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Indian Polity and Constitution Mixed Practice — MCQs with Answers (Set 11)

A mixed set of 25 Indian Polity and Constitution MCQs on smaller topics that have no set of their own. Each answer links to its topic Article.

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Q1. Under international law, what is the precise legal test that defines an act as ‘piracy’?

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Answer: B

Piracy under international law (and UNCLOS) requires two specific elements: the act must occur on the high seas (outside any state’s territorial waters), and it must be committed for private ends, not political or state motives. This is why the 2026 Strait of Hormuz tanker attacks, being state-linked military action, do not legally qualify as piracy, while Somali pirate attacks do.

Related topics: Sea Piracy and International Law

Q2. What is the central purpose of the Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 (PESA)?

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Answer: B

PESA, 1996, extends the Panchayati Raj system into Scheduled Areas — but with a key difference from ordinary Panchayats: it recognises the Gram Sabha’s authority over customary law, community resources, and minor forest produce, respecting tribal self-governance traditions rather than a one-size-fits-all model.

Related topics: Countering Extremism

Q3. According to standard exam framing, why do security-only operations against left-wing extremism tend to see their gains erode over time?

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Answer: C

Security operations can clear an area of armed cadres, but if schools, roads, and land grievances remain unaddressed, the same conditions that drove recruitment the first time persist — and can produce a new generation of recruits once security forces move on. Governance and development sustain gains that force alone cannot.

Related topics: Countering Extremism

Q4. Under the Fifth Schedule, what is the primary role of a state’s Tribes Advisory Council?

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Answer: B

A Tribes Advisory Council advises the state Governor on matters affecting the welfare and advancement of Scheduled Tribes — an advisory body, not a governing one. The Governor retains real administrative authority over Scheduled Areas under the Fifth Schedule.

Related topics: Countering Extremism

Q5. Special provisions for the administration of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes (outside the northeast) are contained in which Schedule of the Constitution?

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Answer: B

The Fifth Schedule governs the administration of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in most states. The Sixth Schedule is a separate, distinct mechanism for tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram — a common mix-up in exams.

Related topics: Countering Extremism

Q6. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: While the Union Government may borrow inside and outside the country within limits fixed by Parliament (Article 292), States are mandated under Article 293 to borrow only inside the country. Statement-II: The Public Debt of India includes only the internal and external liabilities of the Central Government. Which is correct?

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Answer: C

Statement-I is correct: Article 292 lets the Union borrow inside/outside India within Parliament-set limits, while Article 293 restricts State borrowing to within India. Statement-II is incorrect because India’s public debt includes not just the Central Government’s liabilities but also those of States and other components.

Related topics: Article 293: Borrowing Power of the States

Q7. The property of the Union of India shall be exempt from all taxes imposed by a State or by any authority within a State, unless Parliament by law otherwise provides. This rule is laid down in which Article of the Constitution?

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Answer: B

Article 285(1) exempts Union property from all State and local-authority taxes unless Parliament provides otherwise. It safeguards Union property (e.g. railways) from State taxation, with Clause (2) saving pre-Constitution levies.

Related topics: Article 285: Exemption of Union Property from State Taxation

Q8. Which Article of the Constitution permits reservation in admissions to private educational institutions, including unaided ones, for socially and educationally backward classes, Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes?

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Answer: B

Article 15(5), added by the 93rd Amendment (2005), permits the State to make special provisions, including reservation, for SC/ST/OBC in admission to educational institutions, including private aided and unaided ones — other than minority institutions protected under Article 30(1).

Related topics: Article 15 of the Constitution

Q9. Article 21A makes which right a Fundamental Right for children aged 6-14?

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Answer: B

The answer is Right to education. Article 21A gives free and compulsory education to children aged six to fourteen. The Eighty-sixth Amendment Act, 2002 inserted it, in force from 1 April 2010. Why the others fail: health, livelihood and a clean environment were read into Article 21 by the Court. They are not named in Article 21A. Memory hook: 21A is the A for Admission to school.

Related topics: Article 21: Right to Life and Personal Liberty

Q10. Which Fundamental Right cannot be suspended even during a national emergency?

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Answer: B

The answer is Article 21. Article 359 lets the President suspend the right to move court for Part III rights, except Articles 20 and 21. The words “except articles 20 and 21” came from the Forty-fourth Amendment Act, in force from 20 June 1979. Why the others fail: Articles 14, 19 and 22 are not in that exception. Memory hook: after 1979, the court door for Article 21 stays open.

Related topics: Article 21: Right to Life and Personal Liberty

Q11. The right to privacy was held to be an intrinsic part of Article 21 in which judgment?

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Answer: A

The correct answer is K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India. A nine-judge bench decided it on 24 August 2017. The case began as a challenge to Aadhaar. Memory hook: Puttaswamy means privacy.

Related topics: Right to Privacy and the Puttaswamy Judgment

Q12. In which landmark case did the Supreme Court hold that the procedure under Article 21 must be fair, just and reasonable?

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Answer: B

The answer is Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India. On 25 January 1978 a seven-judge bench held that the procedure under Article 21 must be right, just and fair. It must not be arbitrary, fanciful or oppressive. Why the others fail: Gopalan (1950) read the phrase narrowly. Kesavananda Bharati is a basic-structure case, not the source of this test. I.R. Coelho is not where the fairness test began. Memory hook: Maneka means fair procedure.

Related topics: Article 21: Right to Life and Personal Liberty

Q13. Article 21 protects a person against deprivation of life or personal liberty except according to:

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Answer: B

The answer is Procedure established by law. Article 21 says no person shall be deprived of life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law. The first draft said “due process of law”, but the Drafting Committee recommended the new wording. After Maneka Gandhi (1978), that procedure must be right, just and fair. Why the others fail: due process of law is the draft wording that was not kept. Natural justice and executive order are not the words of Article 21. Memory hook: the text says procedure, the Court made it fair.

Related topics: Article 21: Right to Life and Personal Liberty

Q14. A cut motion in Demands for Grants that proposes to reduce the demand to Re 1 is called a:

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Answer: A

A policy cut reduces the demand to Re 1 and shows disapproval of the policy behind it. A token cut reduces it by Rs 100 and airs a specific grievance. An economy cut reduces it by a stated sum for economy.

Related topics: The Union Budget: Process and Key Concepts

Q15. India’s Haj infrastructure modernisation for 2026 is best described by which three pillars?

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Answer: B

India modernised Haj infrastructure across three pillars — Digital, Medical, and Physical — letting the Ministry measure progress on each separately.

Related topics: Haj Management in India

Q16. Haj 2026 introduced a first-of-its-kind short-duration option. Approximately how long does it last?

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Answer: B

Haj 2026 introduced a short-duration Haj option lasting around 20 days, responding to demand from working professionals who cannot commit to the traditional multi-week itinerary.

Related topics: Haj Management in India

Q17. What is the primary purpose of the Haj Suvidha Smart Wristbands issued to pilgrims for Haj 2026?

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Answer: B

The Haj Suvidha Smart Wristbands help locate missing pilgrims and assist with navigation and emergency alerts — solving the problem of pilgrims getting separated in unfamiliar cities abroad.

Related topics: Haj Management in India

Q18. The Haj Committee of India, the nodal agency coordinating Haj travel, is a statutory body under which Ministry?

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Answer: B

The Haj Committee of India is a statutory body under the Ministry of Minority Affairs, set up under the Haj Committee Act, 2002.

Related topics: Haj Management in India

Q19. Which of the following is NOT a function of the Election Commission of India under Article 324?

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Answer: C

Panchayat and Municipality elections belong to State Election Commissions. Article 243K covers Panchayats and Article 243ZA covers Municipalities. The national Commission handles Parliament, State Legislatures, and the two top offices.

Related topics: Article 324: Election Commission’s Powers of Superintendence

Q20. The Election Commission of India is a permanent constitutional body. Under Article 324, its power of superintendence, direction and control covers elections to which offices?

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Answer: C

Article 324(1) covers elections to Parliament and to the Legislature of every State. It also covers elections to the offices of President and Vice-President.

Related topics: Article 324: Election Commission’s Powers of Superintendence

Q21. Article 350B, inserted alongside Article 350A, creates which constitutional office?

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Answer: A

Article 350B creates a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities, commonly known as the Commissioner for Linguistic Minorities (CLM), who investigates safeguards and reports to the President.

Related topics: Constitutional Posts: President, Governor and Special Officers

Q22. Which body is the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI), established by an Act of Parliament?

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Answer: B

TRAI is a statutory regulatory authority established by the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997, to regulate telecom services including tariffs and quality.

Related topics: TRAI (Telecom Regulatory Authority of India)

Q23. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: While the Union Government of India is mandated to borrow inside and outside the country the amount specified by Parliament under Article 292, States under Article 293 are mandated to borrow only inside the country. Statement-II: The Public Debt of India includes only the internal and external liabilities incurred by the Central Government. Which one of the following is correct?

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Answer: C

Statement-I is correct: Article 292 lets the Union borrow inside and outside India within Parliament-set limits, while Article 293 restricts State borrowing to within India. Statement-II is incorrect because India’s public debt includes not just the Central Government’s internal and external liabilities but also those of States and other components.

Related topics: Article 293: Borrowing Power of the States

Q24. Border Wing Home Guards Battalions primarily help:

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Answer: B

The correct answer is preventing infiltration along borders and coasts. These units help the Border Security Force. They are raised in border States only. Memory hook: Border Wing means infiltration.

Related topics: Home Guards and the Official Secrets Act: Auxiliary Forces and Enforcement

Q25. Celebratory gunfire endangering safety is penalised under:

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Answer: B

The correct answer is the Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019. The Lok Sabha passed the Bill on 9 December 2019. It made celebratory gunfire that endangers life an offence. Memory hook: gunfire means Arms Act.

Related topics: Home Guards and the Official Secrets Act: Auxiliary Forces and Enforcement

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