLD, each letter is shifted back by 1 place: G-1=F, O-1=N, L-1=K, D-1=C, giving FNKC, which matches. So the rule is: shift every letter back by 1 place. Apply the same rule to SILVER: S-1=R, I-1=H, L-1=K, V-1=U, E-1=D, R-1=Q. So the answer is RHKUDQ.
Q71. What is the angle of dip at Earth’s magnetic poles?
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Answer: D
At the magnetic poles, Earth’s field points straight down (or up) into the ground, giving the maximum possible angle of dip, 90°.
Q72. An object’s weight on the Moon is approximately what fraction of its weight on Earth?
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Answer: A
An object’s weight on the Moon is approximately one-sixth of its weight on Earth.
Q73. An oscillator completes 20 cycles in 10 seconds. What is its period?
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Answer: D
Frequency is 20/10 = 2 Hz. Period is the reciprocal, so T = 1/2 = 0.5 s. Two cycles per second does not mean two seconds per cycle.
Q74. The ability of an atom within a chemical compound to attract shared electrons toward itself is specifically termed what?
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Answer: C
Electronegativity specifically describes how strongly a bonded atom pulls shared electron density toward its own nucleus.
Q75. When calcium carbonate is added as flux to a blast furnace during iron metallurgy, the calcium ion ends up appearing as?
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Answer: D
Calcium carbonate decomposes and its calcium then combines with silica impurities, forming molten slag that separates from the iron.
Q76. 20 microns is equivalent to approximately how many nanometres?
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Answer: D
Since 1 micron equals 1,000 nanometres, 20 microns converts to 20 × 1,000, or 20,000 nanometres.
Q77. A substance’s molecule closely resembles its individual atom specifically for which kind of substance?
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Answer: C
For a monoatomic substance, like a noble gas, a single free atom essentially IS the molecule — there’s no bonding to additional atoms involved.
Q78. During sudden, intense physical activity, the buildup of which acid in muscles causes cramping?
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Answer: A
Intense exercise forces muscles into anaerobic respiration, producing lactic acid, whose buildup is linked to the cramping and fatigue that follows.
Q79. A solution, in the chemical sense, is best described as?
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Answer: A
A solution is broadly defined as any homogeneous mixture, whether it involves solids, liquids, or gases combining uniformly.
Q80. Which element exists in a liquid state at ordinary room temperature?
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Answer: A
Mercury is the only common metal that remains liquid at room temperature, thanks to its unusually low melting point.
Q81. The scientific name ‘Panthera pardus’ refers to which animal?
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Answer: C
Panthera pardus designates the leopard, distinguishing it from Panthera tigris (tiger) and Panthera leo (lion).
Q82. What is the frequency of a musical note that is exactly one octave higher than a note of 500 Hz?
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Answer: C
Going up one octave exactly doubles the frequency, so a note one octave above 500 Hz has a frequency of 1,000 Hz.
Q83. Which of these diseases is NOT transmitted from one person to another?
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Answer: A
Cirrhosis results from liver damage (often from alcohol or chronic disease), not direct person-to-person transmission.
Q84. Who is generally regarded as the Father of Modern Chemistry?
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Answer: C
Antoine Lavoisier is credited as the Father of Modern Chemistry, for establishing the law of conservation of mass and helping found systematic chemical nomenclature.
Q85. Atomic mass of an element is equal to the sum of number of
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Answer: B
Almost all of an atom mass sits in its nucleus, made up of protons and neutrons. Electrons are so light that their mass barely counts, roughly 1800 times lighter than a proton. So atomic mass number is calculated simply as the number of protons plus the number of neutrons.
Q86. A rectangular room is 20 m long and 10 m wide. Find the cost of flooring it at Rs 75 per sq m.
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Answer: D
Let length = L = 20 m, breadth = B = 10 m, rate = Rs 75 per sq m. Area of the room = L x B = 20 x 10 = 200 sq m. Cost of flooring = area x rate = 200 x 75 = Rs 15000.
Q87. A sum of Rs 29000 earns a simple interest of Rs 12180 in 6 years. Find the rate of interest per annum.
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Answer: A
Let Principal P = Rs 29000, S.I. = Rs 12180, Time T = 6 years. Formula: Rate R = (100 x S.I.)/(P x T). 100 x S.I. = 100 x 12180 = 1218000. P x T = 29000 x 6 = 174000. R = 1218000/174000 = 7%. Check: S.I. = (P x R x T)/100 = (29000 x 7 x 6)/100 = Rs 12180.
Q88. Find the circumference of a circle with radius 7 cm. (Take pi = 22/7)
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Answer: C
Let radius = R = 7 cm, and take pi = 22/7. Circumference of a circle = 2 x pi x R. So circumference = 2 x (22/7) x 7 = 44 cm.
Q89. A person has 4 different starters and 5 different main courses. In how many ways can they choose one of each?
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Answer: C
There are 4 choices for starters and 5 choices for main courses. These two choices are independent: picking one does not affect the other. By the fundamental counting principle, multiply the number of choices together. Total ways = 4 x 5 = 20.
Q90. How many odd days does an ordinary (365-day) year have?
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Answer: C
A week has 7 days, so a full week never changes the day of the week. An ordinary year has 365 days. 365 ÷ 7 = 52 remainder 1, so 365 days = 52 complete weeks (364 days) plus 1 extra day. That leftover 1 day is called an odd day. So an ordinary year has exactly 1 odd day. Check: 52×7 + 1 = 365, which matches.
Q91. Which of these correctly orders the Roman numerals from greatest to least, : C, D, L, and M?
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Answer: A
Convert each Roman numeral to its value: M = 1000, D = 500, C = 100, L = 50. Now order these values from greatest to least: 1000 > 500 > 100 > 50, i.e. M > D > C > L.
Q92. x is said to be directly proportional to y when which relationship holds?
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Answer: B
Direct proportionality means x and y grow together at a fixed rate. This is written as x = ky, where k is a constant. As y increases, x increases by the same fixed multiple. For example, doubling y doubles x.
Q93. A train 150 metres long is running at 72 km/hr. How long will it take to cross a platform 70 metres long?
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Answer: B
Let train length L = 150 m and platform length P = 70 m. Train speed = 72 km/hr; convert to m/sec: 72 x 5/18 = 20 m/sec. To fully cross the platform, the train covers its own length plus the platform’s length. Distance = L + P = 150 + 70 = 220 m. Time = distance / speed = 220/20 = 11 seconds. Check: 20 m/sec x 11 sec = 220 m, which matches L + P.
Q94. Find the compound interest on Rs 2125 at 40% per annum for 3 years, compounded annually.
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Answer: A
Let Principal P = Rs 2125, Rate R = 40% per annum, Time T = 3 years. Compounded annually, each year the amount is multiplied by (100+R)/100 = 7/5. After year 1, Amount = 2125 x 7/5 = Rs 2975. After year 2, Amount = 2975 x 7/5 = Rs 4165. After year 3, Amount = 4165 x 7/5 = Rs 5831. So Amount after 3 years = Rs 5831. C.I. = Amount – Principal = 5831 – 2125 = Rs 3706. Check: Principal + C.I. = 2125 + 3706 = Rs 5831, which matches the Amount.
Q95. A speed of 75 metres per second is the same as how many km/hr?
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Answer: B
Let the given speed be 75 m/sec. To convert m/sec to km/hr, multiply by 18/5. Speed in km/hr = 75 x 18/5. 75 x 18 = 1350. 1350/5 = 270 km/hr. Check: 270 x 5/18 = 75 m/sec, which matches the given speed.
Q96. Find the perimeter of a rectangle whose length is 17 m and breadth is 4 m.
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Answer: A
Let length = L = 17 m and breadth = B = 4 m. Perimeter of a rectangle = 2 x (L + B). L + B = 17 + 4 = 21. Perimeter = 2 x 21 = 42 m.
Q97. Find the volume of a cuboid that is 14 m long, 9 m broad, and 11 m high.
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Answer: D
Let length = l = 14 m, breadth = b = 9 m, height = h = 11 m. Volume of a cuboid = length x breadth x height. So volume = 14 x 9 x 11. 14 x 9 = 126, and 126 x 11 = 1386. So the volume is 1386 cubic m.
Q98. Find the volume of a cuboid that is 36 m long, 35 m broad, and 7 m high.
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Answer: A
Let length = l = 36 m, breadth = b = 35 m, height = h = 7 m. Volume of a cuboid = length x breadth x height. So volume = 36 x 35 x 7. 36 x 35 = 1260, and 1260 x 7 = 8820. So the volume is 8820 cubic m.
Q99. Simplify: 21 – 108 / 9 + 3
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Answer: D
Let the expression be 21 – 108 / 9 + 3. By BODMAS, division comes before subtraction and addition. First compute 108 / 9 = 12. The expression becomes 21 – 12 + 3. Working left to right, 21 – 12 = 9. Then 9 + 3 = 12. So the expression equals 12.
Q100. A rectangular field is 27 m long and 19 m wide. Find the cost of fencing it at Rs 8 per metre.
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Answer: B
Let length = L = 27 m, breadth = B = 19 m, rate = Rs 8 per metre. Perimeter to be fenced = 2 x (L + B) = 2 x (27+19) = 92 m. Cost of fencing = perimeter x rate = 92 x 8 = Rs 736.
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