General Knowledge — Full Question Paper
A person can see near objects clearly through his eyes but cannot see distant objects clearly. The possible reason(s) for this defect could be : 1. Excessive curvature of the eye lens. 2. The eye-ball has become too small. 3. The focal length of the eye lens is too large. 4. Elongation of the eye-ball.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 and 4 only
- (c)1 and 4 only
- (d)1 and 3 only
Answer: (c) 1 and 4 only
Myopia (short-sightedness) happens when the eye lens curves too much or the eyeball grows too long. Both changes make the image form before it reaches the retina. So the true causes here are 1 and 4.
Consider a journey by a car represented by a distance-time graph in three parts A, B and C. Part A is a straight segment from the origin with moderate slope; Part B is a much steeper straight segment; Part C is a gently-sloping, nearly flat straight segment. The speed of the car in these parts is va, vb and vc, respectively. Which one of the following is correct in this case?
- (a)va < vb < vc
- (b)vb > va > vc
- (c)va = vb = vc
- (d)va > vb ; va > vc
Answer: (b) vb > va > vc
On a distance-time graph, a steeper line means a higher speed. Part B is the steepest, so it has the highest speed. Part C is nearly flat, so it has the lowest speed.
A concave mirror of radius of curvature 50 cm is used to form an image of an object kept at a distance of 25 cm from the mirror on its principal axis. What will be the position of the image from the mirror?
- (a)At infinity
- (b)At 50 cm
- (c)At 25 cm
- (d)At 75 cm
Answer: (a) At infinity
The radius of curvature is 50 cm, so the focal length is half of that, 25 cm. Placing the object exactly at the focus of a concave mirror sends the reflected rays parallel, forming the image at infinity.
If the Moon is brought closer to the Earth such that its distance from the Earth becomes half of the original distance, then the gravitational force of attraction between the Earth and the Moon would :
- (a)reduce to half of its original value
- (b)increase to two times of its original value
- (c)remain the same as the original value
- (d)increase to four times of its original value
Answer: (d) increase to four times of its original value
Gravitational force follows an inverse-square law with distance. Halving the distance multiplies the force by four, since 1/(0.5)^2 = 4.
Sonic boom is produced when a source of sound travels at a speed :
- (a)greater than the speed of sound
- (b)greater than the speed of light
- (c)lesser than the speed of sound
- (d)equal to the speed of sound
Answer: (a) greater than the speed of sound
A sonic boom happens when an object moves faster than the speed of sound. The object outruns its own sound waves, creating a shock wave heard as a boom.
Which one among the following are the correct symbols for the elements gold, tin and lead, respectively?
- (a)Ga, Sb, Pb
- (b)At, Sn, Le
- (c)Au, Sn, Pb
- (d)Au, Sb, Pb
Answer: (c) Au, Sn, Pb
Gold’s symbol comes from its Latin name Aurum, giving Au. Tin comes from Stannum, giving Sn. Lead comes from Plumbum, giving Pb.
How much percentage of carbon dioxide is present in the atmosphere of Venus and Mars?
- (a)45 – 47%
- (b)52 – 55%
- (c)74 – 77%
- (d)95 – 97%
Answer: (d) 95 – 97%
Both Venus and Mars have atmospheres dominated by carbon dioxide. Carbon dioxide makes up about 95 to 97 percent of each planet’s atmosphere.
Which among the following methods is used to separate the constituents present in a compound?
- (a)Electrochemical method
- (b)Heating method
- (c)Fractional distillation
- (d)Decomposition followed by ion exchange
Answer: (a) Electrochemical method
A compound’s elements are chemically bonded, so only a chemical method can separate them. Electrolysis, an electrochemical method, breaks compounds like water into their elements.
During white-washing of walls, slaked lime reacts slowly with carbon dioxide in air to form a thin layer of calcium carbonate on the walls. Which of the following reactions represents this correctly?
- (a)CaO (s) + CO2 (g) -> CaCO3 (s)
- (b)CaO (l) + CO2 (g) -> CaCO3 (s)
- (c)Ca(OH)2 (l) + CO2 (l) -> CaCO3 (s) + H2O (l)
- (d)Ca(OH)2 (aq) + CO2 (g) -> CaCO3 (s) + H2O (l)
Answer: (d) Ca(OH)2 (aq) + CO2 (g) -> CaCO3 (s) + H2O (l)
During white-washing, slaked lime is used as an aqueous solution or paste, so it is written as Ca(OH)2 (aq). It reacts with carbon dioxide gas from the air to form solid calcium carbonate and liquid water.
Which one of the following equations is the balanced chemical equation for the given reaction? Fe + H2O -> Fe3O4 + H2
- (a)Fe + 4H2O -> Fe3O4 + H2
- (b)3Fe + H2O -> Fe3O4 + 2H2
- (c)3Fe + 4H2O -> Fe3O4 + 4H2
- (d)3Fe + 4H2O -> Fe3O4 + H2
Answer: (c) 3Fe + 4H2O -> Fe3O4 + 4H2
Balancing the equation needs 3 iron atoms to form one Fe3O4 unit. Balancing oxygen and hydrogen then requires 4 water molecules and 4 hydrogen molecules on each side.
The term Phyllotaxy refers to the pattern of :
- (a)arrangement of leaves
- (b)branching in stem
- (c)flower formation on branch
- (d)arrangement of flowers
Answer: (a) arrangement of leaves
Phyllotaxy is the botanical term for how leaves are arranged on a plant’s stem. This arrangement helps leaves get maximum sunlight with minimum overlap.
Chromosomes are composed of DNA and :
- (a)lipids
- (b)vitamins
- (c)proteins
- (d)carbohydrates
Answer: (c) proteins
Chromosomes are made of DNA wrapped around proteins called histones. This DNA-protein combination is called chromatin.
Bacteria have an undefined nuclear region which lacks a nuclear membrane and contains only DNA without proteins. Such a region is called :
- (a)Nucleosome
- (b)Nucleus
- (c)Nucleoprotein
- (d)Nucleoid
Answer: (d) Nucleoid
Bacteria lack a true nucleus with a membrane. Their DNA lies free in the cytoplasm in a region called the nucleoid.
In a simplified diagram of a plant cell, five parts/organelles are marked from 1 to 5: label 3 points to the upper-left cell wall, labels 1 and 2 point to a coiled structure near the top of the cell (adjacent to a small circular body), label 4 points to a small circle near the centre, and label 5 points to the lower-left cell wall. Which one of the following correctly represents the above parts/organelles?
- (a)1 – cell membrane; 2 – cell wall; 3 – vacuole; 4 – endoplasmic reticulum; 5 – nucleus
- (b)1 – cell wall; 2 – cell membrane; 3 – endoplasmic reticulum; 4 – vacuole; 5 – nucleus
- (c)1 – cell wall; 2 – cell membrane; 3 – endoplasmic reticulum; 4 – nucleus; 5 – vacuole
- (d)1 – cell wall; 2 – cell membrane; 3 – vacuole; 4 – endoplasmic reticulum; 5 – nucleus
Answer: (c) 1 – cell wall; 2 – cell membrane; 3 – endoplasmic reticulum; 4 – nucleus; 5 – vacuole
In this standard plant-cell diagram, labels 1 and 2 mark the outer cell wall and inner cell membrane. Label 3 is the coiled endoplasmic reticulum, label 4 is the nucleus, and label 5 is the large vacuole.
Which one of the following is the language of the famous political treatise Amuktmalyada?
- (a)Sanskrit
- (b)Tamil
- (c)Kannada
- (d)Telugu
Answer: (d) Telugu
Amuktamalyada is a political treatise written by the Vijayanagara king Krishnadevaraya. He wrote it in Telugu.
Which one of the following statements about the Shvetambara Sect of Jainism is not correct?
- (a)It refers to monks, who wear white clothes.
- (b)It refers to monks, who migrated to the south of Vindhyas in 4th century BCE.
- (c)They recognized the existence of canonical texts including the 12 Angas.
- (d)They believed that women can also attain salvation.
Answer: (b) It refers to monks, who migrated to the south of Vindhyas in 4th century BCE.
That southward migration story belongs to the Digambara sect, led by Bhadrabahu into Karnataka after a famine in Magadha. Shvetambara monks stayed in the north, wear white clothing, accept the 12 Angas as canonical, and hold that women can attain salvation — a real difference from Digambara belief.
Where is the Vikramkhol Cave located?
- (a)Odisha
- (b)Bihar
- (c)Telangana
- (d)West Bengal
Answer: (a) Odisha
Vikramkhol Cave, known for its ancient rock inscriptions, is located in the Jharsuguda district of Odisha.
Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Levallois Technique’ : 1. It refers to making perforated Harappa pottery. 2. It refers to making prehistoric flake tools.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
The Levallois Technique is a prehistoric method for making flake stone tools, used in the Paleolithic age. It has nothing to do with Harappan pottery.
Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The Bakshali Manuscript written in the Gatha language (a refined version of old Prakrit) using the Sharada script deals with topics such as fractions, square roots, arithmetic and geometric progressions. 2. In the field of geometry, Aryabhatta described the various properties of a circle giving a very accurate value for pi (pi) correct to four decimal places at 3.1416. 3. Sharangadhara Samhita is an important text on political system of ancient India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1, 2 and 3
- (b)1 and 3 only
- (c)1 and 2 only
- (d)2 only
Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only
The Bakshali Manuscript (Sharada script, Gatha-Prakrit) and Aryabhata’s pi value of 3.1416 are both genuine. The Sharangadhara Samhita is a 14th-century Ayurvedic medical text, not a political-system text, which makes statement 3 wrong.
Which one of the following is not correct about the Indian Independence Act, 1947?
- (a)The Bill for the Indian Independence Act was introduced in Parliament on July 4 and received the Royal Assent on July 18, 1947.
- (b)Act of 1947 laid down the basic framework of the Indian Constitution.
- (c)The Act provided for the establishment of two independent Dominions to be known as India and Pakistan.
- (d)The Act empowered the Constituent Assembly of each Dominion to have unlimited power to frame and adopt any constitution.
Answer: (b) Act of 1947 laid down the basic framework of the Indian Constitution
The Indian Independence Act did not itself draft a constitution. It handed full, unlimited power to each dominion’s own Constituent Assembly to frame its own. India’s actual Constitution came from that separate Assembly process, not from this Act.
As per the Cabinet Resolution of 1st January, 2015, the NITI Aayog consists of : 1. Prime Minister of India 2. Governing Council comprising of Chief Minister of all the States and Lieutenant Governors of Union Territories 3. Rural Development Minister 4. Chief Executive Officer to be appointed by the Prime Minister
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1, 2 and 3
- (b)1, 2 and 4
- (c)1 and 2 only
- (d)3 and 4 only
Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 4
The Prime Minister chairs NITI Aayog, and its Governing Council includes all state Chief Ministers and Union Territory Lieutenant Governors. Its CEO is appointed by the Prime Minister. There is no fixed Rural Development Minister seat in the original 2015 Cabinet Resolution; ex-officio ministers are instead a flexible group of up to four, nominated by the Prime Minister. Source: NITI Aayog, original 2015 Cabinet Resolution.
Related: Polity0122 — NITI Aayog: Founding, Structure, and Mandate
The executive is given an advance grant to meet temporary and running requirements of Government of India in the beginning of the new financial year until the demands are voted by the legislature. This is known as :
- (a)Vote of Credit
- (b)Vote on Account
- (c)Appropriation Bill
- (d)Advance Account
Answer: (b) Vote on Account
A Vote on Account is an advance grant that lets the government meet routine expenses at the start of a financial year. This covers the gap until the full budget demands are voted on by the legislature.
Which of the following is/are United Nations Sustainable Development Goal(s)? 1. Decent work and economic growth 2. Peace, justice and strong institutions 3. Responsible consumption and production
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)1, 2 and 3
- (c)2 only
- (d)1 and 3 only
Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 3
Decent work and economic growth, peace and strong institutions, and responsible consumption and production are all official UN Sustainable Development Goals. So all three listed items are genuine SDGs.
Consider the following statements on ‘Fog’ : 1. Fog is simply a cloud that forms close to the ground. 2. Radiation fog is associated with radiation cooling of the land at night. 3. Advection fog forms when moisture is blown over a cold surface and is chilled by contact.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)1 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Fog is indeed a cloud that forms close to the ground. Radiation fog forms from nighttime cooling of land, and advection fog forms when moist air moves over a colder surface. All three statements are correct.
Which one of the following landforms is/are formed by wind erosion?
- (a)Cirque
- (b)Stack
- (c)Zeugen
- (d)Stack and Zeugen both
Answer: (c) Zeugen
Zeugen are mushroom-shaped rock formations carved by wind erosion in deserts. Cirques are carved by glaciers, and stacks are carved by sea/wave action, not wind.
Which one of the following crops is not cultivated under dryland farming?
- (a)Jowar
- (b)Ragi
- (c)Sugarcane
- (d)Groundnut
Answer: (c) Sugarcane
Dryland farming relies on limited rainfall and needs drought-tolerant crops. Sugarcane needs large amounts of water throughout the year, so it is grown under irrigation, not dryland farming.
Which one of the following forms of settlement develops around a lake?
- (a)Linear
- (b)Cross-shaped
- (c)Circular
- (d)Square
Answer: (c) Circular
Settlements built around a lake or pond tend to grow in a ring shape following the water body’s edge. This gives them a circular pattern.
How can resources be classified on the basis of their origin?
- (a)Biotic and abiotic
- (b)Renewable and non-renewable
- (c)Individual and community
- (d)Potential and reserve
Answer: (a) Biotic and abiotic
Resources classified by their origin are split into biotic resources, which come from living things, and abiotic resources, which come from non-living things.
Which one among the following is the highest mountain in Africa?
- (a)Atlas Mountain
- (b)Mount Kilimanjaro
- (c)Mount Kenya
- (d)Mount Elgon
Answer: (b) Mount Kilimanjaro
Mount Kilimanjaro, in Tanzania, is the highest peak in Africa at about 5,895 metres. It is taller than Mount Kenya, Mount Elgon, and the Atlas Mountains.
Which of the following action(s) by the Government would lead to contraction of money supply in the economy? 1. Purchase of Treasury Bills by the central bank from public 2. Sale of Treasury Bills by the central bank to public 3. Sale of foreign exchange by the central bank 4. Purchase of foreign exchange by the central bank
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 and 4 only
- (b)1 and 3 only
- (c)2 and 3 only
- (d)2 only
Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only
Selling Treasury Bills or foreign exchange to the public pulls money out of circulation, contracting the money supply. Purchasing Treasury Bills or foreign exchange instead injects money in, so those actions expand supply rather than contract it.
Which of the following are included in the definition of Narrow Money? 1. Currency with the public 2. Demand deposits 3. ‘Other’ deposits with Reserve Bank of India 4. Banker’s deposits with Reserve Bank of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1, 2 and 4
- (b)1 and 2 only
- (c)1, 2 and 3
- (d)3 and 4 only
Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3
Narrow Money (M1) is currency with the public, demand deposits, and ‘other’ deposits with the RBI. Bankers’ deposits with the RBI belong to Reserve Money instead, not Narrow Money.
Which of the following is/are the effects of devaluation or depreciation of currency? 1. It leads to increase in imports and decrease in exports. 2. It leads to increase in exports and decrease in imports. 3. It leads to increase in domestic inflation. 4. It leads to decrease in domestic inflation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 and 3 only
- (b)1 and 4 only
- (c)2 and 3 only
- (d)3 only
Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only
Currency depreciation makes exports cheaper for foreign buyers and imports costlier at home, so exports rise and imports fall. It also raises the cost of imported goods, feeding into higher domestic inflation.
Which one of the following taxes is not subsumed under the Goods and Services Tax in India?
- (a)Customs Duties
- (b)Central Excise Duties
- (c)Service Tax
- (d)Taxes on Petroleum and Petroleum Products
Answer: (a) Customs Duties
GST subsumed most indirect taxes like excise duty and service tax. Customs Duties on imports remained a separate tax outside the GST framework.
The following diagram shows a pendulum at five positions P, Q, R, S, T along its swing, with P and T at the two extreme (highest) ends of the arc, Q and S at symmetric intermediate positions, and R at the lowest point directly below the pivot. Which one of the following statements is true?
- (a)The pendulum has minimum potential energy at positions P and T.
- (b)The pendulum has minimum potential energy at positions Q and S.
- (c)The pendulum has minimum potential energy at position R.
- (d)The pendulum has same potential energy at all positions.
Answer: (c) The pendulum has minimum potential energy at position R.
R is the lowest point of the pendulum’s swing, its mean position. Potential energy depends on height, so it is at its minimum right there.
In which of the following media is the speed of sound the maximum?
- (a)Glass
- (b)Stainless steel
- (c)Water
- (d)Oxygen
Answer: (b) Stainless steel
Sound travels fastest through the stiffest, most tightly-bonded medium. Among the given options, stainless steel is the densest solid metal and carries sound faster than glass, water, or oxygen gas.
A charged particle moves through a magnetic field B with a velocity v. Which one of the following statements is true for the force (F) experienced by the particle?
- (a)F is maximum when v and B are parallel to each other.
- (b)F is maximum when v and B are anti-parallel to each other.
- (c)F is maximum when v and B are perpendicular to each other.
- (d)The force F is independent of the angle between v and B.
Answer: (c) F is maximum when v and B are perpendicular to each other.
The magnetic force on a moving charge is F = qvB sin(theta). This force is largest when theta is 90 degrees, meaning velocity and the magnetic field are perpendicular.
Which one of the following is the correct relation between Celsius and Fahrenheit temperature scales? (Symbols carry their usual meanings)
- (a)TF = 10/3 TC + 32
- (b)TF = 5/9 TC + 36
- (c)TF = 9/5 TC + 36
- (d)TF = 9/5 TC + 32
Answer: (d) TF = 9/5 TC + 32
This is the standard formula for converting Celsius to Fahrenheit. It scales the Celsius value by 9/5 and then adds 32.
Which one of the following statements is correct regarding the travel of a light beam from a rare to a dense medium?
- (a)A light beam travelling from a rare medium to a dense medium slows down and bends towards the normal.
- (b)A light beam travelling from a rare medium to a dense medium speeds up and bends towards the normal.
- (c)A light beam travelling from a rare medium to a dense medium slows down and bends away from the normal.
- (d)A light beam travelling from a rare medium to a dense medium speeds up and bends away from the normal.
Answer: (a) A light beam travelling from a rare medium to a dense medium slows down and bends towards the normal.
A denser medium has a higher refractive index, which slows light down. Slower light bends towards the normal, which is the standard rule of refraction.
In which one of the following cases do both physical and chemical changes take place?
- (a)Burning of candle
- (b)Freezing of water
- (c)Cooking of food
- (d)Rusting of iron
Answer: (a) Burning of candle
Melting of the wax near the flame is a physical change, since no new substance forms. The wax vapour then burning to form carbon dioxide and water is a chemical change, so both happen together.
Which one of the following statements is correct about diamond and graphite?
- (a)Diamond and graphite have similar physical and chemical properties.
- (b)Diamond is hard but graphite is smooth and slippery.
- (c)Diamond and graphite are both non-conductors of electricity.
- (d)Both diamond and graphite have similar structures.
Answer: (b) Diamond is hard but graphite is smooth and slippery.
Diamond’s rigid three-dimensional carbon structure makes it extremely hard. Graphite’s layered structure lets layers slide over each other, making it soft and slippery.
Which one among the following substances is a compound?
- (a)Sugar
- (b)Air
- (c)Milk
- (d)Tea
Answer: (a) Sugar
Sugar (sucrose) is a compound, made of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen chemically bonded together. Air, milk, and tea are all mixtures of different substances, not single compounds.
Related: GenSci0002 — Chemistry Fundamentals for Competitive Exams
What is the total number of naturally occurring elements?
- (a)114
- (b)94
- (c)86
- (d)82
Answer: (b) 94
Of the known chemical elements, about 94 occur naturally on Earth in at least trace amounts. The remaining elements beyond this are only made artificially in laboratories.
Which one of the following statements regarding acids is not correct?
- (a)Hydrochloric acid is present in the gastric juice secreted by the stomach.
- (b)Acetic acid is the main constituent of vinegar.
- (c)Oxalic acid is found in tamarind paste.
- (d)Lemon and orange juices contain citric acid and ascorbic acid respectively.
Answer: (c) Oxalic acid is found in tamarind paste.
This statement is false: tamarind’s main acid is tartaric acid, not oxalic acid. Oxalic acid actually occurs in spinach and rhubarb. Statements (a), (b), and (d) are all correct.
Related: GenSci0002 — Chemistry Fundamentals for Competitive Exams
(Source: PMC, Tamarind: A diet-based strategy against lifestyle maladies)
Which one of the following is the correct combination of organelles and their functions?
- (a)Mitochondria – Respiration; Chloroplast – Photosynthesis; Ribosome – Protein Synthesis; Rough endoplasmic reticulum – Transport of proteins
- (b)Mitochondria – Respiration; Chloroplast – Photosynthesis; Ribosome – Transport of proteins; Rough endoplasmic reticulum – Protein synthesis
- (c)Mitochondria – Respiration; Chloroplast – Protein synthesis; Ribosome – Photosynthesis; Rough endoplasmic reticulum – Transport of proteins
- (d)Mitochondria – Photosynthesis; Chloroplast – Respiration; Ribosome – Protein synthesis; Rough endoplasmic reticulum – Transport of proteins
Answer: (a) Mitochondria – Respiration; Chloroplast – Photosynthesis; Ribosome – Protein Synthesis; Rough endoplasmic reticulum – Transport of proteins
Mitochondria carry out cellular respiration, and chloroplasts carry out photosynthesis. Ribosomes make proteins, and the rough endoplasmic reticulum, studded with ribosomes, transports those proteins.
Cell wall is absent in which one of the following organisms?
- (a)Bacteria
- (b)Diatom
- (c)Mushroom
- (d)Tapeworm
Answer: (d) Tapeworm
A tapeworm is an animal, and animal cells never have a cell wall. Bacteria, diatoms, and mushrooms (fungi) all have cell walls made of different materials.
Water goes up through xylem vessels in tall trees. The process in plants and properties of water that help in upward movement are :
- (a)Respiration and cohesion
- (b)Transpiration pull, cohesion and adhesion
- (c)Root pressure, cohesion and adhesion
- (d)Transpiration and adhesion
Answer: (b) Transpiration pull, cohesion and adhesion
In tall trees, water rising through xylem is mainly driven by transpiration pull from the leaves. Cohesion between water molecules and adhesion of water to the xylem walls help maintain this continuous column.
Energy and nutrients flow from one trophic level to another in an ecosystem. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the direction of flow of energy and nutrients in an ecosystem?
- (a)Energy flow is cyclic and nutrient flow is unidirectional.
- (b)Energy flow is unidirectional and nutrient flow is cyclic.
- (c)Both energy and nutrient flow are unidirectional.
- (d)Both energy and nutrient flow are cyclic.
Answer: (b) Energy flow is unidirectional and nutrient flow is cyclic.
Energy enters an ecosystem from the sun, passes through producers and consumers, and is eventually lost as heat — it never comes back. Nutrients like carbon and nitrogen instead get recycled: decomposers break down dead matter and return the nutrients to the soil, where producers absorb them again.
Related: GenSci0005 — Ecology Fundamentals: Ecosystems and Food Chains
Which one of the following is a saprophyte?
- (a)Cuscuta
- (b)Rhizopus
- (c)Spirogyra
- (d)Grass
Answer: (b) Rhizopus
Rhizopus, common bread mould, is a saprophytic fungus that feeds on dead organic matter. Cuscuta is a parasite, while Spirogyra and grass make their own food through photosynthesis.
In ovules of Angiosperms, which one of the following is not a haploid cell?
- (a)Nucellus
- (b)Synergid
- (c)Egg
- (d)Antipodal
Answer: (a) Nucellus
The egg cell, synergids, and antipodal cells are all products of meiosis inside the embryo sac, so they are haploid. The nucellus is maternal tissue surrounding the embryo sac and remains diploid.
Arrange the following events associated with Shivaji in chronological order : 1. Attack on Afzal Khan 2. Capture of Torna 3. Attack on Shaista Khan 4. Annexation of Javli
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)2, 4, 1, 3
- (b)4, 2, 1, 3
- (c)1, 2, 3, 4
- (d)3, 1, 2, 4
Answer: (a) 2, 4, 1, 3
Shivaji captured Torna Fort in 1646, his first conquest as a teenager. He annexed Javli in 1656, killed Afzal Khan in 1659, and attacked Shaista Khan’s camp at Pune in 1663.
Source: Shivaji and His Times, Wikisource.
Related: MedHist0019 — Shivaji and the Rise of the Marathas · MedHist0042 — The Bijapur Sultanate (Adil Shahi)
Who among the following is the author of the book ‘The Indian Struggle 1920-1942’?
- (a)Vinayak Damodar Savarkar
- (b)Subhas Chandra Bose
- (c)Vallabhbhai Patel
- (d)Sarat Chandra Bose
Answer: (b) Subhas Chandra Bose
‘The Indian Struggle 1920-1942’ is a well-known book written by Subhas Chandra Bose. It covers the Indian freedom movement during that period from his own perspective.
Who among the following is not a woman Nayanar saint?
- (a)Karaikkal Ammaiyar
- (b)Mangayarkkarasiyar
- (c)Andal
- (d)Isaignaniyar
Answer: (c) Andal
Karaikkal Ammaiyar, Mangayarkkarasiyar, and Isaignaniyar are all women Nayanar saints devoted to Shiva. Andal, by contrast, is a woman Alvar saint devoted to Vishnu, not a Nayanar.
Which one of the following pairs of terms and their meanings is not correctly matched?
- (a)Nagarakkani : Land owned by the nagaram
- (b)Nattar : Male serpent deity
- (c)Yupa : Sacrificial post
- (d)Viragal : ‘Hero stone’ in the Tamil Nadu area
Answer: (b) Nattar : Male serpent deity
Nattar actually refers to the assembly or representative body of a ‘nadu’, a territorial unit in Chola-era Tamil Nadu, not a serpent deity. Nagarakkani, Yupa, and Viragal are all correctly matched with their real meanings.
Where is the famous Gupta period Deogarh Temple situated?
- (a)Uttar Pradesh
- (b)Madhya Pradesh
- (c)Chhattisgarh
- (d)Rajasthan
Answer: (a) Uttar Pradesh
The Dashavatara Temple at Deogarh sits in Lalitpur district, Uttar Pradesh, and is among India’s earliest surviving stone temples.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Nataraj bronze sculpture of Chola period : 1. Shiva is shown balancing himself on his right leg representing tirobhava. 2. Shiva is shown raising his left leg in bhujangatrasita stance, representing kicking away the illusion from the devotee’s mind. 3. The main right hand holds the damaru, Shiva’s favourite musical instrument.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)2 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 2 only
In Chola Nataraja bronzes, the raised left leg in the bhujangatrasita pose represents kicking away illusion from the devotee’s mind, so statement 2 is correct. The grounded right leg actually represents trampling the demon Apasmara (ignorance), not tirobhava, and the upper (not main/lower) right hand holds the damaru, so statements 1 and 3 are both inaccurate as worded.
Which of the following statements about ASEAN are correct? 1. The Chairmanship of ASEAN rotates annually based on the alphabetical order of the English names of Member States. 2. The Chairmanship is decided by voting among the Member States. 3. ‘One Vision, One Identity, One Community’ is the ASEAN motto. 4. 12th August is celebrated as ASEAN Day.
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)1 and 3 only
- (c)3 and 4 only
- (d)1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only
ASEAN’s chairmanship does rotate yearly by alphabetical order of member states’ English names, and its motto is indeed ‘One Vision, One Identity, One Community’. The chairmanship is decided by this rotation, not by voting, and ASEAN Day is celebrated on 8th August, not 12th August.
Consider the following statements about the Public Distribution System : 1. The Public Distribution System is operated under the joint responsibility of Centre and State/Union Territories. 2. Food Corporation of India has assumed the responsibility for procurement, storage and transportation of food grains to the State Governments. 3. Both Centre and State have the joint responsibility to identify eligible beneficiaries. 4. Some States also distribute additional items of mass consumption through the PDS outlets such as pulses, edible oil, etc.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a)2 and 3 only
- (b)1, 2 and 4
- (c)1 and 2 only
- (d)3 and 4 only
Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 4
Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct. The PDS is operated under the joint responsibility of the Centre and State/UT Governments, the Food Corporation of India handles the procurement, storage and transport of foodgrain to State Governments, and some States add extra items like pulses and edible oil. Statement 3 is wrong because identifying eligible beneficiaries is largely a State responsibility, not a joint Centre-State task.
Which of the following concepts are considered as pillars of Human Development? 1. Equity 2. Sustainability 3. Productivity 4. Security
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)3 and 4 only
- (c)1, 2 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
The recognised pillars of human development are equity, sustainability, productivity, and empowerment. Security is not one of the standard pillars, so only equity, sustainability, and productivity from this list qualify.
Which one of the following pairs of events and years is not correctly matched?
- (a)Launch of the first communications satellite : 1962
- (b)Completion of a continuous around the world fibre-optic cable link : 1997
- (c)Creation of the SWIFT system for worldwide electronic interbank fund transfer : 1977
- (d)Introduction of the World Wide Web (www) : 1995
Answer: (d) Introduction of the World Wide Web (www) : 1995
The World Wide Web was actually made publicly available in 1991, not 1995, so this pairing is incorrect. The other three pairs — the first communications satellite in 1962, the round-the-world fibre-optic cable in 1997, and SWIFT’s creation in 1977 — are all correctly matched.
Identify the type of soil on the basis of given characteristics : 1. They contain a large proportion of sodium, potassium and magnesium, and thus, they are infertile. 2. Their structure ranges from sandy to loamy. 3. They are more widespread in western Gujarat, deltas of the eastern coast and in Sunderban areas of West Bengal.
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)1, 2 and 4
- (c)2 and 4 only
- (d)3 and 4 only
Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 4 (site defect: this option appears to be a mistranscribed “1, 2 and 3” — see explanation)
All three listed statements describe saline soil correctly: it is infertile due to sodium, potassium and magnesium salts, ranges from sandy to loamy in texture, and is widespread in western Gujarat, the eastern coastal deltas, and the Sunderbans. Since all three given statements are true, but no option offers “1, 2 and 3”, this option (likely a digit mistranscribed from “3” to “4” when the page was created) is the best available match — flagging this as a pre-existing site data defect rather than a genuine four-statement question.
Which one among the following State capitals is closest to the Equator?
- (a)Hyderabad
- (b)Bhubaneswar
- (c)Panaji
- (d)Mumbai
Answer: (c) Panaji
Among these state capitals, Panaji sits at the lowest latitude, closest to the Equator. Hyderabad, Bhubaneswar, and Mumbai all lie farther north.
Which is the only country in the world to officially proclaim the Gross National Happiness (GNH) as the measure of the country’s progress?
- (a)Finland
- (b)Bhutan
- (c)Nepal
- (d)Switzerland
Answer: (b) Bhutan
Bhutan is the only country to officially adopt Gross National Happiness as its measure of national progress. It uses this alongside, and sometimes instead of, GDP.
Consider the following statements about clouds : 1. Two major forms of clouds are stratiform and cumuliform. 2. According to the altitude, clouds are classified as high clouds, middle clouds and low clouds. 3. Stratus, nimbostratus and stratocumulus are types of high clouds. 4. Clouds having nimbo attached to their name produce precipitation.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)1, 2 and 4
- (c)2 and 4 only
- (d)1, 3 and 4
Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 4
Statement 3 is false: stratus, nimbostratus and stratocumulus are low clouds, not high clouds. High clouds belong to the cirrus family instead.
Which one of the following expenditures is subtracted from Fiscal Deficit to arrive at Primary Deficit?
- (a)Defence expenditure
- (b)Expenditure on subsidies
- (c)Interest payments
- (d)Pension
Answer: (c) Interest payments
Primary Deficit equals Fiscal Deficit minus interest payments on past borrowings. This shows the deficit from the current year’s spending alone, excluding old debt costs.
The Wholesale Price Inflation has increased in India during 2021-2022 due to which of the following factors? 1. Sharp increase in international prices of crude oil 2. Decrease in economic activity post-Covid 3. Disruption of global supply chain 4. High freight cost
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)2 and 3 only
- (b)1, 3 and 4
- (c)1 and 2 only
- (d)1 and 4 only
Answer: (b) 1, 3 and 4
Wholesale inflation in 2021-2022 rose mainly due to a sharp jump in international crude oil prices, disrupted global supply chains, and high freight costs. Economic activity actually increased rather than decreased in this post-Covid recovery period, so that statement is false.
What would be the impact on the economy if people start holding more currency in hand and less in deposits?
- (a)Money demand will increase
- (b)Money multiplier will decrease
- (c)Money multiplier will increase
- (d)Money demand will decrease
Answer: (b) Money multiplier will decrease
When people hold more cash and deposit less in banks, banks have less money to lend out and re-lend. This reduces the money multiplier effect, shrinking the overall expansion of money supply.
SDG India Index, developed by NITI Aayog, includes 17 SDGs for each State. Which one of the following is not included in that index?
- (a)Zero hunger
- (b)Reduced unemployment
- (c)Life below water
- (d)Responsible consumption and production
Answer: (b) Reduced unemployment
The SDG India Index tracks all 17 official UN Sustainable Development Goals for each state. ‘Reduced unemployment’ is not one of the 17 SDGs; the real goal is ‘Decent work and economic growth’.
Other things remaining constant, the market supply for a good increases if : 1. its price increases. 2. price of its factors of production decreases. 3. price of other goods decreases.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)1 and 3 only
- (c)2 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only
Market supply increases when input costs fall, since production becomes cheaper, and when other goods become less attractive to produce, shifting resources to this good. A rise in the good’s own price increases the quantity supplied along the curve, but does not shift market supply itself.
Consider the following statements regarding poverty in India : 1. While determining poverty line in India, a minimum level of food requirement, clothing, footwear, fuel and light, educational and medical requirements, etc. are determined for subsistence. 2. The accepted average calorie requirement in India is 2400 calories per person per day in rural areas and 2100 calories per person per day in urban areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
India’s poverty line calculation does factor in minimum requirements for food, clothing, footwear, fuel, education and medical needs. Both parts of this statement reflect the standard, accepted method.
Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Shivaji sent an ambassador to Bombay to negotiate an agreement with the English. 2. His chief motive was to secure English aid against the Siddis of Danda-Rajpuri. 3. He wanted a supply of grenades, mortars and other ammunition.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 only
- (b)1 and 3 only
- (c)2 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
In September 1671, Shivaji sent an envoy, Narayan Shenvi, to Bombay to negotiate with the English, chiefly to secure their aid against the Siddis of Danda-Rajpuri, and specifically requesting grenades, mortars, and other ammunition. The English weighed the request cautiously rather than granting it outright.
Source: Shivaji and His Times, Wikisource.
The famous Hathigumpha inscription of Kharavela mentions that in the eleventh year of his reign, Kharavela destroyed a confederacy of Tamil States, ‘Tramiradesa Sanghatam’, which had long been a source of danger. How old was this confederacy of Tamil States at that time?
- (a)110 years old
- (b)111 years old
- (c)112 years old
- (d)113 years old
Answer: (d) 113 years old
Kharavela’s Hathigumpha inscription itself states the confederacy of Tamil states, likely a league including the Cheras, Cholas and Pandyas, had existed for 113 years by the time he destroyed it in his 11th regnal year.
Which of the following statements about the Vaishnava saint of Assam, Shankardeva, is/are correct? 1. His teachings are often known as the Bhagavati dharma. 2. He encouraged the establishment of satras or monasteries and namghars or prayer halls for the transmission of spiritual knowledge. 3. His major compositions include the Kirtana-ghosha.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)1, 2 and 3
- (d)3 only
Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3
Shankardeva’s teachings are indeed called Bhagavati dharma, and he established satras and namghars for spiritual learning and prayer. He is also credited with major works like the Kirtana-ghosha, making all three statements correct.
Abdur Razzaq, an ambassador of the ruler of Persia, was sent to Calicut in the fifteenth century. He was greatly impressed by the :
- (a)Fortifications of Calicut
- (b)Climatic conditions of the coastal town
- (c)High quality spices of the place
- (d)Musical traditions of the place
Answer: (a) Fortifications of Calicut
Abdur Razzaq described seven concentric lines of forts surrounding Calicut, covering the urban core, gardens, and agricultural hinterland. The innermost fort held the royal palace, an area he compared to ten times the size of Herat’s own marketplace. Related: MedHist0046 — Abdur Razzaq.
Which of the following statements about the ‘Race to Zero Campaign’ is/are correct? 1. One of the main objectives of the Race to Zero Campaign is to build momentum around the shift to a decarbonized economy. 2. It is related to the theory of Zero-Sum Game.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
The Race to Zero Campaign genuinely aims to build momentum toward a decarbonized global economy. It is a UN-led climate initiative and has no connection to the unrelated economic idea of a Zero-Sum Game.
Which of the following statements about National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) with reference to India is/are correct? 1. It emphasises that maintaining a high growth rate is essential for raising the living standards of the vast majority of the people of India and reducing their vulnerability to the impact of climate change. 2. It was released in 2014.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
NAPCC does state that maintaining high growth is essential for raising living standards and reducing climate vulnerability. It was actually launched in 2008, not 2014, so the second statement is false.
What does India’s ‘Blue growth’ refer to?
- (a)Upgradation of Indian Air Force
- (b)Discouraging farmers from using pesticides
- (c)A long-term strategy to support sustainable growth in the marine and maritime sectors
- (d)Socio-economic empowerment of India’s blue collar workers in the unorganized sector
Answer: (c) A long-term strategy to support sustainable growth in the marine and maritime sectors
India’s ‘Blue Growth’ policy is about sustainably developing marine and maritime resources like fisheries and ports. It is unrelated to the Air Force, pesticides, or industrial workers.
Which of the following statements about ‘Operation Sadbhavana’ in Ladakh is/are correct? 1. Indian Army undertakes welfare activities, such as running of Army Goodwill Schools in remote areas of Ladakh. 2. It aims at building harmonious relationships between religious communities in Ladakh.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Operation Sadbhavana genuinely runs welfare projects like Army Goodwill Schools in remote parts of Ladakh. Its stated aim is broader civic welfare and national integration, not specifically building harmony between religious communities.
Which one of the following is not a permanent member of the UN Security Council?
- (a)France
- (b)China
- (c)Japan
- (d)United Kingdom
Answer: (c) Japan
The UN Security Council has five permanent members: the United States, United Kingdom, France, Russia, and China. Japan has long sought a permanent seat but remains a non-permanent member at most.
Related: WorldHist0001 — The United Nations: Founding, Charter, and the Veto
Related: IntlRel0009 — The United Nations: Principal Organs and Related Bodies
Consider the following statements about some planets in the solar system : 1. Mercury has no atmosphere. 2. Venus has two moons. 3. There is no land on Jupiter. 4. Rings of Saturn are composed of lumps of ice and dust.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)3 and 4 only
- (c)1, 2 and 3
- (d)1, 3 and 4
Answer: (d) 1, 3 and 4
Mercury truly has virtually no atmosphere, Jupiter is a gas giant with no solid land, and Saturn’s rings are made of icy, dusty debris. Venus actually has no moons at all, so that statement is false.
Which one of the following passes is not located in Indian Himalayan region?
- (a)Zojila
- (b)Bolan
- (c)Shipkila
- (d)Lipulekh
Answer: (b) Bolan
The Bolan Pass lies in the Balochistan region of Pakistan, outside the Indian Himalayan belt. Zojila, Shipkila, and Lipulekh are all genuine passes within the Indian Himalayas.
Which one of the following set of trees does not belong to Temperate Floral Zone of Himalaya?
- (a)Cashewnut and Magnolia
- (b)Oak and Maple
- (c)Rhododendrons
- (d)Birch and Laurels
Answer: (a) Cashewnut and Magnolia
Cashewnut is a tropical lowland crop, not part of the cooler Temperate Floral Zone of the Himalaya. Oak, Maple, Rhododendrons, Birch, and Laurels are all genuine temperate Himalayan trees.
Which one of the following statements about plantation agriculture is not correct?
- (a)Plantation farm estates are scientifically managed.
- (b)Plantation farming requires heavy capital outlay.
- (c)Plantation farm lands have mainly foreign ownership and local labour.
- (d)Plantation farmers rear the animals for sale.
Answer: (c) Plantation farm lands have mainly foreign ownership and local labour.
While plantations were historically foreign-owned under colonial rule, most plantation lands in India today are under domestic or local ownership. This makes the statement about mainly ‘foreign ownership’ incorrect in the present day.
| List I | List II |
|---|---|
| A. Roca | 1. Sri Lanka |
| B. Chena | 2. Thailand |
| C. Masole | 3. Brazil |
| D. Tamarai | 4. Zaire |
Code :
| A | B | C | D | |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (a) | 2 | 4 | 1 | 3 |
| (b) | 2 | 1 | 4 | 3 |
| (c) | 3 | 4 | 1 | 2 |
| (d) | 3 | 1 | 4 | 2 |
Answer: (d) 3,1,4,2
Roca is the local name for shifting cultivation in Brazil, and Chena is the name used in Sri Lanka. Masole is practised in Zaire (now Congo), and Tamarai is the term used in Thailand, giving the sequence A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2.
Consider the following statements with reference to Paleolithic tools : 1. Isampur was a well-known center of stone tool manufacture located in Gulbarga district of Karnataka and was situated along a small seasonal stream known as Kamta Halla. 2. A Paleolithic blade is a flake tool, the length of which is more than twice its width.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Isampur, in Gulbarga district of Karnataka, was indeed a known Paleolithic stone tool workshop along the seasonal stream Kamta Halla. A Paleolithic blade is correctly defined as a flake tool whose length is more than twice its width.
Consider the following statements about science in medieval South India : 1. The Katapayadi system of numerals, which was invented by Vararuchi of Kerala, the author of Chandra Vakyas, was used for calculating the position of Moon on any day of the year. 2. Achyuta Pisharati (1550-1621) wrote Uparagakriyakrama, a text on eclipses. 3. Ravi Varma of Mahodayapuram set up an observatory and is also said to have inaugurated the Kollam era.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a)1 and 3 only
- (b)3 only
- (c)1 and 2 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only
The Katapayadi numeral system, linked to Vararuchi and used for Moon-position calculations, is a genuine fact of medieval Kerala astronomy. Achyuta Pisharati’s Uparagakriyakrama on eclipses is also real, but Ravi Varma of Mahodayapuram is not correctly credited with founding the observatory or the Kollam era as stated.
Which of the following dynasties of South India issued their documents first in Prakrit and later in Sanskrit?
- (a)The Cholas of Tamil Nadu
- (b)The Pandyas of the post-Sangam Age
- (c)The Pallavas of Tondaimandalam
- (d)The Gangas of Kalinganagara
Answer: (c) The Pallavas of Tondaimandalam
The earliest Pallava charters, from roughly the late 3rd to 4th centuries CE, were issued in Prakrit, reflecting their Satavahana-era connections. Later Pallava charters shifted to Sanskrit.
Source: The Pallavas of the Prakrit and Sanskrit charters, Wisdom Library. Related: AncHist0101 — Prakrit Languages.
Who was the author of the Gwalior Prashasti of Mihira Bhoja?
- (a)Nagabhata
- (b)Vatsaraja
- (c)Baladitya
- (d)Kakkuka
Answer: (d) Kakkuka
The Gwalior Prashasti, an inscription praising the Gurjara-Pratihara king Mihira Bhoja, was composed by Kakkuka. It is a key epigraphic source for Pratihara history.
The Sahajiya Cult, which can be traced back to 10th and 11th centuries, is usually associated with :
- (a)early Bhakti traditions
- (b)a kind of early Sufism
- (c)early Upanishadic philosophy
- (d)Buddhism
Answer: (a) early Bhakti traditions
The Sahajiya Cult, tracing back to the 10th and 11th centuries, grew out of early Bhakti devotional traditions. It emphasised a spontaneous, direct, emotional connection with the divine.
The landmark Supreme Court judgment in the case Subhash Sharma v. Union of India (1991) refers to which one of the following basic features of the Constitution of India?
- (a)Judicial Review
- (b)Rule of Law
- (c)Free and fair elections
- (d)Fundamental Rights
Answer: (a) Judicial Review
In Subhash Sharma v. Union of India (1991), the Supreme Court affirmed judicial review as one of the basic, unamendable features of the Constitution. The case arose from a plea to fill judicial vacancies.
Which of the following statements about the Panchayats in India, as per the Constitution of India is/are correct? 1. There is a provision for reservation of seats for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. 2. Panchayats are not authorised to collect taxes.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
The Constitution does reserve Panchayat seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes under Article 243D. Article 243H actually lets state legislatures authorise Panchayats to levy and collect taxes, so the claim that they cannot is false.
Which one of the following statements about Mission Indradhanush, launched by the Government of India in 2014, is correct?
- (a)It relates to provisions for Child Health Screening and Early Intervention Services.
- (b)It meets the diverse health needs of adolescents.
- (c)It aims to increase the full immunisation coverage for children.
- (d)Its objective is to achieve universal access to equitable, affordable, and quality healthcare services.
Answer: (c) It aims to increase the full immunisation coverage for children.
Mission Indradhanush, launched in 2014, is a government programme to boost full immunisation coverage among children and pregnant women. It targets areas with low vaccination rates.
Which one of the following amendments to the Constitution of India has introduced reservations in education and in public employment for people from the Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) of society?
- (a)The Constitution (101st Amendment) Act
- (b)The Constitution (102nd Amendment) Act
- (c)The Constitution (122nd Amendment) Act
- (d)The Constitution (103rd Amendment) Act
Answer: (d)
The Constitution (103rd Amendment) Act, 2019, added a 10% EWS reservation in education and public employment, ruled by the Supreme Court in 2022 to sit outside the existing 50% cap on total reservations.
Related: Polity0096 — Revisiting the 50% Cap on Reservation · Polity0166 — EWS Reservation: The 103rd Constitutional Amendment.
Which among the following Fundamental Rights is not suspended when an Emergency is declared?
- (a)Protection in respect of conviction for offences
- (b)Right to constitutional remedies
- (c)Right to move freely throughout the territory of India
- (d)Equality before law
Answer: (a) Protection in respect of conviction for offences
Article 20, covering protection in respect of conviction for offences, along with Article 21, cannot be suspended even during a National Emergency after the 44th Amendment. Rights like free movement, constitutional remedies, and equality before law can otherwise be affected.
Any question pertaining to the disqualification of a member of the Lok Sabha on the ground of defection is decided by :
- (a)The President of India
- (b)The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
- (c)The Supreme Court of India
- (d)The concerned Political Party
Answer: (b)
Under the Tenth Schedule, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha decides questions of disqualification on the ground of defection for Lok Sabha members (the Chairman does the same for the Rajya Sabha, and a Speaker/Chairman for state assemblies). That decision is final in the first instance, but it remains subject to judicial review by the High Courts and Supreme Court, per Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu (1992). (Source: Tenth Schedule, Constitution of India)
Related: Polity0090 — The Anti-Defection Law.
Which one of the following statements about Indian Maritime University (IMU) is not correct?
- (a)It was established through an Act of Parliament as a Central University.
- (b)It was established primarily to support the Indian Navy.
- (c)It is located in Chennai.
- (d)It was established to extend the benefits of knowledge and skill for development of individuals and society by associating closely with local, regional and national issues of development.
Answer: (b) It was established primarily to support the Indian Navy.
The Indian Maritime University is a civilian central university for maritime education, training people for the wider shipping and maritime industry, not primarily for the Navy. It is genuinely based in Chennai and was set up by an Act of Parliament.
| List I | List II |
|---|---|
| A. Abyssinian | 1. Africa |
| B. Patagonian | 2. Australia |
| C. Anatolian | 3. Asia |
| D. Iberian | 4. North America |
Code :
| A | B | C | D | |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (a) | 1 | 3 | 2 | 4 |
| (b) | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
| (c) | 2 | 3 | 4 | 1 |
| (d) | 2 | 1 | 4 | 3 |
Answer: (b) 1,2,3,4 (site defect: table doesn’t match the real ‘correctly matched pairs’ question — see explanation)
The real underlying question asks which plateau-continent pairs are correctly matched: Abyssinian-Africa and Anatolian-Asia are correct, while Patagonian is actually in South America (not Australia) and Iberian is in Europe (not North America), so only pairs 1 and 3 are genuinely correct. The site’s match-list table format doesn’t correspond to this real question, so this option (the literal, as-listed pairing) is given as the closest available match, flagging this as a pre-existing site data-transcription defect.
| List I | List II |
|---|---|
| A. Isonif | 1. Snowfall |
| B. Isohel | 2. Sunshine |
| C. Isohaline | 3. Salinity |
| D. Isohypse | 4. Cloudiness |
Code :
| A | B | C | D | |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (a) | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
| (b) | 2 | 3 | 4 | 1 |
| (c) | 1 | 3 | 2 | 4 |
| (d) | 1 | 2 | 4 | 4 |
Answer: (a) 1,2,3,4 (site defect: table doesn’t match the real ‘correctly matched pairs’ question — see explanation)
The real underlying question asks which isoline-property pairs are correctly matched: Isonif-Snowfall, Isohel-Sunshine, and Isohaline-Salinity are all correct, but Isohypse actually means a line of equal elevation, not cloudiness. The site’s match-list table format doesn’t correspond to this real question, so this option (the literal, as-listed pairing) is given as the closest available match, flagging this as a pre-existing site data-transcription defect.
Which of the following is the correct order of clouds in ascending order (lowest to highest) of height from surface? 1. Cirrocumulus 2. Nimbostratus 3. Cirrus 4. Altostratus
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1, 2, 4, 3
- (b)2, 4, 3, 1
- (c)3, 2, 1, 4
- (d)2, 4, 1, 3
Answer: (d) 2, 4, 1, 3
Nimbostratus sits lowest, then altostratus in the middle levels, then cirrocumulus and cirrus higher still among the high, cirrus-family clouds.
Which of the following pairs of revolution in agriculture sector and its production are correctly matched? 1. Pink revolution : Shrimp production 2. Yellow revolution : Oilseeds production 3. Black revolution : Biodiesel production 4. Golden revolution : Egg production
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1, 2 and 3
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)1 and 3 only
- (d)2 and 4 only
Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3
The Pink revolution is linked to shrimp and prawn production, the Yellow revolution to oilseeds, and the Black revolution to biodiesel (jatropha). The Golden revolution refers to horticulture and fruits, not egg production (the silver revolution is poultry and eggs), so pair 4 is wrong.
Related: Technology Missions in Indian Agriculture
Related: IndEco0045 — India’s Agricultural Revolutions
Related: IndEco0127 — The Golden Revolution: Horticulture and Honey in India
Which one among the following statements about National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) is not correct?
- (a)NHAI collects fees on the National Highway.
- (b)NHAI conducts training of Highway Engineers at entry level and in-service.
- (c)NHAI provides consultancy and construction services in India and abroad.
- (d)NHAI regulates and controls the plying of vehicles for its proper management.
Answer: (b) NHAI conducts training of Highway Engineers at entry level and in-service.
This training role actually belongs to the Indian Academy of Highway Engineers, a separate body, not NHAI itself. NHAI’s real functions include toll collection, consultancy, and regulating highway use.
Which of the following statements about the National Centre for Good Governance (NCGG) are correct? 1. NCGG was set up by the Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel National Police Academy. 2. The National Institute of Administrative Research (NIAR) has been rechristened and subsumed into NCGG. 3. NCGG is an apex-level autonomous body under the Ministry of Home Affairs. 4. The Chairperson of the Governing Body of the NCGG is the Cabinet Secretary to the Government of India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1, 2 and 4
- (b)2 and 4 only
- (c)1 and 3 only
- (d)3 and 4 only
Answer: (b) 2 and 4 only
The National Institute of Administrative Research was indeed renamed and merged into NCGG, and the Cabinet Secretary does chair its Governing Body. NCGG was actually set up under the Department of Administrative Reforms, not by the Police Academy, and it functions under a different ministry, not Home Affairs.
| List I | List II |
|---|---|
| A. 6th Edition | 1. Yoga for well-being |
| B. 7th Edition | 2. Yoga for health – Yoga at home |
| C. 8th Edition | 3. Yoga for Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam |
| D. 9th Edition | 4. Yoga for Humanity |
Code :
| A | B | C | D | |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (a) | 2 | 4 | 1 | 3 |
| (b) | 2 | 1 | 4 | 3 |
| (c) | 3 | 1 | 4 | 2 |
| (d) | 3 | 4 | 1 | 2 |
Answer: (b) 2,1,4,3
The 6th International Day of Yoga (2020) had the theme ‘Yoga for Health – Yoga at Home’, and the 7th (2021) had ‘Yoga for Well-being’. The 8th (2022) had ‘Yoga for Humanity’, and the 9th (2023) had ‘Yoga for Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam’, giving the sequence A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3.
The joint multinational maritime exercise named IBSAMAR is conducted by the Navies of which of the following countries?
- (a)India, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka and Maldives
- (b)India, Bangladesh and South Africa
- (c)India, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka and Mauritius
- (d)India, Brazil and South Africa
Answer: (d) India, Brazil and South Africa
IBSAMAR is the joint naval exercise of the IBSA Dialogue Forum countries: India, Brazil and South Africa. It began in 2008 and is held roughly every two years, alternating between Indian and South African waters.
In which one of the following cities is the Heliopolis Commonwealth War Grave Cemetery located?
- (a)Marseille
- (b)Washington D.C.
- (c)Cairo
- (d)Athens
Answer: (c) Cairo
The Heliopolis Commonwealth War Grave Cemetery is located in Cairo, Egypt. It honours Commonwealth soldiers who died in Egypt during the World Wars.
Under which one of the following rivers has India’s first underwater metro rail tunnel been constructed?
- (a)Yamuna
- (b)Ganga
- (c)Hooghly
- (d)Gomti
Answer: (c) Hooghly
Kolkata Metro’s East-West corridor runs a 520-metre tunnel beneath the Hooghly river, inaugurated in March 2024 as India’s first underwater metro crossing.
Related: IndEco0041 — Infrastructure: Services, Connectivity and Investment · IndEco0168 — Metro Rail Network in India
Which among the following set of national teams participated in the South Asian Football Federation Championship – 2023?
- (a)Sri Lanka, India, Bangladesh
- (b)Lebanon, Kuwait, Pakistan
- (c)India, Pakistan, Myanmar
- (d)Nepal, Sri Lanka, Bhutan
Answer: (b) Lebanon, Kuwait, Pakistan
The South Asian Football Federation Championship 2023, hosted in India, featured India, Nepal, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Pakistan, and guest teams Kuwait and Lebanon. Sri Lanka and the Maldives did not take part that year.
Which butterfly species was recently named the official butterfly of Jammu and Kashmir?
- (a)Noble’s Helen
- (b)Kaisar-i-Hind
- (c)Blue Duke
- (d)Blue Pansy
Answer: (d) Blue Pansy
The Blue Pansy (Junonia orithya) was officially declared the state butterfly of Jammu and Kashmir in 2023. The move was seen as a step toward biodiversity conservation in the region.
Which company operated the ill-fated Titan submersible which recently imploded killing all five passengers while on a dive to visit the Titanic shipwreck under the waters of the North Atlantic?
- (a)Odyssey Marine Exploration
- (b)M.A.R.E. (Marine Adventure for Research and Education)
- (c)OceanGate Expeditions
- (d)Seafarer Exploration Corporation
Answer: (c) OceanGate Expeditions
The Titan submersible that imploded near the Titanic wreck was operated by OceanGate Expeditions. All five people aboard were killed in the disaster.
Which among the following is India’s longest road tunnel?
- (a)Atal Tunnel
- (b)Kuthiran Tunnel
- (c)Dr. Syama Prasad Mookerjee Tunnel
- (d)Banihal Qazigund Road Tunnel
Answer: (c) Dr. Syama Prasad Mookerjee Tunnel
The Dr. Syama Prasad Mookerjee Tunnel (the Chenani-Nashri tunnel in Jammu and Kashmir), at about 9.28 km, was India’s longest road tunnel at that time. It is longer than the Atal Tunnel, which measures about 9.02 km.
| List I | List II |
|---|---|
| A. Dilip Mahalanabis (posthumous) | 1. Literature & Education |
| B. Sudha Murthy | 2. Public Affairs |
| C. S.M. Krishna | 3. Social Work |
| D. S.L. Bhyrappa | 4. Medicine |
Code :
| A | B | C | D | |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (a) | 4 | 3 | 2 | 1 |
| (b) | 4 | 2 | 3 | 1 |
| (c) | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
| (d) | 1 | 3 | 2 | 4 |
Answer: (a) 4,3,2,1
In the 2023 Padma awards, Dilip Mahalanabis was honoured posthumously for Medicine, and Sudha Murthy was honoured for Social Work. S.M. Krishna was honoured for Public Affairs, and S.L. Bhyrappa was honoured for Literature and Education, giving the sequence A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1.
| List I | List II |
|---|---|
| A. Hornbill Festival | 1. Meghalaya |
| B. Chapchar Kut | 2. Sikkim |
| C. Nongkrem Dance Festival | 3. Nagaland |
| D. Saga Dawa | 4. Mizoram |
Code :
| A | B | C | D | |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (a) | 2 | 4 | 1 | 3 |
| (b) | 3 | 1 | 4 | 2 |
| (c) | 3 | 4 | 1 | 2 |
| (d) | 2 | 1 | 4 | 3 |
Answer: Hornbill Festival is held in Nagaland
The Hornbill Festival is held in Nagaland, while festivals like Chapchar Kut and Nongkrem belong to other northeastern states.
Related: GK0037 — Nagaland
From which one of the following countries has India procured the S-400 Triumf air defence missile system?
- (a)United Kingdom
- (b)U.S.A.
- (c)France
- (d)Russia
Answer: (d) Russia
India signed a $5.43 billion deal with Russia in October 2018 for five S-400 Triumf air defence squadrons. The first squadron became operational in December 2021.
Related: SciTech0017 — Ballistic Missile Defence Programme
Also see: IntlRel0073 — India-Russia Relations
Abhinav Bindra is the winner of the first ever individual Olympic gold medal for India. He won gold in which shooting event and in which Olympic Games?
- (a)10 meter air pistol, London
- (b)10 meter air rifle, London
- (c)10 meter air rifle, Beijing
- (d)10 meter air pistol, Beijing
Answer: (c) 10 meter air rifle, Beijing
Abhinav Bindra won India’s first individual Olympic gold medal in the 10 metre air rifle event. He achieved this at the 2008 Beijing Olympics.
Cheetahs were recently re-introduced to India from Africa. From which language is the name ‘Cheetah’ derived?
- (a)Swahili
- (b)Afrikaans
- (c)Somali
- (d)Sanskrit
Answer: (d) Sanskrit
The word ‘cheetah’ traces back to the Sanskrit word ‘chitraka’, meaning ‘the spotted one’. This passed through Hindi before entering English.
A new species of pit-viper was discovered in 2019 and named after the State in which it was found. Identify the State from among the following :
- (a)Kerala
- (b)Arunachal Pradesh
- (c)Andaman and Nicobar Islands
- (d)Assam
Answer: (b) Arunachal Pradesh
The Arunachal pit viper (Trimeresurus arunachalensis), described in 2019, was named directly after Arunachal Pradesh, the state where it was found. It was one of two new pit-viper species reported from that state around the same time.
Who among the following set of players from India have either won or secured the runner-up position in the All England Badminton Tournament?
- (a)Prakash Padukone, P.V. Sindhu, Parupalli Kashyap
- (b)Pullela Gopichand, Saina Nehwal, Lakshya Sen
- (c)Prakash Padukone, Pullela Gopichand, Srikanth Kidambi
- (d)Lakshya Sen, Saina Nehwal, P.V. Sindhu
Answer: (b) Pullela Gopichand, Saina Nehwal, Lakshya Sen
Pullela Gopichand actually won the All England Championship in 2001. Saina Nehwal reached the final as runner-up in 2015, and Lakshya Sen reached the final as runner-up in 2022.
Who among the following leaders recently won the election to the office of the President of Turkey?
- (a)Recep Tayyip Erdogan
- (b)Kemal Kilicdaroglu
- (c)Ahmet Necdet Sezer
- (d)Abdullah Gul
Answer: (a) Recep Tayyip Erdogan
Recep Tayyip Erdogan won re-election as President of Turkey in the 2023 elections. He extended his long tenure as the country’s leader.
Georgi Gospodinov Georgiev won the International Booker Prize, 2023 for the darkly comic novel by the name :
- (a)The Promise
- (b)Shuggie Bain
- (c)Time Shelter
- (d)Girl, Woman, Other
Answer: (c) Time Shelter
Bulgarian author Georgi Gospodinov won the International Booker Prize 2023 for his novel ‘Time Shelter’. It was the first Bulgarian work to win this award.
The Grand Order of the Chain of the Yellow Star is the highest civilian honour of which among the following countries?
- (a)Fiji
- (b)Papua New Guinea
- (c)Egypt
- (d)Suriname
Answer: (d) Suriname
The Grand Order of the Chain of the Yellow Star is Suriname’s highest civilian honour. It is awarded for outstanding contributions to the country.
Which one among the following correctly represents the theme on which the interiors of the new Parliament Building is based? (Lok Sabha / Rajya Sabha)
- (a)Lotus / Banyan
- (b)Peacock / Lotus
- (c)Peacock / Banyan
- (d)Lotus / Peacock
Questions transcribed from the official Combined Defence Services Examination (II), 2023 question booklet (JNUP-B-GKL), General Knowledge paper. Hindi text omitted. Answer key not included.