General Knowledge
Geography
Which one of the following tribal groups is dominantly found in the 'Blue Mountains'?
- (a)Lambadas
- (b)Gonds
- (c)Jarawas
- (d)Todas
Answer: (d) Todas
This pastoral tribal community is native to the Nilgiri Hills, whose name means Blue Mountains. View this question →
Geography
Who among the following geographers is related to 'primate city' concept?
- (a)August Losch
- (b)Mark Jefferson
- (c)Griffith Taylor
- (d)W. Christaller
Answer: (b) Mark Jefferson
He introduced the primate city concept in 1939 to describe a country’s disproportionately dominant leading city. View this question →
Geography
Which one of the following islands is the largest?
- (a)Borneo
- (b)Madagascar
- (c)New Guinea
- (d)Sumatra
Answer: (c) New Guinea
It is the world’s second-largest island overall (after Greenland) and the largest among these four options. View this question →
Geography
Arrange the following Tiger Reserves of India from North to South: 1. Dudhwa 2. Panna 3. Pench 4. Indravati Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)4, 3, 2, 1
- (b)2, 1, 4, 3
- (c)1, 2, 3, 4
- (d)1, 3, 2, 4
Answer: (c) 1, 2, 3, 4
North to south: Dudhwa (Uttar Pradesh), Panna (Madhya Pradesh), Pench (Madhya Pradesh–Maharashtra border), Indravati (Chhattisgarh). Related: IndGeo0107 — Pench National Park.
General Science
Which one of the following proteins gives lustrous shiny appearance to silk fibre?
- (a)Fibrin
- (b)Sericin
- (c)Collagen
- (d)Nectin
Answer: (b) Sericin
Sericin is the gummy protein coating the silk filament (fibroin); it is credited with giving raw silk fibre its characteristic lustrous sheen, per the official answer key.
General Science
Blue Baby Syndrome is caused by the contamination of
- (a)nitrite (NO2-)
- (b)sulphite (SO3 2-)
- (c)nitrate (NO3-)
- (d)sulphate (SO4 2-)
Answer: (c) nitrate (NO3-)
Nitrate in drinking water converts to nitrite in the body, which then impairs oxygen transport in infants, causing this syndrome. View this question →
General Science
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I (Cell Organelle): A. Mitochondria B. Chloroplast C. Ribosomes D. Lysosomes List-II (Function): 1. Photosynthesis 2. Protein synthesis 3. Intracellular digestion 4. ATP formation Code:
- (a)A-3 B-1 C-2 D-4
- (b)A-3 B-2 C-1 D-4
- (c)A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3
- (d)A-4 B-2 C-1 D-3
Answer: (c) A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3
Mitochondria generate ATP, chloroplasts carry out photosynthesis, ribosomes synthesize protein, and lysosomes handle intracellular digestion. View this question →
General Science
Human insulin molecule is composed of one α-chain having 21 amino acids and one β-chain having 30 amino acids. How many functional insulin genes occur in adult humans?
- (a)One
- (b)Two
- (c)Three
- (d)Four
Answer: (a) One
A single insulin gene (INS) produces a single preproinsulin chain that is later cleaved into the two connected chains of mature insulin. View this question →
General Science
Pearl is a hard object produced within the soft tissues of a mollusk. Which one of the following is the main constituent of pearl?
- (a)Calcium carbonate
- (b)Calcium oxide
- (c)Calcium nitrate
- (d)Calcium sulphate
Answer: (a) Calcium carbonate
Pearls form from layers of aragonite (a calcium carbonate mineral) deposited by the mollusk around an irritant. View this question →
General Science
A biological community in its environment such as a pond, an ocean, a forest, even an aquarium is known as
- (a)biome
- (b)community
- (c)abiotic environment
- (d)ecosystem
Answer: (d) ecosystem
It describes the community of living organisms interacting with their physical environment as a functional unit. View this question →
General Science
An electron and a proton starting from rest are accelerated through a potential difference of 1000 V. Which one of the following statements in this regard is correct?
- (a)The kinetic energy of both the particles will be different
- (b)The speed of the electron will be higher than that of the proton
- (c)The speed of the proton will be higher than that of the electron
- (d)The speed of the electron and the proton will be equal
Answer: (b) The speed of the electron will be higher than that of the proton
Both gain the same kinetic energy from the same potential difference, but the electron’s much smaller mass lets it reach a far greater speed. View this question →
General Science
Two wires are made having same length l and area of cross-section A. Wire 1 is made of copper and wire 2 is made of aluminium. It is given that the electrical conductivity of copper is more than that of aluminium. In this context, which one of the following statements is correct?
- (a)The resistance of wire 1 will be higher than that of wire 2
- (b)The resistance of wire 2 will be higher than that of wire 1
- (c)The resistance of both the wires will be the same
- (d)If same current is flown through both the wires, the power dissipated in both the wires will be the same
Answer: (b) The resistance of wire 2 will be higher than that of wire 1
Lower conductivity means higher resistivity, and with identical dimensions, that translates directly into higher resistance. View this question →
General Science
A ray of light is incident on a plane mirror at an angle of 40° with respect to surface normal. When it gets reflected from the mirror, it undergoes a deviation of
- (a)40°
- (b)100°
- (c)90°
- (d)80°
Answer: (b) 100°
The total deviation between incident and reflected rays equals 180° minus twice the angle of incidence, giving 180° minus 80° = 100°. View this question →
General Science
Infrared, visible and ultraviolet radiations/light have different properties. Which one of the following statements related to these radiations/light is not correct?
- (a)The wavelength of infrared is more than that of ultraviolet radiation
- (b)The wavelength of ultraviolet is smaller than that of visible light
- (c)The photon energy of visible light is more than that of infrared light
- (d)The photon energy of ultraviolet is lesser than that of visible light
Answer: (d) The photon energy of ultraviolet is lesser than that of visible light
Ultraviolet light has a shorter wavelength than visible light, which means its photons actually carry more energy, not less. View this question →
General Science
After using for some time, big transformers get heated up. This is due to the fact that: 1. current produces heat in the transformers 2. hysteresis loss occurs in the transformers 3. liquid used for cooling gets heated Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)1 and 2 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only
Resistive (copper) losses and hysteresis (core) losses are the actual heat sources; the cooling liquid heating up is simply an effect of absorbing that heat, not a cause of it. View this question →
General Science
A person is standing on a frictionless horizontal ground. How can he move by a certain distance on this ground?
- (a)By sneezing
- (b)By jumping
- (c)By running
- (d)By rolling
Answer: (a) By sneezing
Running, rolling, and jumping all need friction against the ground to push off. Sneezing works differently: it expels air backward fast, and by conservation of momentum, the body recoils forward, exactly like a tiny rocket, with no friction required.
Related: GenSci0014 — Friction, Torque and Rotational Motion
General Science
In the reaction between hydrogen sulphate ion and water: HSO4- + H2O → H3O+ + SO4 2-, the water acts as
- (a)an acid
- (b)a base
- (c)a salt
- (d)an inert medium
Answer: (b) a base
Water accepts a proton from HSO4- to become H3O+, the defining behaviour of a Bronsted-Lowry base. View this question →
General Science
How many hydrogen atoms are contained in 1.50 g of glucose (C6H12O6)?
- (a)3.01 × 10^22
- (b)1.20 × 10^23
- (c)2.40 × 10^23
- (d)6.02 × 10^22
Answer: (d) 6.02 × 10^22
With a molar mass of 180 g/mol, 1.50 g is about 0.00833 mol glucose, and each molecule has 12 hydrogen atoms, giving roughly 6.02×10^22 H atoms. View this question →
General Science
The paste of a white material in water is used to maintain a fractured bone fixed in place. The white material used is called
- (a)bleaching powder
- (b)plaster of Paris
- (c)powder of zinc oxide
- (d)lime powder
Answer: (b) plaster of Paris
Its paste hardens into a rigid cast that immobilises a fractured bone. View this question →
General Science
Which one of the following types of glasses is used for making optical instruments?
- (a)Pyrex glass
- (b)Soft glass
- (c)Hard glass
- (d)Flint glass
Answer: (d) Flint glass
Its high refractive index and strong light dispersion make it ideal for lenses and prisms in optical instruments. View this question →
Environment & Ecology
Most ozone gas (about 90%) is located in the atmospheric layer of
- (a)ionosphere
- (b)troposphere
- (c)stratosphere
- (d)mesosphere
Answer: (c) stratosphere
This is where the protective ozone layer sits, absorbing most incoming ultraviolet radiation. View this question →
Environment & Ecology
What are the main constituents of biogas?
- (a)Methane and sulphur dioxide
- (b)Methane and carbon dioxide
- (c)Methane, hydrogen and nitric oxide
- (d)Methane and nitric oxide
Answer: (b) Methane and carbon dioxide
Biogas is roughly 50-70% methane and 30-40% carbon dioxide, with only trace amounts of other gases. Sulphur dioxide and nitric oxide are not real biogas components.
Related: IndEco0118 — GOBARdhan: National Circular Bioenergy Scheme
Polity & Governance
In which two Indian States of the four mentioned below, it is necessary to hold certain minimum educational qualifications to be eligible to contest Panchayat Elections? 1. Punjab 2. Haryana 3. Karnataka 4. Rajasthan Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 and 2
- (b)2 and 4
- (c)2 and 3
- (d)1 and 4
Answer: (b) 2 and 4
Both states introduced minimum educational qualification requirements for panchayat election candidates, a move that drew legal challenges. View this question →
Polity & Governance
Which of the following statements about 'delegation' is/are correct? 1. It is the abdication of responsibility. 2. It means conferring of specified authority by a lower authority to a higher one. 3. It is subject to supervision and review. 4. It is a method of dividing authority in the organization. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)3 only
- (b)2 and 4 only
- (c)3 and 4
- (d)1, 2 and 4
Answer: (c) 3 and 4
Delegation divides authority downward and remains subject to review, but it does not mean giving up responsibility, and authority flows from higher to lower levels, not the reverse. View this question →
Polity & Governance
Which of the following features were borrowed by the Constitution of India from the British Constitution? 1. Rule of Law 2. Law-making Procedure 3. Independence of Judiciary 4. Parliamentary System Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)2, 3 and 4
- (c)1 and 4 only
- (d)1, 2 and 4
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 4
Rule of Law, law-making procedure, and the parliamentary system all came from Britain. Statement 3 is the trap: independence of the judiciary is usually credited to the United States, alongside Fundamental Rights and judicial review, not Britain.
Related: Polity0114 — Comparative Constitutional Law: India vs Other Countries
Polity & Governance
Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India has fixed the number of Members of the Rajya Sabha to be elected from each State?
- (a)Fifth Schedule
- (b)Third Schedule
- (c)Sixth Schedule
- (d)Fourth Schedule
Answer: (d) Fourth Schedule
It lists the number of Rajya Sabha seats allotted to each state and union territory. View this question →
Economy
Which one of the following statements about various horticulture crops of India for the year 2016-17 is not correct?
- (a)The area under horticulture crops has increased over previous year
- (b)Fruit production during the current year is higher than the previous year
- (c)Rate of increase in onion production is more than potato production in the current year in comparison to the previous year
- (d)The major tomato-growing States are Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Odisha and Gujarat
Answer: (c) Rate of increase in onion production is more than potato production
This claim is not correct — potato production actually grew faster than onion in 2016-17. The area under horticulture, fruit output, and listed tomato-growing states were all accurately stated.
Economy
The phenomenon of 'demographic dividend' of a country relates to
- (a)a sharp decline in total population
- (b)an increase in working age population
- (c)a decline in infant mortality rate
- (d)an increase in sex ratio
Answer: (b) an increase in working age population
The demographic dividend refers to the economic growth potential that comes from a rising share of working-age people relative to dependents, not from population decline, infant mortality, or sex ratio changes.
Economy
Arrange the following events in sequential order as they happened in India: 1. Mahalanobis Model 2. Plan Holiday 3. Rolling Plan Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1, 2, 3
- (b)3, 2, 1
- (c)2, 3, 1
- (d)1, 3, 2
Answer: (a) 1, 2, 3
The Mahalanobis Model shaped the Second Plan (1956-61), came first. The Plan Holiday (1966-69, three Annual Plans run after the 1965 war and drought) came next. The Rolling Plan (1978-80, introduced after the Fifth Plan was terminated early) came last.
Economy
The monetary policy in India uses which of the following tools? 1. Bank rate 2. Open market operations 3. Public debt 4. Public revenue Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)1 and 4 only
- (d)1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Bank rate and open-market operations are monetary policy tools used by the central bank. Public debt and public revenue belong to fiscal policy, not monetary policy.
Economy
Devaluation of currency will be more beneficial if prices of
- (a)domestic goods remain constant
- (b)exports become cheaper to importers
- (c)imports remain constant
- (d)exports rise proportionately
Answer: (d) exports rise proportionately
Devaluation only genuinely helps the trade balance if the resulting price drop translates into a proportionately larger rise in export volumes, not just cheaper unit prices. View this question →
General Science
Directions (Q32-36): Each item consists of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine carefully and select using the code:
Statement I: Skin cancer is generally caused by the ultraviolet radiation. Statement II: Stratosphere allows ultraviolet radiation to enter the earth from the sun.
- (a)Both statements individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
- (b)Both statements individually true but Statement II is NOT the correct explanation of Statement I
- (c)Statement I is true but Statement II is false
- (d)Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Answer: (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
The stratosphere’s ozone layer actually blocks most ultraviolet radiation rather than letting it through. View this question →
Geography
Directions (Q32-36): Each item consists of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine carefully and select using the code:
Statement I: The interior part of Maharashtra does not receive adequate rain in the summer season. Statement II: The interior part of Maharashtra lies in the rain shadow of the Western Ghats.
- (a)Both statements individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
- (b)Both statements individually true but Statement II is NOT the correct explanation of Statement I
- (c)Statement I is true but Statement II is false
- (d)Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Answer: (a) Both statements individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
Interior Maharashtra sits in the rain shadow of the Western Ghats. Monsoon winds drop most of their moisture on the windward coastal side before crossing the crest.
Environment & Ecology
Directions (Q32-36): Each item consists of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine carefully and select using the code:
Statement I: Global warming signifies the rise in global surface temperature. Statement II: The increase of concentration of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere causes the rise in global surface temperature.
- (a)Both statements individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
- (b)Both statements individually true but Statement II is NOT the correct explanation of Statement I
- (c)Statement I is true but Statement II is false
- (d)Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Answer: (a) Both statements individually true, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
Rising greenhouse gas concentrations trap more heat, directly driving the global surface temperature increase that defines global warming. View this question →
History & Culture
Directions (Q32-36): Each item consists of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine carefully and select using the code:
Statement I: The Communists left the All India Trade Union Congress in 1931. Statement II: By 1928, the Communists were no longer working with the mainstream national movement.
- (a)Both statements individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
- (b)Both statements individually true but Statement II is NOT the correct explanation of Statement I
- (c)Statement I is true but Statement II is false
- (d)Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Answer: (a)
Both statements are individually true, and Statement II explains Statement I. By 1928 the communists had broken with the mainstream national movement (they rejected Gandhi’s ‘bourgeois’ agitations), and that revolutionary line is why they seceded from the moderate-led AITUC in 1931 to form the Red Trade Union Congress.
Related: ModHist0351 — The Founding of the Hind Mazdoor Sabha · ModHist0097 — Emergence of Communism in India · View this question →
History & Culture
Directions (Q32-36): Each item consists of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine carefully and select using the code:
Statement I: The early Aryans, who were essentially pastoral, did not develop any political structure which could measure up to a State in either ancient or modern sense. Statement II: Kingship was the same as tribal chiefship; the term Rajan being used for tribal chief who was primarily a military leader and who ruled over his people and not over any specified area.
- (a)Both statements individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
- (b)Both statements individually true but Statement II is NOT the correct explanation of Statement I
- (c)Statement I is true but Statement II is false
- (d)Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Answer: (a) Both statements individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
Rigvedic Aryans were pastoral tribes led by a Rajan, a tribal chief and military leader, not a territorial monarch. Because kingship meant leading a people rather than ruling a fixed territory, the early Aryans never built a formal state structure in the ancient or modern sense.
History & Culture
Which one of the following peasant struggles was an outcome of British opium policy?
- (a)Phulaguri Dhawa (1861)
- (b)Birsaite Ulgulan (1899-1900)
- (c)Pabna Revolt (1873)
- (d)Maratha Peasant Uprising (1875)
Answer: (a) Phulaguri Dhawa (1861)
This Assam peasant uprising was triggered partly by British restrictions on opium cultivation alongside new taxation. View this question →
History & Culture
Which one of the following statements about the Sayyid brothers during the period of Later Mughals is not true?
- (a)They brought Jahandar Shah to power
- (b)They wielded administrative power
- (c)They followed a tolerant religious policy
- (d)They reached an agreement with King Shahu
Answer: (a) They brought Jahandar Shah to power
The Sayyid brothers (Abdullah Khan and Husain Ali Khan) raised Farrukhsiyar to the throne in 1713, not Jahandar Shah – so this statement is false. They did wield administrative power, followed a tolerant religious policy, and reached an agreement with the Maratha King Shahu.
Related: ModHist0004 — The Decline of the Mughal Empire · MedHist0018 — Mughal Decline After Aurangzeb · View this question →
History & Culture
Which of the following statements with regard to the heterodox sect between sixth and fourth century BC are correct? 1. The Jain ideas were already being circulated in the seventh century BC by Parshva. 2. Although Buddhism, and to a lesser extent Jainism, took account of the changes in material life and reacted against orthodoxy, neither of these sought to abolish the caste system. 3. The first female disciple of Mahavira is said to have been a captured slave woman. 4. Buddha held that nuns could attain spiritual liberation just like a monk and granted them an equal status in the mendicant order. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1, 2, 3 and 4
- (b)1, 2 and 3 only
- (c)1, 2 and 4 only
- (d)3 and 4 only
Answer: (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Parshvanatha’s four vows predate Mahavira by roughly two centuries. Neither Buddhism nor Jainism sought to abolish the caste system outright, despite reacting against Vedic orthodoxy. Mahavira’s first female disciple, Chandanbala, is described in Jain tradition as a princess sold into slavery. Buddha’s mendicant order did admit nuns, who could attain the same spiritual liberation as monks.
History & Culture
Which one of the following combinations of year and event concerning the French Revolution is correctly matched?
- (a)1789: Napoleonic Code
- (b)1791: Tennis Court Oath
- (c)1792: National Convention
- (d)1804: New Constitution of France
Answer: (c) 1792: National Convention
The Tennis Court Oath was actually 1789, the Napoleonic Code came in 1804, and 1804 itself marked Napoleon’s coronation as emperor, not a new constitution. View this question →
History & Culture
Who among the following is the author of the book, The Social Contract?
- (a)Voltaire
- (b)Hobbes
- (c)Locke
- (d)Rousseau
Answer: (d) Rousseau
His 1762 work ‘The Social Contract’ argued for legitimate political authority resting on the general will of the people. View this question →
Sports & Current Affairs
Who among the following is the recipient of the Jnanpith Award, 2016?
- (a)Shankha Ghosh
- (b)Raghuveer Chaudhari
- (c)Pratibha Ray
- (d)Rehman Rahi
Answer: (a) Shankha Ghosh
This Bengali poet received the 52nd Jnanpith Award for 2016. View this question →
Sports & Current Affairs
The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), which were adopted by the UNO in place of the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs), 2015, aim to achieve the 17 goals by the year
- (a)2020
- (b)2030
- (c)2040
- (d)2050
Answer: (b) 2030
The UN’s 17 Sustainable Development Goals set a 15-year timeline from their 2015 adoption to the 2030 target. View this question →
Sports & Current Affairs
Teejan Bai, a recipient of the M.S. Subbulakshmi Centenary Award, 2016, is an exponent in
- (a)Kannada classical vocal
- (b)Kajari dance
- (c)Bihu dance
- (d)Pandavani, a traditional performing art
Answer: (d) Pandavani, a traditional performing art
Teejan Bai is renowned for this Chhattisgarhi traditional storytelling and performance art based on the Mahabharata. View this question →
Sports & Current Affairs
Who among the following is the recipient of the Dadasaheb Phalke Award, 2016?
- (a)Nana Patekar
- (b)Manoj Kumar
- (c)Javed Akhtar
- (d)K. Viswanath
Answer: (d) K. Viswanath
This acclaimed filmmaker received India’s highest award in cinema for the year 2016. View this question →
Sports & Current Affairs
The Nobel Prize in Physics for the year 2016 was given to
- (a)David J. Thouless
- (b)F. Duncan M. Haldane
- (c)J. Michael Kosterlitz
- (d)All of them
Answer: (d) All of them
The 2016 Physics Nobel was jointly awarded to Thouless, Haldane, and Kosterlitz for their work on topological phase transitions. View this question →
Sports & Current Affairs
Which one of the following political parties was launched by Irom Sharmila in Manipur?
- (a)People's Resurgence and Justice Alliance
- (b)Manipur Resistance Alliance
- (c)Tribal Resistance Party
- (d)Revolutionary People's Party
Answer: (a) People’s Resurgence and Justice Alliance
Irom Sharmila launched the party in October 2016, months after ending her 16-year hunger strike against AFSPA. Its central goal was repealing the Act in Manipur. She herself lost badly contesting Thoubal in 2017 and soon left electoral politics, though she kept campaigning against AFSPA outside it. Source: Scroll.in.
Related: Polity0110 — AFSPA (Armed Forces Special Powers Act)
Sports & Current Affairs
Which one of the following planets was explored by Cassini Mission launched by NASA, which ended in September 2017?
- (a)Sun
- (b)Neptune
- (c)Saturn
- (d)Jupiter
Answer: (c) Saturn
The Cassini spacecraft studied Saturn and its moons for 13 years before its planned atmospheric plunge in September 2017. View this question →
Geography
Match List-I (Strait) with List-II (Countries): A. Bass Strait B. Davis Strait C. Dover Strait D. Florida Strait 1. UK and France 2. Australia and Tasmania 3. USA and Cuba 4. Canada and Greenland Code:
- (a)A-2 B-4 C-1 D-3
- (b)A-2 B-1 C-4 D-3
- (c)A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2
- (d)A-3 B-1 C-4 D-2
Answer: (a) A-2 B-4 C-1 D-3
Bass Strait separates Australia from Tasmania, Davis Strait lies between Canada and Greenland, Dover Strait between the UK and France, and Florida Strait between the USA and Cuba. View this question →
Geography
Match List-I (Pass) with List-II (Place): A. Zoji La B. Shipki La C. Lipulekh D. Nathu La 1. Himachal Pradesh 2. Uttarakhand 3. Jammu and Kashmir 4. Sikkim Code:
- (a)A-4 B-2 C-1 D-3
- (b)A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3
- (c)A-3 B-1 C-2 D-4
- (d)A-3 B-2 C-1 D-4
Answer: (c) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
Shipki La (B) lies in Himachal Pradesh, Zoji La (A) in Jammu & Kashmir, Lipulekh (C) in Uttarakhand, and Nathu La (D) in Sikkim. So the correct code is A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4.
Related: GK0039 – Himachal Pradesh · IndGeo0046 — Himalayan Mountain Passes
Economy
Match List-I (Concern) with List-II (Product): A. TISCO B. BALCO C. BPCL D. BEL 1. Chemicals 2. Iron & Steel 3. Electronics 4. Aluminium Code:
- (a)A-2 B-1 C-4 D-3
- (b)A-2 B-4 C-1 D-3
- (c)A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2
- (d)A-3 B-1 C-4 D-2
Answer: (b) A-2 B-4 C-1 D-3
TISCO makes iron and steel, BALCO makes aluminium, BPCL refines petroleum and petrochemicals (grouped here as chemicals), and BEL makes electronics. Related: IndGeo0008 — Mineral Resource Distribution in India.
Geography
Match List-I (National Highway) with List-II (Route): A. NH-2 B. NH-4 C. NH-7 D. NH-8 1. Delhi-Jaipur-Ahmedabad-Mumbai 2. Thane-Pune-Bengaluru-Chennai 3. Delhi-Agra-Allahabad-Kolkata 4. Varanasi-Jabalpur-Nagpur-Hyderabad-Bengaluru-Madurai-Kanyakumari Code:
- (a)A-3 B-4 C-2 D-1
- (b)A-1 B-2 C-4 D-3
- (c)A-1 B-4 C-2 D-3
- (d)A-3 B-2 C-4 D-1
Answer: (d) A-3 B-2 C-4 D-1
NH-2 ran Delhi-Agra-Allahabad-Kolkata, NH-4 ran Thane-Pune-Bengaluru-Chennai, NH-7 ran Varanasi to Kanyakumari, and NH-8 ran Delhi-Jaipur-Ahmedabad-Mumbai (under the old numbering). View this question →
Environment & Ecology
One carbon credit is accepted as equivalent to
- (a)100 kg of carbon
- (b)100 kg of carbon dioxide
- (c)1000 kg of carbon
- (d)1000 kg of carbon dioxide
Answer: (d) 1000 kg of carbon dioxide
A carbon credit represents the right to emit, or the reduction of, one tonne (1000 kg) of carbon dioxide or its equivalent in another greenhouse gas — the standard unit used across global carbon markets, not carbon itself.
General Science
An emulsion consists of
- (a)one liquid and one solid
- (b)one liquid and one gas
- (c)two liquids
- (d)two solids
Answer: (c) two liquids
An emulsion is a mixture of two immiscible liquids, like oil dispersed in water. View this question →
General Science
Which of the following radioactive substances enters/enter the human body through food chain and causes/cause many physiological disorders?
- (a)Strontium-90
- (b)Iodine-131
- (c)Cesium-137
- (d)All of the above
Answer: (d) All of the above
Strontium-90 mimics calcium and lodges in bone, Iodine-131 concentrates in the thyroid, and Cesium-137 is absorbed into soft tissue — all three enter the body via contaminated food and milk. Related: EnvEco0006 — Nuclear and Biological Disasters: India’s Major Case Studies.
Environment & Ecology
'Xeriscaping' is a concept related to
- (a)landscaping related to save water
- (b)landscaping related to save soil erosion
- (c)weathering of rock surface
- (d)All of the above
Answer: (a) landscaping related to save water
Xeriscaping uses drought-tolerant plants and efficient design to minimise irrigation needs. View this question →
General Science
Joule-Thomson process is extremely useful and economical for attaining low temperature. The process can be categorized as
- (a)isobaric process
- (b)isoenthalpic process
- (c)adiabatic process
- (d)isochoric process
Answer: (b) isoenthalpic process
Gas throttling through a valve in the Joule-Thomson effect happens at constant enthalpy. View this question →
General Science
Ultrasonic waves are produced by making use of
- (a)ferromagnetic material
- (b)ferrimagnetic material
- (c)piezoelectric material
- (d)pyroelectric material
Answer: (c) piezoelectric material
An alternating voltage across a piezoelectric crystal makes it vibrate at ultrasonic frequencies. View this question →
General Science
A person throws an object on a horizontal frictionless plane surface. It is noticed that there are two forces acting on this object—(i) gravitational pull and (ii) normal reaction of the surface. According to the third law of motion, the net resultant force is zero. Which one of the following can be said for the motion of the object?
- (a)The object will move with acceleration
- (b)The object will move with deceleration
- (c)The object will move with constant speed, but varying direction
- (d)The object will move with constant velocity
Answer: (d) The object will move with constant velocity
With gravity and the normal reaction cancelling out, the net force on the object is zero. Newton’s First Law says a body under zero net force keeps moving at whatever constant velocity it already had.
Related: GenSci0014 — Friction, Torque and Rotational Motion
General Science
Consider the following statements: 1. The chain reaction process is used in nuclear bombs to release a vast amount of energy, but in nuclear reactors, there is no chain reaction. 2. In a nuclear reactor, the reaction is controlled, while in nuclear bombs, the reaction is uncontrolled. 3. In a nuclear reactor, all operating reactors are 'critical', while there is no question of 'criticality' in case of a nuclear bomb. 4. Nuclear reactors do not use moderators, while nuclear bombs use them. Which of the above statements about operational principles of a nuclear reactor and a nuclear bomb is/are correct?
- (a)1 and 3
- (b)2 and 3
- (c)4 only
- (d)1 and 4
Answer: (b) 2 and 3
Reactors sustain a steady, controlled chain reaction at exact criticality, while a bomb’s reaction is deliberately uncontrolled and pushed rapidly past criticality; reactors, not bombs, rely on moderators to slow neutrons. View this question →
General Science
The foul smell of urine of a healthy man having healthy food, when spilled on floor, is mainly due to the bacterial decomposition of
- (a)urea into sulphur dioxide
- (b)sugar into carbon dioxide
- (c)lipids into methane
- (d)urea into ammonia
Answer: (d) urea into ammonia
Bacteria break down urea in stale urine into pungent ammonia gas. View this question →
General Science
Desalination of seawater is done by using reverse osmosis. The pressure applied to the solution is
- (a)larger than osmotic pressure
- (b)smaller than osmotic pressure
- (c)equal to osmotic pressure
- (d)equal to atmospheric pressure
Answer: (a) larger than osmotic pressure
Exceeding the osmotic pressure forces water molecules to move against their natural gradient, leaving salts behind. View this question →
General Science
Which one of the following polymers does not contain glucose units?
- (a)Glycogen
- (b)Starch
- (c)Cellulose
- (d)Rubber
Answer: (d) Rubber
It’s built from isoprene units, unlike glycogen, starch, and cellulose, which are all glucose polymers. View this question →
General Science
Tincture of iodine is an antiseptic for fresh wounds. It is a dilute solution of elemental iodine, which does not contain
- (a)water
- (b)acetone
- (c)alcohol
- (d)potassium iodide
Answer: (b) acetone
Tincture of iodine is made using alcohol and water with potassium iodide to help dissolve the iodine, not acetone. View this question →
Polity & Governance
The Fundamental Rights guaranteed in the Constitution of India can be suspended only by
- (a)a proclamation of National Emergency
- (b)an Act passed by the Parliament
- (c)an amendment to the Constitution of India
- (d)the judicial decisions of the Supreme Court
Answer: (a) a proclamation of National Emergency
Under Articles 358 and 359, a National Emergency lets the government suspend the enforcement of most Fundamental Rights. View this question →
Polity & Governance
Which of the following statements about the 73rd and 74th Constitution Amendment Act is/are correct? 1. It makes it mandatory for all States to establish a three-tier system of Government. 2. Representatives should be directly elected for five years. 3. There should be mandatory reservation of one-third of all seats in all Panchayats at all levels for women. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)1, 2 and 3
- (d)3 only
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Representatives are directly elected for five-year terms and women get a mandatory one-third reservation, but the three-tier system isn’t mandatory for smaller states with population below 20 lakh. View this question →
Polity & Governance
A Joint Sitting of the Parliament is resorted to, for resolving the deadlock between two Houses of the Parliament for passing which of the following Bills? 1. Money Bill 2. Constitutional Amendment Bill 3. Ordinary Bill Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c) 3 only (Ordinary Bill)
Money Bills don’t require a joint sitting since Rajya Sabha’s role there is limited, and Constitutional Amendment Bills have their own separate passage procedure with no joint sitting provision. View this question →
Polity & Governance
Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The Directive Principles of State Policy are meant for promoting social and economic democracy in India. 2. The Fundamental Rights enshrined in Part III of the Constitution of India are ordinarily subject to reasonable restrictions. 3. Secularism is one of the basic features of Constitution of any country. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)1 and 2 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only
DPSPs do aim at social and economic democracy, and Fundamental Rights are indeed subject to reasonable restrictions, but secularism is not a universal basic feature of every country’s constitution. View this question →
Polity & Governance
The President of India is elected by an Electoral College comprising of elected members of which of the following? 1. Both the Houses of the Parliament 2. The Legislative Assemblies of States 3. The Legislative Councils of States 4. The Legislative Assemblies of NCT of Delhi and Puducherry Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)1, 2 and 3
- (c)1, 2 and 4
- (d)3 and 4
Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 4
The Electoral College includes elected MPs, elected members of State Legislative Assemblies, and those of Delhi and Puducherry’s assemblies, but not Legislative Councils, which play no role in presidential elections. View this question →
Polity & Governance
Consider the following statements about the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes under the provisions of the Constitution of India: 1. State can make any special provision relating to their admission to the Government educational institutions. 2. State can make any special provision relating to their admission to the private educational institutions aided by the State. 3. State can make any special provision relating to their admission to the private educational institutions not aided by the State. 4. State can make any special provision relating to their admission to the minority educational institutions as described in Article 30. Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)3 and 4 only
- (c)1, 2 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (c)
Article 15(5), inserted by the 93rd Amendment in 2005, lets the state make special SC/ST/OBC admission provisions for government institutions and for private institutions, whether aided or unaided. Statement 4 is the trap: Article 15(5) explicitly excludes minority educational institutions covered by Article 30 — Parliament carved that exception out specifically to protect minorities’ own right to run their institutions. (Source: Constitution of India)
Related: Polity0088 — Special Provisions for Minorities, SC and ST.
Polity & Governance
Article 21 of the Constitution of India includes 1. Rights of transgenders 2. Rights of craniopagus twins 3. Rights of mentally retarded women to bear a child Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 only
- (b)1 and 2 only
- (c)2 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Supreme Court rulings have expanded Article 21’s right to life and dignity to cover transgender rights, treatment decisions for conjoined twins, and reproductive rights of mentally disabled women. View this question →
Polity & Governance
Who among the following was not a member of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly?
- (a)N. G. Ayyangar
- (b)K. M. Munshi
- (c)B. N. Rau
- (d)Muhammad Saadulah
Answer: (c) B. N. Rau
B.N. Rau was the Constitutional Adviser who prepared the original working draft, but he was never a formal member of the seven-person Drafting Committee itself. Ayyangar, Munshi, and Saadullah were all genuine Committee members. Source: Draft Constitution of India, 1948, constitutionofindia.net. Related: Polity0064 — The Constituent Assembly’s Drafting Committee.
History & Culture
Due to which of the following factors, the Industrial Revolution took place in England in the eighteenth century? 1. The discovery of coal and iron deposits 2. The discovery of steam power 3. The introduction of railways 4. The regular supply of raw materials Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)2, 3 and 4 only
- (c)1 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Coal and iron reserves, steam power, railways, and steady raw material supply from colonies all combined to drive England’s Industrial Revolution. View this question →
Economy
Which of the following indicators have been used by the World Economic Forum to calculate Global Competitiveness Index for 2016-17? 1. Efficiency enhancer subindex 2. Innovation and sophistication factors subindex 3. Life expectancy enhancer subindex Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)1 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
The WEF’s Global Competitiveness Index uses basic requirements, efficiency enhancers, and innovation/sophistication factors as its three subindices; there is no ‘life expectancy enhancer’ subindex. View this question →
Economy
In India, the base year of the new GDP series has been shifted from 2004-05 to
- (a)2007-08
- (b)2008-09
- (c)2010-11
- (d)2011-12
Answer: (d) 2011-12
India’s GDP series was rebased from 2004-05 to 2011-12 as the new reference year. View this question →
Economy
Match List-I (Type of Deficit) with List-II (Explanation): A. Fiscal Deficit B. Revenue Deficit C. Effective Revenue Deficit D. Primary Deficit 1. Total Expenditure – Revenue Receipts & Non-debt Capital Receipts 2. Revenue Expenditure – Revenue Receipts 3. Revenue Deficit – Grants for Creation of Capital Assets 4. Fiscal Deficit – Interest Payments Code:
- (a)A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4
- (b)A-1 B-3 C-2 D-4
- (c)A-4 B-2 C-3 D-1
- (d)A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1
Answer: (a) A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4
Fiscal Deficit = Total Expenditure minus Revenue Receipts and Non-debt Capital Receipts. Revenue Deficit = Revenue Expenditure minus Revenue Receipts. Effective Revenue Deficit = Revenue Deficit minus Grants for Creation of Capital Assets. Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit minus Interest Payments.
Related: IndEco0023 — Budget Objectives, Types and Federal Budgeting
History & Culture
Consider the following: 1. Tughlaqabad Fort 2. Bada Gumbad in Lodhi Garden 3. Qutub Minar 4. Fatehpur Sikri Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of building the above monuments?
- (a)3, 1, 4, 2
- (b)3, 1, 2, 4
- (c)1, 3, 2, 4
- (d)1, 3, 4, 2
Answer: (b) 3, 1, 2, 4
Qutub Minar was begun in 1199 CE. Tughlaqabad Fort followed in 1321 CE, built by Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq.
Bada Gumbad in Lodhi Garden came later, around 1490 CE, under the Lodi dynasty. Fatehpur Sikri, built by Akbar, came last, between 1571 and 1585 CE.
Related: ArtnCulture0065 — Qutb Minar
Related: MedHist0005 — The Tughlaq Dynasty · MedHist0026 — Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
History & Culture
With regard to nature of Mughal State, who among the following scholars argued that "the peculiar feature of the State in Mughal India was that it served not merely as the protective arm of the exploiting classes, but was itself the principal instrument of exploitation"?
- (a)Irfan Habib
- (b)Satish Chandra
- (c)Athar Ali
- (d)J. F. Richards
Answer: (a) Irfan Habib
This view of the Mughal state as itself the primary exploiter, through its land revenue system, comes from his influential ‘Agrarian System of Mughal India’. View this question →
History & Culture
Match List-I (Type of Land) with List-II (Meaning): A. Urvara B. Maru C. Nadimatrika D. Devamatrika 1. Land watered by a river 2. Fertile land 3. Land watered by rain 4. Desert land Code:
- (a)A-2 B-1 C-4 D-3
- (b)A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2
- (c)A-3 B-1 C-4 D-2
- (d)A-2 B-4 C-1 D-3
Answer: (d) A-2 B-4 C-1 D-3
Urvara means fertile land, Maru means desert land, Nadimatrika is land watered by a river, and Devamatrika is rain-fed land. View this question →
History & Culture
Who was the editor of the journal Indian Social Reformer that was started in 1890?
- (a)K. T. Telang
- (b)Veeresalingam
- (c)N. G. Chandavarkar
- (d)K. N. Natarajan
Answer: (d) K. N. Natarajan
He became the long-serving editor most closely associated with the Indian Social Reformer, a key voice for social reform in colonial India. View this question →
Geography
Match List-I (Industrial Region) with List-II (Country): A. Leipzig B. Detroit C. Lorraine D. Cumberland 1. USA 2. UK 3. France 4. Germany Code:
- (a)A-2 B-1 C-3 D-4
- (b)A-4 B-3 C-1 D-2
- (c)A-4 B-1 C-3 D-2
- (d)A-2 B-3 C-1 D-4
Answer: (c) A-4 B-1 C-3 D-2
Leipzig is in Germany, Detroit in the USA, Lorraine in France, and Cumberland in the UK. View this question →
Geography
[NOTE: This question includes a map of India with 4 numbered locations (①②③④) marking mountain range positions on the western/northwestern part of the country, needed as an image for full accuracy — flagging per README guidance.] Match List-I (Mountain Range) with List-II (Location in Map): A. Satpura B. Vindhya C. Aravalli D. Mahadeo Code:
- (a)A-4 B-2 C-1 D-3
- (b)A-3 B-1 C-2 D-4
- (c)A-3 B-2 C-1 D-4
- (d)A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3
Answer: (c) A-3 B-2 C-1 D-4
Satpura stretches across Maharashtra/Madhya Pradesh; Vindhya runs across Madhya Pradesh to the Ganga valley; Aravalli runs through Rajasthan; Mahadeo sits in the northern part of the Satpura range, in southern Madhya Pradesh.
Geography
Which of the following statements in respect to the Indian Peninsular Plateau are correct? 1. The Deccan Plateau gradually rises from North to South. 2. The Malwa Plateau dominates the Vindhyan scarps, forming the Eastern flank of the plateau. 3. The Western Satpuras separate the Narmada and Tapi rivers. 4. The Chota Nagpur Plateau is composed of Archaean granite and gneiss rocks. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1, 2, 3 and 4
- (b)1, 3 and 4 only
- (c)2 and 4 only
- (d)1 and 3 only
Answer: (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct: the Deccan Plateau rises from north to south, the Western Satpuras separate the Narmada and Tapi, and the Chota Nagpur Plateau is built on Archaean granite-gneiss. Statement 2 is false — the Malwa Plateau lies to the north of the Vindhyan range with a general northward slope, not as an “eastern flank” of the peninsular plateau. Related: IndGeo0003 — Vindhyan Rock System. Also related: IndGeo0007 — Physiography of India · IndGeo0015 — Red and Yellow Soil of India · IndGeo0026 — The Deccan Plateau · IndGeo0029 — The Satpura Range · IndGeo0030 — The Vindhya Range · IndGeo0035 — The Chota Nagpur Plateau. Source: Wikipedia, Central Highlands (India).
Polity & Governance
Which one of the following criteria got the highest weight for determination of shares of States in the formula given by the 14th Finance Commission?
- (a)Population
- (b)Income distance
- (c)Area
- (d)Tax effort
Answer: (b) Income distance
The 14th Finance Commission gave it the highest weight, 50%, in determining how tax proceeds are shared among states. View this question →
Polity & Governance
A Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha can be held up by the Rajya Sabha for how many weeks?
- (a)Two
- (b)Three
- (c)Four
- (d)Five
Answer: (a) Two
If the Rajya Sabha does not return a Money Bill within 14 days, it is deemed passed by both Houses. View this question →
Polity & Governance
Constitutional safeguards available to Civil Servants are ensured by
- (a)Article 310
- (b)Article 311
- (c)Article 312
- (d)Article 317
Answer: (b) Article 311
It protects civil servants from arbitrary dismissal, removal, or reduction in rank without a proper inquiry. View this question →
Polity & Governance
A writ issued to secure the release of a person found to be detained illegally is
- (a)Mandamus
- (b)Habeas corpus
- (c)Certiorari
- (d)Prohibition
Answer: (b) Habeas corpus
This writ orders the production of a detained person before a court to determine if the detention is lawful. View this question →
Polity & Governance
Which one of the following cannot be introduced first in the Rajya Sabha?
- (a)Constitutional Amendment
- (b)CAG Report
- (c)Annual Financial Statement
- (d)Bill to alter the boundaries of any State
Answer: (c) Annual Financial Statement
As a Money Bill, it must be introduced first in the Lok Sabha, unlike the other items listed. View this question →
Polity & Governance
The National Commission for Women was created by
- (a)an amendment in the Constitution of India
- (b)a decision of the Union Cabinet
- (c)an Act passed by the Parliament
- (d)an order of the President of India
Answer: (c) an Act passed by the Parliament
The National Commission for Women Act, 1990, established this statutory body. View this question →
Polity & Governance
Who among the following was the Chief Justice of India when Public Interest Litigation (PIL) was introduced in the Indian Judicial System?
- (a)M. Hidayatullah
- (b)A. S. Anand
- (c)A. M. Ahmadi
- (d)P. N. Bhagwati
Answer: (d)
P.N. Bhagwati, together with Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer, is credited as PIL’s pioneer in India — relaxing locus standi and treating letters to judges as writ petitions. He served as Chief Justice of India from 1985 to 1986, by which point PIL was already an established tool. (Source: Wikipedia)
Related: Polity0083 — Judicial Activism in India.
History & Culture
Which twelfth century Sanskrit scholar was first responsible for the compilation of 'Nibandhas' or digests of epic and Puranic texts?
- (a)Harsha
- (b)Govindachandra
- (c)Lakshmidhara
- (d)Kalidasa
Answer: (c) Lakshmidhara
His work Krityakalpataru, compiled under the patronage of King Govindachandra of Kannauj, is regarded as the earliest major nibandha digesting Dharmashastra texts. View this question →
History & Culture
Who among the following scholars argued that "capital created underdevelopment not because it exploited the underdeveloped world, but because it did not exploit it enough"?
- (a)Bill Warren
- (b)Paul Baran
- (c)Geoffrey Kay
- (d)Lenin
Answer: (a) Bill Warren
He challenged dependency theory by arguing capitalism’s problem in the developing world was insufficient penetration, not overexploitation. View this question →
History & Culture
Which river is praised in the fifth century Tamil epic, Silappadikaram?
- (a)Cauvery
- (b)Godavari
- (c)Saraswati
- (d)Ganges
Answer: (a) Cauvery
The epic, set largely in the Chola, Pandya, and Chera lands, extols this river central to the Tamil country. View this question →
History & Culture
Which one of the following statements about the Harappan Culture is not correct?
- (a)It witnessed the first cities in the subcontinent
- (b)It marks the first use of script, written from right to left
- (c)It marks the earliest known use of iron as a medium for the art of sculpting
- (d)It marks the earliest known use of stone as a medium for the art of sculpting
Answer: (c) It marks the earliest known use of iron as a medium for the art of sculpting
The Harappan civilization was a Bronze Age culture with no iron use; its sculptors worked in stone, bronze, and terracotta instead. View this question →
History & Culture
Harshacharita has references to various presents sent by a ruler named Bhaskara to Harshavardhana. Bhaskara belonged to
- (a)Haryanka Dynasty of Magadha
- (b)Varman Dynasty of Assam
- (c)Nanda Dynasty of North India
- (d)None of the above
Answer: (b) Varman Dynasty of Assam
This Bhaskara is Bhaskaravarman of Kamarupa, a ruler in Assam and an ally of Harshavardhana.
Related: AncHist0020 — Harshavardhana and the Post-Gupta Age
Geography
Which of the following lakes is/are situated in Ladakh? 1. Tso Kar 2. Pangong Tso 3. Tsomgo 4. Tso Moriri Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 and 3
- (c)1, 2 and 4
- (d)2 and 4 only
Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 4
Tso Kar, Pangong Tso, and Tso Moriri all lie in Ladakh’s cold desert. Tsomgo (also called Changu Lake) is in Sikkim, not Ladakh, a common exam trap. · IndGeo0049 — The Cold Desert of Ladakh and Spiti
Geography
'Tuvalu' has become a point of discussion recently. Why?
- (a)Potato plant that could grow in high altitude
- (b)Place in equatorial Africa, where snow is found
- (c)New innovative technology to meet global warming
- (d)A country under threat of submergence due to ice melting and sea level rise
Answer: (d) A country under threat of submergence due to ice melting and sea level rise
Tuvalu has become a symbol of climate change’s existential risk to small island states. View this question →
Geography
Which of the following statements related to latitude are true? 1. Rainfall, temperature and vegetation vary with latitude. 2. The difference between the longest day and the shortest day increases with latitude. 3. Indira Point is located approximately at 6°45' N latitude. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)1 and 3 only
- (c)2 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
All three are true: latitude genuinely shapes climate and vegetation, day-length variation grows toward the poles, and Indira Point, India’s southernmost point, sits at roughly 6°45′ N. Related: IndGeo0060 — India’s Extreme Points
Geography
Match List-I (Lake) with List-II (Type of Lake): A. Bhimtal B. Ashtamudi C. Gohna D. Lonar 1. Lagoon 2. Landslide 3. Tectonic 4. Crater Code:
- (a)A-3 B-1 C-2 D-4
- (b)A-3 B-2 C-1 D-4
- (c)A-4 B-2 C-1 D-3
- (d)A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3
Answer: (a) A-3 B-1 C-2 D-4
Bhimtal is a tectonic lake in Uttarakhand, Ashtamudi is a Kerala backwater lagoon, Gohna Lake formed from an 1893 landslide, and Lonar is a meteor-impact crater lake in Maharashtra. Related: IndGeo0039 — Chilika Lake, another lagoon formed the same way as Ashtamudi.
Geography
Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Himalayan rivers have their origin in the snow-covered areas, hence are dry in winter season. 2. Rivers of the Peninsular Plateau have reached maturity. 3. Himalayan rivers depict all the three stages of normal cycle of erosion. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)2 only
- (b)1 and 3 only
- (c)2 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only
Statement 1 is false: Himalayan rivers are snow and glacier fed, which makes them perennial, not dry in winter — the opposite of what the statement claims. Statements 2 and 3 are correct: Peninsular rivers, running over an old, stable plateau, have reached geomorphic maturity, while Himalayan rivers show all three erosion-cycle stages, from steep young valleys to a mature old-age floodplain. Related: IndGeo0007 — Physiography of India. Source: Wikipedia, Rivers of India.
Geography
[NOTE: This question includes a map of Northeast India with 4 numbered locations (①②③④) — position ① top-right/north, ② middle-right, ③ left/west, ④ bottom-middle — needed as an image for full accuracy, flagging per README guidance.] Match List-I (States of NE India) with List-II (Location in Map): A. Tripura B. Mizoram C. Nagaland D. Manipur Code:
- (a)A-2 B-1 C-4 D-3
- (b)A-2 B-4 C-1 D-3
- (c)A-3 B-1 C-4 D-2
- (d)A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2
Answer: (d) A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2
Based on each State’s real geographic position: Tripura sits furthest west, Mizoram furthest south, Nagaland in the north-east corner, and Manipur to its south, matching the map’s marked locations.
Polity & Governance
Which one of the following statements regarding Uniform Civil Code as provided under Article 44 of the Constitution of India is not correct?
- (a)It is a Fundamental Right of every Indian citizen
- (b)The State shall endeavour to secure it for citizens throughout the territory of India
- (c)It is not enforceable by any Court
- (d)It is not enforceable by a Court yet the Constitution requires that as a principle it should be fundamental in the governance of our country
Answer: (a) It is a Fundamental Right of every Indian citizen
This statement is NOT correct. Article 44 places the Uniform Civil Code among the Directive Principles of State Policy, not the Fundamental Rights. Directive Principles are not enforceable by any court, but the Constitution still requires them to guide governance.
Related: ModHist0016 — Rajiv Gandhi and the Shah Bano Controversy · Also related: Polity0107 — Uniform Civil Code: The Uttarakhand Model
History & Culture
Which of the following was/were founded by Raja Ram Mohan Roy? 1. Atmiya Sabha 2. Brahmo Samaj 3. Prarthana Samaj 4. Arya Samaj Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1, 2 and 3
- (b)2 only
- (c)1 and 2 only
- (d)1, 3 and 4
Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only
Raja Ram Mohan Roy founded the Atmiya Sabha (1815) and the Brahmo Samaj (1828). The Prarthana Samaj (1867) was a Bombay body of reformers like R.G. Bhandarkar and M.G. Ranade, and the Arya Samaj (1875) was Swami Dayananda’s creation – neither was founded by Roy.
Related: ModHist0001 — The Age of Indian Renaissance: Dayananda Saraswati and Pandita Ramabai · ModHist0059 — Raja Ram Mohan Roy and the Brahmo Samaj · View this question →
History & Culture
Match List-I (Harappan Site) with List-II (Modern Name): A. Dholavira B. Rakhigarhi C. Bhirrana D. Bhogavo 1. Saurashtra 2. Hisar 3. Kadir Island 4. Haryana Code:
- (a)A-1 B-4 C-2 D-3
- (b)A-1 B-2 C-4 D-3
- (c)A-3 B-2 C-4 D-1
- (d)A-3 B-4 C-2 D-1
Answer: (d) A-3 B-4 C-2 D-1
Dholavira sits on Kadir Island in the Rann of Kutch, Gujarat. Rakhigarhi and Bhirrana are both in Haryana (Rakhigarhi near Hisar, Bhirrana in Fatehabad district), and Bhogavo is a river in Saurashtra, Gujarat.
Related: AncHist0004 — Harappan Civilisation: Sites and Discovery
History & Culture
Which one of the following statements about the Gupta period in Indian History is not correct?
- (a)Sanskrit language and literature, after centuries of evolution, reached what has been described as a level of classical excellence through royal patronage
- (b)The status of women was redefined. They were entitled to formal education and hence there were women teachers, philosophers and doctors. Early marriage was prohibited by law and they were given the right to property
- (c)Decentralization of administrative authority was impacted by increased grants of land and villages with fiscal and administrative immunities to priests and temples
- (d)Land grants paved the way for feudal developments and emergence of serfdom in India, resulting in the depression of the peasantry
Answer: (b) The status of women was redefined… (as described)
Historians generally see the Gupta period as a time when women’s position actually declined, with earlier marriage ages and restricted rights, not the expanded freedoms this statement describes. View this question →
Polity & Governance
Which one of the following statements about the All India Services is correct?
- (a)The All India Services may be created by an Act of the Parliament
- (b)The endorsement of the Rajya Sabha is not essential for the creation of the All India Services
- (c)The rules of recruitment to the All India Services are determined by the UPSC
- (d)The conditions of service to the All India Services may be altered by the UPSC
Answer: (a)
Article 312(1) lets Parliament create an All India Service by law. The Rajya Sabha’s two-thirds resolution is a mandatory precondition, not optional, so (b) is wrong. Recruitment rules and service conditions come from the Central Government under the All India Services Act, 1951, not the UPSC — the UPSC’s role is limited to conducting selection. (Source: Article 312, Constitution of India)
Related: Polity0095 — Services Under the Union and the States (All-India Services).
Polity & Governance
Which one of the following statements about emergency provisions under the Constitution of India is not correct?
- (a)The powers of the Union Executive extend to giving directions to the States concerning the exercise of their powers
- (b)The Union Executive can issue a provision relating to reduction of salaries of employees of the State Governments
- (c)Governors have no emergency powers like the President of India
- (d)If the Governor of a State is satisfied that a situation has arisen whereby the financial stability or credit of the State is threatened, he may declare financial emergency in the State
Answer: (d) If the Governor of a State is satisfied that a situation has arisen whereby the financial stability or credit of the State is threatened, he may declare financial emergency in the State
Under Article 360, only the President can proclaim a financial emergency; state Governors have no such power. View this question →
Sports & Current Affairs
The National Handloom Day is observed on
- (a)7th June
- (b)17th July
- (c)7th August
- (d)17th September
Answer: (c) 7th August
National Handloom Day was designated in July 2015 and first observed on 7 August 2015, chosen to commemorate the Swadeshi Movement’s launch on that date in 1905.
Related: IndEco0120 — Handloom in India: Weavers, GI Traditions, and National Handloom Day
Sports & Current Affairs
Venus, the first environmental research satellite, was launched in August 2017 by which one of the following countries?
- (a)India
- (b)Russia
- (c)China
- (d)Israel
Answer: (d) Israel
The VENuS satellite was a joint Israeli-French environmental research mission launched in August 2017. View this question →
Environment & Ecology
Which one of the following was the theme of the World Environment Day, 2017?
- (a)Green Economy: Does it include you?
- (b)Connecting People to Nature
- (c)Think, Eat, Save
- (d)Many Species, One Planet, One Future
Answer: (b) Connecting People to Nature
This was the official World Environment Day theme for 2017. View this question →
Sports & Current Affairs
The all-women expedition of Indian Navy to circumnavigate the globe on the sailing vessel, INSV Tarini, is scheduled to have four stopovers. Which one of the following is not one of them?
- (a)Fremantle
- (b)Lyttelton
- (c)Port Stanley
- (d)Durban
Answer: (d) Durban
The four stopovers of the INSV Tarini all-women circumnavigation were Fremantle, Lyttelton, Port Stanley, and Cape Town. Durban is not one of them, making it the odd one out.
Related: GK0038 – Women’s Sports in India
Economy
Why was constitutional amendment needed for introducing GST?
- (a)States were not willing to agree with the Union for introduction of GST without amendment in the Constitution
- (b)GST was to be implemented on concurrent base and Article 246 was inadequate for such a case
- (c)The Empowered Committee of Finance Ministers had recommended for constitutional amendment
- (d)The GST Council had recommended for constitutional amendment so that its power enhances
Answer: (b) GST was to be implemented on concurrent base and Article 246 was inadequate for such a case
The 101st Amendment created the necessary concurrent power for both Centre and States to tax the same transactions. View this question →
Sports & Current Affairs
Where is world's first Partition Museum inaugurated recently?
- (a)New Delhi
- (b)Lahore
- (c)Amritsar
- (d)Islamabad
Answer: (c) Amritsar
The world’s first Partition Museum was inaugurated in Amritsar, Punjab. It tells the story of the 1947 Partition.
Related: GK0036 — Punjab
Economy
The Setu Bharatam Programme of the Government of India is a programme for
- (a)building bridges across major rivers for transport of goods
- (b)building bridges for safe and seamless travel on national highways
- (c)building roads to connect coastal areas
- (d)training of highway engineers at the entry level and service level
Answer: (b) building bridges for safe and seamless travel on national highways
Setu Bharatam aims to make national highways free of railway level crossings by replacing them with bridges. View this question →
Environment & Ecology
Which one of the following statements about the Global Environment Facility Grant Agreement, signed by India in August 2017 with the World Bank for 'Ecosystems Service Improvement Project', is not correct?
- (a)The size of the project is about USD 25 million
- (b)The duration of the project is 15 years
- (c)The project will entirely be financed by the World Bank out of its GEF Trust Fund
- (d)The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change will implement the project
Answer: (b) The duration of the project is 15 years
This claim is not correct — the project actually runs for 5 years, not 15. The USD 24.64 million size, 100% GEF Trust Fund financing, and MoEF&CC as implementing ministry are all accurate.
Economy
UBI, as an alternative for subsidies in poverty alleviation, stands for
- (a)Union Basic Income
- (b)Undefined Basic Income
- (c)Unconditional Basic Income
- (d)Universal Basic Income
Answer: (d) Universal Basic Income
A proposed unconditional cash transfer to all citizens as an alternative to targeted subsidies. View this question →
Sports & Current Affairs
Which one of the following authorities has recently launched the mobile apps 'MyFASTag' and 'FASTag Partner'?
- (a)Telecom Regulatory Authority
- (b)National Highways Authority
- (c)Airports Economic Regulatory Authority
- (d)National Disaster Management Authority
Answer: (b) National Highways Authority
It launched these apps to support the FASTag electronic toll collection system. View this question →
Sports & Current Affairs
'Pragati' scholarship scheme of the Government of India is meant for
- (a)higher education of girls
- (b)technical education of girls
- (c)secondary education of girls
- (d)elementary education of girls
Answer: (b) technical education of girls
AICTE’s Pragati scheme provides scholarships to support girls pursuing technical and engineering education. View this question →
Polity & Governance
Which one of the following is not a feature of the Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana (SAGY)?
- (a)It focuses on community participation
- (b)It is to be guided by a Member of the Parliament
- (c)It aims at creating infrastructure for the village
- (d)A Village Development Plan would be prepared for every identified Gram Panchayat
Answer: (c) It aims at creating infrastructure for the village
This is not correct — SAGY is not primarily about infrastructure. It aims at holistic village development going well beyond infrastructure, guided by community participation, an MP’s involvement, and a full Village Development Plan.
Environment & Ecology
Which one of the following is not included in the National Air Quality Index?
- (a)Sulphur
- (b)Nitrogen dioxide
- (c)Lead
- (d)Methane
Answer: (d) Methane
India’s National Air Quality Index tracks pollutants like PM10, PM2.5, SO2, NO2, CO, ozone, ammonia, and lead, but not methane specifically. View this question →
Questions transcribed from the official UPSC Combined Defence Services Examination (II), 2017 question booklet (STS-K-TPT), General Knowledge paper. Hindi text omitted. Two map-based questions (82, 101) reference a visual map not reproducible as text; marked positions are described in brackets. Answer key not included.
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