A mixed set of 25 Indian Polity and Constitution MCQs on smaller topics that have no set of their own. Each answer links to its topic Article.
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Q1. What is the main purpose of a Civil Services Board?
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Answer: B
The correct answer is to recommend transfers and postings for senior civil servants, insulating them from arbitrary interference.
Related topics: The Civil Services Board
Q2. Who is the ex-officio Chairman of the Union Civil Services Board?
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Answer: B
The correct answer is the Cabinet Secretary. UPSC has directly tested the false claim that the Prime Minister holds this post.
Related topics: The Civil Services Board
Q3. Under which Article of the Constitution is all executive action of the Government of India formally taken in the name of the President?
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Answer: C
The correct answer is Article 77. It requires that all executive action of the Government of India be expressed to be taken in the name of the President.
Related topics: Article 53: Executive Power of the Union
Q4. In Indian polity, which term correctly describes the President’s position as executive head, compared to the Prime Minister’s?
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Answer: B
The correct answer is the President is the de jure (nominal) head; the PM is the de facto (real) head. This is the standard formal-vs-real distinction tested by UPSC.
Related topics: Article 53: Executive Power of the Union
Q5. Under which Article must the President act on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers?
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Answer: C
The correct answer is Article 74. It requires the President to act on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, headed by the Prime Minister.
Related topics: Article 53: Executive Power of the Union
Q6. Which Article of the Constitution vests the executive power of the Union in the President of India?
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Answer: A
The correct answer is Article 53. Article 53(1) vests the executive power of the Union in the President.
Related topics: Article 53: Executive Power of the Union
Q7. In a Fifth Schedule state’s Tribes Advisory Council, what fraction of the members must be Scheduled Tribe members of the state legislative assembly?
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Answer: C
The Tribes Advisory Council can have up to 20 members, of whom at least three-fourths must be Scheduled Tribe MLAs of that state. It advises the Governor on matters affecting Scheduled Tribe welfare.
Related topics: The Fifth Schedule of the Indian Constitution
Q8. Who has the constitutional authority to declare which areas within a state are ‘Scheduled Areas’ under the Fifth Schedule?
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Answer: D
Under paragraph 6 of the Fifth Schedule, the President declares an area to be a Scheduled Area, and can later alter or de-notify it — but always after consulting the Governor of the state concerned.
Related topics: The Fifth Schedule of the Indian Constitution
Q9. Which Article of the Constitution brings the Fifth Schedule into force?
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Answer: B
Article 244(1) applies the Fifth Schedule to the administration of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in any state other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram (which fall under the Sixth Schedule instead).
Related topics: Article 244 of the Constitution
Q10. Consider the following statements: 1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed. 2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves. 3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt. 4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: B
The correct answer is (b) 1, 2 and 4. The H.N. Sanyal Committee’s report did lead to the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971. The Constitution (Articles 129 and 215) does empower the Supreme Court and High Courts, as Courts of Record, to punish contempt of themselves. Parliament does hold law-making power over contempt of court. All three are true. But it is the 1971 Act, not the Constitution itself, that defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt — Statement 3 is false. Read more.
Related topics: Contempt of Court: Law and Debates
Q11. With reference to Indian judiciary, consider the following statements: 1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with prior permission of the President of India. 2. A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: A
The correct answer is (a) 1 only. Article 128 lets the CJI recall a retired Supreme Court judge, with the President’s prior consent — Statement 1 is true. The Supreme Court’s review power comes from an explicit constitutional provision, Article 137. High Courts have no equivalent explicit constitutional review power — Statement 2 is false. Read more.
Related topics: Judges of the Supreme Court of India
Q12. How many sitting Supreme Court judges of India have ever actually been removed through the impeachment process?
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Answer: D
The correct answer is none. No sitting Supreme Court judge in India has ever been removed through this process, though motions have been attempted.
Related topics: The Judge Impeachment Process: Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968
Q13. If a motion to impeach a Supreme Court judge is taken up for voting in a House of Parliament, what majority does it need in that House?
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Answer: B
The correct answer is a majority of total membership of that House, and not less than two-thirds of members present and voting. This special majority is required in each House separately.
Related topics: The Judge Impeachment Process: Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968
Q14. A three-member committee investigates charges against a Supreme Court judge once a removal motion is admitted. Who sits on this committee?
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Answer: B
The correct answer is a Supreme Court or High Court judge, a Chief Justice of a High Court, and a distinguished jurist. Only if this committee finds the judge guilty does the motion proceed toward a vote.
Related topics: The Judge Impeachment Process: Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968
Q15. Under which Article of the Constitution can a Supreme Court judge be removed only on grounds of ‘proved misbehaviour or incapacity’?
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Answer: B
The correct answer is Article 124(4). The Constitution sets this ground for removal but does not define the terms — that detail is left to the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
Related topics: The Judge Impeachment Process: Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968
Q16. Consider the following statements: 1. The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968. 2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India. 3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968. 4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: C
The correct answer is 3 and 4 only. The Speaker CAN refuse to admit a removal motion under the 1968 Act — Statement 1 is false. The Constitution does not define “misbehaviour” or “incapacity” — Statement 2 is false. This was asked in UPSC CSP 2019, Q46.
Related topics: The Judge Impeachment Process: Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968
Q17. Consider the following statements: 1. The Legislative Council of a State in India can be larger in size than half of the Legislative Assembly of that particular State. 2. The Governor of a State nominates the Chairman of Legislative Council of that particular State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: D
The correct answer is (d) Neither 1 nor 2. Article 171 caps a Legislative Council’s size at one-third of the Legislative Assembly’s membership, not half or more — Statement 1 is false. The Council elects its own Chairman from among its members; the Governor does not nominate the Chairman — Statement 2 is false. Read more.
Related topics: State Legislatures and Special Governance Arrangements
Q18. The provisions in Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to
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Answer: A
The correct answer is (a) protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes. The Fifth Schedule governs the administration of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in most States, and the Sixth Schedule provides for autonomous tribal administration in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. Both exist specifically to protect Scheduled Tribes’ interests. Read more.
Related topics: Special Provisions for Minorities, SC and ST
Q19. Consider the following minerals: 1. Bentonite 2. Chromite 3. Kyanite 4. Sillimanite. In India, which of the above is/are officially designated as major minerals?
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Answer: D
Chromite, Kyanite, and Sillimanite are all officially designated major minerals in India. Bentonite, by contrast, is classified as a minor mineral, regulated by state governments.
Related topics: Minor Minerals: Who Regulates Sand, Gravel, and Stone Mining
Q20. In India, which one of the following compiles information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments and lay-offs in factories employing workers?
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Answer: C
The Labour Bureau compiles this information. This is UPSC Prelims 2022, Question 71, and the official key gives Labour Bureau. It publishes data on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments and lay-offs. The Central Statistics Office is the trap option.
Related topics: Industrial Dispute Conciliation Machinery in India
Q21. Consider the following statements: As per the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018 1. if rules for fixed-term employment are implemented, it becomes easier for the firms/companies to lay off workers 2. no notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary workman. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: B
Both statements are correct. This is UPSC Prelims 2019, Question 60, and the official key gives Both 1 and 2. The final notification of 16 March 2018, G.S.R. 235(E), extended fixed-term employment to all sectors. The Indian Express noted that this makes it easier for companies to lay off workers. A fixed-term job ends on expiry with no notice. Separately, the rules say no notice of termination is needed for a temporary workman. The earlier G.S.R. 17(E) of 8 January 2018 was only a draft.
Related topics: Industrial Dispute Conciliation Machinery in India
Q22. Consider the following statements: 1. In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by Reserve Bank of India. 2. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. 3. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Answer: B
The correct answer is 2 and 3 only. Credit rating agencies in India are regulated by SEBI, under the SEBI (Credit Rating Agencies) Regulations, 1999 — not by RBI, so Statement 1 is wrong. ICRA Limited is a public limited company listed on the stock exchanges, making Statement 2 correct. Brickwork Ratings is a SEBI-registered Indian credit rating agency, making Statement 3 correct too.
Related topics: SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India)
Q23. Consider the following organizations/bodies in India. How many of the above are constitutional bodies? 1. The National Commission for Backward Classes 2. The National Human Rights Commission 3. The National Law Commission 4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission
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Answer: A
Only the National Commission for Backward Classes is constitutional (Article 338B, added by the 102nd Amendment, 2018). The NHRC is statutory (Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993), the Law Commission is a non-statutory advisory body, and the NCDRC is statutory (Consumer Protection Act) — so only one of the four is a constitutional body.
Related topics: Statutory Bodies for Rights and Welfare
Q24. In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights?
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Answer: A
The 1st Amendment (1951), effective 18 June 1951, added the Ninth Schedule and Article 31B to shield laws like zamindari-abolition land reforms — which courts had struck down as violating Fundamental Rights — from further judicial challenge.
Related topics: Article 31A of the Constitution
Q25. What is the central shift in focus that the Model Prisons Act, 2023, proposes for Indian prisons?
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Answer: B
The Model Act shifts the stated goal from custody and punishment toward reformation and rehabilitation of inmates.
Related topics: Prison Administration in India