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Indian Polity and Constitution Mixed Practice — MCQs with Answers (Set 14)

A mixed set of 25 Indian Polity and Constitution MCQs on smaller topics that have no set of their own. Each answer links to its topic Article.

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Q1. Consider the following statements: 1. The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable sanitation and is funded by the Government of India and the World Health Organization. 2. The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an apex body of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs in Government of India and provides innovative solutions to address the challenges of Urban India.

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Answer: D

The correct answer is Neither 1 nor 2, per the official UPSC key. The India Sanitation Coalition is a multi-stakeholder platform (NGOs, corporates, foundations, FICCI secretariat), not Government-of-India-and-WHO-funded — Statement 1 is false. NIUA is usually described as an autonomous think-tank under MoHUA, not strictly its “apex body” — Statement 2 was also marked false in the official key.

Related topics: India Sanitation Coalition and the National Institute of Urban Affairs

Q2. With reference to the funds under Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS), which of the following statements are correct? 1. MPLADS funds must be used to create durable assets like physical infrastructure for health, education, etc. 2. A specified portion of each MP’s fund must benefit SC/ST populations. 3. MPLADS funds are sanctioned on yearly basis and the unused funds cannot be carried forward to the next year. 4. The district authority must inspect at least 10% of all works under implementation every year.

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Answer: D

The correct answer is (d) 1, 2 and 4 only. Statement 3 is false — MPLADS funds are non-lapsable and unused funds CAN be carried forward to the next year. Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct. Read more.

Related topics: MPLADS: The MP Local Area Development Scheme

Q3. Is India’s Prime Minister directly elected by the voters of the entire country?

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Answer: B

The correct answer is no, the PM is drawn from, and answerable to, Parliament. Direct popular election of the executive is a presidential-system feature, not a parliamentary one.

Related topics: Parliamentary Form of Government: Theory and Comparative Models

Q4. India’s parliamentary system traces its origins most directly to which country’s model of government?

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Answer: C

The correct answer is Britain (the Westminster system). India adopted and adapted this model after independence.

Related topics: Parliamentary Form of Government: Theory and Comparative Models

Q5. Which feature is characteristic of a presidential system rather than a parliamentary one?

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Answer: C

The correct answer is the executive is directly elected by the people for a fixed term. This describes a presidential system, not a parliamentary one.

Related topics: Parliamentary Form of Government: Theory and Comparative Models

Q6. A Parliamentary System of Government is one in which

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Answer: B

The correct answer is the Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it. This accountability test, not party representation or direct popular election, is what defines a parliamentary system.

Related topics: Parliamentary Form of Government: Theory and Comparative Models

Q7. Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgements that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of administration. Statement-II: Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term ‘efficiency of administration’.

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Answer: C

The correct answer is (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect. The Supreme Court genuinely has limited Article 16(4) reservations via Article 335’s efficiency language. But Article 335’s own text never defines the term “efficiency of administration” — it only requires reservation claims be considered consistently with it. Read more.

Related topics: Revisiting the 50% Cap on Reservation

Q8. With reference to ‘Scheduled Areas’ in India, consider the following statements: 1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President. 2. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block. 3. The Chief Ministers of the concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States.

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Answer: B

The correct answer is (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong on two counts: it’s the Governor, not the Chief Minister, who reports, and the report goes to the President, not the Union Home Ministry. Read more.

Related topics: The Fifth Schedule of the Indian Constitution

Q9. Celebratory gunfire that can endanger the personal safety of others is an offence under which law?

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Answer: C

The correct answer is the Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019. It punishes rash or negligent celebratory gunfire that endangers life. The penalty is up to two years, or a fine up to Rs 1 lakh, or both. Memory hook: gunfire means Arms Act.

Related topics: Home Guards and the Official Secrets Act: Auxiliary Forces and Enforcement

Q10. What is the primary purpose of the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions raised in some States?

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Answer: B

The correct answer is preventing infiltration along borders and coasts. These units help the Border Security Force. They are raised in border States only. Memory hook: Border Wing means infiltration.

Related topics: Home Guards and the Official Secrets Act: Auxiliary Forces and Enforcement

Q11. Under whose Act and Rules are India’s Home Guards actually raised?

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Answer: B

The correct answer is each State or Union Territory’s own Home Guards Act. Policing is a State subject. The Pondicherry force, for example, runs under its own 1965 Act and 1966 Rules. Memory hook: no single Central Act.

Related topics: Home Guards and the Official Secrets Act: Auxiliary Forces and Enforcement

Q12. With reference to India, consider the following pairs — Action / The Act under which it is covered: 1. Unauthorized wearing of police or military uniforms — The Official Secrets Act, 1923. 2. Knowingly misleading or otherwise interfering with a police officer or military officer when engaged in their duties — The Indian Evidence Act, 1872. 3. Celebratory gunfire which can endanger the personal safety of others — The Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019.

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Answer: B

The correct answer is Only two. Pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched. Pair 2 is wrong — interfering with an on-duty police or military officer also falls under the Official Secrets Act, 1923 (Section 7), not the Indian Evidence Act.

Related topics: Home Guards and the Official Secrets Act: Auxiliary Forces and Enforcement

Q13. With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: 1. Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. 2. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in maintenance of internal security. 3. To prevent infiltration on the international border/coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States.

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Answer: B

The correct answer is Only two. Home Guards are raised under each State’s own Act, not a Central one — Statement 1 is false. Statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Related topics: Home Guards and the Official Secrets Act: Auxiliary Forces and Enforcement

Q14. Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement?

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Answer: C

The correct answer is Article 21 and the freedoms in Part III. Privacy is an intrinsic part of life and personal liberty. It is read with the other Fundamental Rights. Memory hook: life and liberty hold privacy.

Related topics: Right to Privacy and the Puttaswamy Judgment

Q15. Which Article gives India’s own version of the Rule of Law its main constitutional anchor?

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Answer: A

The correct answer is Article 14. Its equality-before-law guarantee anchors India’s Rule of Law, backed by judicial review and an independent judiciary.

Related topics: Rule of Law: Concept, Index, and Features

Q16. Which legal theorist is most associated with the classic formulation of the Rule of Law doctrine?

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Answer: B

The correct answer is A.V. Dicey. His three elements — supremacy of law, equality before law, and a constitution shaped by ordinary courts — remain the classic reference point.

Related topics: Rule of Law: Concept, Index, and Features

Q17. Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the ‘Rule of Law’? 1. Limitation of powers 2. Equality before law 3. People’s responsibility to the Government 4. Liberty and civil rights

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Answer: C

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 4 only. Dicey’s classic formulation covers limitation of powers, equality before law, and liberty/civil rights. “People’s responsibility to the Government” inverts the concept — the Rule of Law is about government’s accountability to law.

Related topics: Rule of Law: Concept, Index, and Features

Q18. Which one of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and liberty?

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Answer: B

The correct answer is if there are no laws, there is no liberty. This echoes John Locke’s formulation — liberty needs law to protect it from others’ restraint and violence; more laws don’t automatically mean less liberty.

Related topics: Rule of Law: Concept, Index, and Features

Q19. ‘Rule of Law Index’ is released by which of the following?

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Answer: D

The correct answer is World Justice Project. WJP publishes the Rule of Law Index annually, ranking countries on factors like limits on government power and absence of corruption.

Related topics: Rule of Law: Concept, Index, and Features

Q20. Consider the following statements: 1. The Chief Secretary in a State is appointed by the Governor of that State. 2. The Chief Secretary in a State has a fixed tenure.

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Answer: D

The answer is (d), neither 1 nor 2. UPSC’s key treats statement 1 as incorrect. The Second ARC found tenure uncertain and proposed two years.

Related topics: The IAS Cadre System

Q21. The Central Deputation Reserve of a cadre can be at most what share of its senior duty posts?

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Answer: C

The IAS (Fixation of Cadre Strength) Regulations, 1955 allow a reserve of up to 40 per cent of senior duty posts. It is a ceiling, not a fixed share.

Related topics: The IAS Cadre System

Q22. Under the 2026 cadre allocation order, vacancies are worked out from the cadre gap on which date?

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Answer: B

The order counts the cadre gap on 1 January of the year after the examination year. States then send their requirements by 31 January.

Related topics: The IAS Cadre System

Q23. The Government of India has established NITI Aayog to replace the

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Answer: D

The correct answer is (d) Planning Commission. NITI Aayog replaced the Planning Commission on 1 January 2015, taking on a different advisory role rather than the old resource-allocation function. Read more.

Related topics: NITI Aayog: Founding, Structure, and Mandate

Q24. Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government:

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Answer: C

The correct answer is (c) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people.. The Cabinet system’s core principle is collective responsibility: the Cabinet as a whole answers to Parliament and, through it, to the people — not minimizing criticism, speeding up administration, or shoring up one leader’s declining hold on power. Read more.

Related topics: The Executive: PMO, Cabinet and Central Secretariat

Q25. What is the purpose of ‘Vidyanjali Yojana’? 1. To enable the famous foreign educational institutions to open their campuses in India. 2. To increase the quality of education provided in government schools by taking help from the private sector and the community. 3. To encourage voluntary monetary contributions from private individuals and organizations so as to improve the infrastructure facilities for primary and secondary schools.

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Answer: A

The correct answer is (a) 2 only, as per the official UPSC answer key (CSP 2017, Series A). Vidyanjali improves the quality of education in government schools with help from the private sector and the community. Statement 3 is wrong: Vidyanjali seeks volunteer services and material contributions, not monetary donations. Statement 1, about foreign institutions opening campuses in India, has nothing to do with Vidyanjali. Read more.

Related topics: Vidyanjali: Community and Private-Sector Participation in School Education

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