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Environment and Ecology Mixed Practice — MCQs with Answers (Set 10)

A mixed set of 25 Environment and Ecology MCQs on smaller topics that have no set of their own. Each answer links to its topic Article.

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Q1. Under Section 11 of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, when can the Chief Wildlife Warden authorise the capture or killing of a protected animal?

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Answer: B

Section 11 requires an objective determination of actual danger or incurable disability, not just fear that an animal might become dangerous.

Related topics: Indian Wildlife Law: Protection Inside and Outside Reserves

Q2. Under Section 39 of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which category of wild animal is excluded from being government property?

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Answer: B

Section 39 makes many wild animals government property, but vermin under Schedule V are excluded, making “sole property of the government” an inaccurate blanket claim.

Related topics: Indian Wildlife Law: Protection Inside and Outside Reserves

Q3. With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements: 1. Wild animals are the sole property of the government. 2. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled for equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside. 3. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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Answer: B

Only statement 2 is correct — protection applies equally inside and outside reserves. Vermin under Schedule V are excluded from government ownership (statement 1), and mere apprehension is not sufficient grounds for capture or killing (statement 3).

Related topics: Indian Wildlife Law: Protection Inside and Outside Reserves

Q4. The Eurasian Spoonbill, one of the genuine birds contrasted with the Golden Mahseer in a UPSC question, is most easily identified by which feature?

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Answer: B

The Eurasian Spoonbill’s long, flat, spoon-shaped bill, swung through shallow water to catch prey, is its most distinctive identifying feature.

Related topics: Golden Mahseer: The River Fish, Not a Bird

Q5. The Golden Mahseer, sometimes called the “Tiger of the Indian Rivers,” is best described as which of the following?

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Answer: A

The Golden Mahseer is an endangered freshwater fish found in Himalayan rivers, threatened by dams, pollution, and overfishing.

Related topics: Golden Mahseer: The River Fish, Not a Bird

Q6. Which of the following is not a bird?

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Answer: C

The Golden Mahseer is a large Himalayan river fish, sometimes called the “Tiger of the Indian Rivers.” The other three are all genuine birds.

Related topics: Golden Mahseer: The River Fish, Not a Bird

Q7. Schedule VI of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 — the only schedule dedicated to plants — was added through which amendment?

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Answer: C

Schedule VI was inserted by the Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act, 1991, extending the original 1972 Act’s protection to plant species.

Related topics: Indian Wildlife Law: Protection Inside and Outside Reserves

Q8. If a particular plant species is placed under Schedule VI of The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, what is the implication?

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Answer: B

Schedule VI regulates cultivation and trade of specified plants — a licence is required, but cultivation is not banned outright.

Related topics: Indian Wildlife Law: Protection Inside and Outside Reserves

Q9. The Ceylon frogmouth, a nocturnal bird found in the Western Ghats and Sri Lanka, gets its name from which feature?

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Answer: B

The Ceylon frogmouth is named for its unusually wide mouth, not its diet, call, or colour.

Related topics: Birds of India

Q10. The Coppersmith Barbet gets its name from which trait?

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Answer: B

The Coppersmith Barbet is named for its repetitive “tuk-tuk-tuk” call, which sounds like a coppersmith hammering metal.

Related topics: Birds of India

Q11. With reference to India’s biodiversity, Ceylon frogmouth, Coppersmith barbet, Gray-chinned minivet and White-throated redstart are

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Answer: B

All four are birds — a frogmouth, a barbet, a minivet, and a redstart, spanning the Western Ghats, Himalayas, and Northeast India.

Related topics: Birds of India

Q12. A matriarch elephant’s long memory of water sources and safe routes is best described as which kind of survival advantage for her herd?

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Answer: B

The matriarch’s value comes from decades of accumulated experience with her environment, not genetics or captivity. Her herd benefits directly from her memory of resources and danger.

Related topics: Indian Elephants: Matriarchal Herds and the 22-Month Gestation

Q13. Which Indian State has the largest wild elephant population?

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Answer: C

Karnataka holds India’s largest wild elephant population, ahead of Assam and Kerala, per the Synchronized Elephant Population Estimation.

Related topics: Indian Elephants: Matriarchal Herds and the 22-Month Gestation

Q14. With reference to Indian elephants, consider the following statements: 1. The leader of an elephant group is a female. 2. The maximum gestation period can be 22 months. 3. An elephant can normally go on calving till the age of 40 years only. 4. Among the States in India, the highest elephant population is in Kerala. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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Answer: A

Elephant herds are led by a matriarch (statement 1), and gestation can run up to 22 months (statement 2), the longest of any land mammal. Cows keep calving well past 40, and Karnataka, not Kerala, has India’s largest elephant population.

Related topics: Indian Elephants: Matriarchal Herds and the 22-Month Gestation

Q15. Which of the following is classified as a “minor mineral” under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957?

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Answer: C

The correct answer is ordinary sand. Section 3(e) of the MMDR Act, 1957 classifies building stone, gravel, ordinary clay, and ordinary sand as minor minerals. Iron ore, coal, and bauxite are major minerals, regulated mainly by the Central Government.

Related topics: Minor Minerals: Who Regulates Sand, Gravel, and Stone Mining

Q16. Under Section 15 of the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957, which power do State Governments hold with respect to minor minerals?

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Answer: B

The correct answer is that State Governments hold both powers. Under Section 15 of the MMDR Act, 1957, States frame the rules for granting quarry leases, mining leases and other concessions for minor minerals, and they grant the leases. Rules to prevent illegal mining sit separately in Section 23C. Major minerals like coal and iron ore are regulated mainly by the Centre.

Related topics: Minor Minerals: Who Regulates Sand, Gravel, and Stone Mining

Q17. The Anupam Verma Committee’s recommendations led India to ban 18 hazardous pesticides in 2018. Which of these four pesticides was among those 18?

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Answer: A

The correct answer is triazophos. The 2018 order banned 18 pesticides, and triazophos was among those with a full ban from December 2020. Carbofuran was left out of that list, and a 2023 order later banned all but one formulation. Methyl parathion and phorate were also not part of the 2018 list.

Related topics: Carbofuran, Methyl Parathion, Phorate, and Triazophos

Q18. With reference to the management of minor minerals in India, consider the following statements: 1. Sand is a “minor mineral” according to the prevailing law in the country. 2. State Governments have the power to grant mining leases of minor minerals, but the powers regarding the formation of rules related to the grant of minor minerals lie with the Central Government. 3. State Governments have the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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Answer: A

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only. Sand is a minor mineral under Section 3(e) of the MMDR Act, 1957 (statement 1, true). State Governments frame rules to prevent illegal mining, transport and storage of minerals under Section 23C (statement 3, true). Statement 2 is false: under Section 15, the State Governments make the rules for granting minor-mineral leases, so the rule-making power does not lie with the Centre.

Related topics: Minor Minerals: Who Regulates Sand, Gravel, and Stone Mining

Q19. Methyl parathion and phorate, two organophosphate pesticides now banned in India, fall under which World Health Organization hazard class?

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Answer: C

The correct answer is Class Ia, the WHO’s most severe hazard tier. Methyl parathion and phorate are organophosphates rated extremely hazardous, meaning even small doses can be fatal. Carbofuran and triazophos sit one notch lower, in Class Ib (highly hazardous).

Related topics: Carbofuran, Methyl Parathion, Phorate, and Triazophos

Q20. In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehension. These chemicals are used as

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Answer: B

The correct answer is pesticides in agriculture. Carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate, and triazophos are all crop-protection chemicals used to kill insects and pests on Indian farms, not food preservatives or cosmetic ingredients.

Related topics: Carbofuran, Methyl Parathion, Phorate, and Triazophos

Q21. Why are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy night?

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Answer: B

Clouds reflect and re-radiate the Earth’s outgoing heat back down to the surface, so the ground stays warmer than on a clear night. Since the surface never cools enough to reach the dew point, water vapour cannot condense into dew. [UPSC CSP 2019]

Related topics: Why Dew Does Not Form on a Cloudy Night

Q22. On a very cold, clear night, water vapour sometimes deposits directly as ice crystals on grass instead of forming liquid dew. What is this called?

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Answer: C

When the surface cools below freezing point, water vapour turns directly into ice instead of liquid water. This is frost, also called hoar frost, and it forms by the same radiative cooling process as dew.

Related topics: Why Dew Does Not Form on a Cloudy Night

Q23. What is the “dew point” of the air?

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Answer: A

The dew point is the temperature at which air holds all the water vapour it can. Below this temperature, extra vapour condenses into liquid dew.

Related topics: Why Dew Does Not Form on a Cloudy Night

Q24. Which of these four states has the largest forest cover by absolute area in India, even though its forest-cover percentage of its own territory is lower than Chhattisgarh’s or Odisha’s?

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Answer: A

Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest cover by absolute area of any Indian state. But its huge total territory keeps its forest-cover percentage lower than Chhattisgarh or Odisha.

Related topics: Forest Cover in India: National Rankings, ISFR 2023

Q25. Among Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Odisha, which state has the highest percentage of forest cover relative to its own total geographical area?

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Answer: D

Chhattisgarh has the highest share, about 41 percent of its own area under forest cover. It ranks first among these four states on this measure.

Related topics: Forest Cover in India: National Rankings, ISFR 2023

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