NDA & NA (I) 2026 — General Ability Test (Full Question Paper)

Answer: (d) parables

“Jataka Tales” teach morals through symbolic stories. “Allegory” and “parable” both mean a story that teaches a moral lesson, making them closest in meaning.

Answer: (b) intoxication

“Inebriation” means being drunk. “Intoxication” carries the same meaning, making it the closest synonym.

Answer: (d) disorderly

“Obstreperous” means noisy and difficult to control. “Disorderly” describes the same unruly, unmanageable behavior.

Answer: (a) rigorous

“Gruelling” means extremely demanding and exhausting. “Rigorous” conveys the same sense of a tough, strenuous task.

Answer: (b) decoration

“Adornment” means something added to make a place look attractive. “Decoration” means exactly the same thing.

Answer: (b) unfrequented

“Off the beaten track” describes places few people visit. “Unfrequented” means rarely visited, matching this sense exactly.

Answer: (d) recite

“Chant” here means to say prayers aloud in a rhythmic way. “Recite” means to say something aloud from memory, the closest match.

Answer: (a) harness

“Utilize” means to make good use of something. “Harness” means to control and use a resource effectively, matching this sense.

Answer: (a) mitigated

“Abated” means became less severe or intense. “Mitigated” means lessened in severity, the closest synonym.

Answer: (c) cryptic

“Ambiguous” means having more than one possible meaning, hard to interpret. “Cryptic” means mysterious or hard to interpret, the closest synonym.

Answer: (b) cadaverous

“Ruddy” means having a healthy, reddish complexion. “Cadaverous” means pale and gaunt like a corpse, its opposite.

Answer: (a) iniquity

“Righteousness” means moral uprightness and fairness. “Iniquity” means wickedness and injustice, its direct opposite.

Answer: (d) scintillating

“Listless” means lacking energy or enthusiasm. “Scintillating” means brilliant and full of life, its opposite.

Answer: (a) scrupulous

“Disingenuous” means not being honest or sincere. “Scrupulous” means having strong moral principles and being honest, its opposite.

Answer: (a) composed

“Excitable” means easily made emotional or agitated. “Composed” means calm and in control, its opposite.

Answer: (b) enlightened

“Perplexed” means confused or puzzled. “Enlightened” means having clear understanding, its opposite.

Answer: (d) degrade

“Optimize” means to make something as effective as possible. “Degrade” means to make something worse, its opposite.

Answer: (c) timidness

“Audaciousness” means boldness and willingness to take risks. “Timidness” means lack of courage or confidence, its opposite.

Answer: (a) consecutive

“Concurrent” means happening at the same time. “Consecutive” means happening one after another, its opposite.

Answer: (d) Ambiguity

“Lucidity” means clarity of thought or expression. “Ambiguity” means unclear or open to more than one meaning, its opposite.

Answer: (b) To get down to practical details

“Nuts and bolts” means the basic, practical details of how something works. It has nothing to do with finishing a first step or facing punishment.

Answer: (a) With humility

“Hat in hand” means asking for something in a humble, submissive manner. It comes from the old custom of removing one’s hat as a mark of respect.

Answer: (c) Information from reliable and authoritative source

“Straight from the horse’s mouth” means information that comes directly from a reliable, authoritative source. It does not describe eagerness or fear.

Answer: (b) To try to do more than you can manage

“Bite off more than you can chew” means taking on more work or responsibility than you can actually manage. It is not about ending a conversation or exaggerating.

Answer: (d) Something very easy to accomplish

“A piece of cake” means something that is very easy to do. It does not describe difficulty or something inviting.

Answer: (b) Adjective

“Half” directly modifies the noun “share”, describing its quantity. Used this way, right before a noun, “half” functions as an adjective.

Answer: (b) Gerund

“Swimming” is the -ing form of a verb used here as the subject of the sentence. An -ing form acting as a noun is called a gerund.

Answer: (d) Adverb

“Now and again” means “occasionally” and tells us how often the action of telling happened. A word or phrase describing how, when, or how often is an adverb.

Answer: (c) Prepositional phrase

“By dint of” means “by means of” and introduces the noun phrase “perseverance and sheer hard work”. A phrase beginning with a preposition and ending in a noun is a prepositional phrase.

Answer: (b) Determiner

“Those” points out which specific books are meant, without describing any quality of the books. Words that specify which noun is meant are determiners.

Answer: (d) unless he sends me the bill again

The sentence describes a condition — payment happens only if the bill is sent again. “Unless” means “if not”, exactly capturing this negative condition.

Answer: (a) because I did not like the look of it

The sentence needs a reason for not buying the item. “Because” correctly introduces the cause: not liking the look of it.

Answer: (b) with which she was absolutely delighted

“Delighted with” something is the standard preposition pairing in English. So the relative clause must use “with which she was absolutely delighted”.

Answer: (b) when it starts raining

The instruction to stay inside applies once rain begins. “When” correctly marks the point in time this rule takes effect.

Answer: (b) till you see the green light

The sentence needs a time connector paired with the concrete image of a “green light”, rather than describing the light’s action of turning green.

Answer: (a) Although it was raining, we had the picnic.

“Although” already shows contrast on its own. Adding “still”, “yet”, or “even then” repeats the same idea and is grammatically redundant.

Answer: (d) When I arrive, I will call you.

A time clause about the future, starting with “when”, uses the simple present tense, not “will” or “would”. So “When I arrive” is correct.

Answer: (a) Who among you has the answer?

“Who” is the subject of “has the answer”, so the subject form “who” is correct here, not the object form “whom”.

Answer: (b) No sooner had he reached the station than the train left.

“No sooner” must be followed by “than”, with the verb placed before the subject (“had he reached”). This inversion is required after a negative opener like “No sooner”.

Answer: (b) Scarcely had I arrived at the airport when the plane departed.

“Scarcely” and “hardly” pair with “when”, not “than”, to introduce the second action. This sentence follows that rule correctly.

Answer: (d) No error

“Staff” is a collective noun and can correctly take the plural verb “are” when referring to its individual members, as standard usage allows.

Answer: (d) No error

The sequence of tenses is correct here. “Had taken” (past perfect) correctly shows an action completed before “said” (simple past).

Answer: (c) Error in part (c)

The subject “Ramesh” is singular, so the verb must be “plans”, not “plan”. “Who plan his tactics” should read “who plans his tactics”.

Answer: (d) No error

The sentence’s grammar and tense use are treated as correct throughout, with each part logically following the one before it.

Answer: (b) Error in part (b)

“Affects” is a verb meaning “to influence”. The sentence needs the noun “effects”, meaning “results or consequences”, so “affects” should read “effects”.

Answer: (a) I only

Pair I correctly turns an active sentence into passive, keeping “laughed at” and “objected to” intact. Pair II wrongly reworks a command as “advised to not insult” instead of a true passive form.

Answer: (d) Neither I nor II

Pair I wrongly keeps question word order (“where were we going”) instead of “where we were going”. Pair II wrongly uses “said them” instead of “told them”.

Answer: (c) I and III

“Have one foot in the grave” and “Follow suit” are both correctly explained. “Get your feet wet” actually means to gain your first experience of something new, not to establish yourself securely.

Answer: (d) I, II and III

All three matches are correct: “putrid” means decayed and foul-smelling, “wry” means dryly and ironically humorous, and “aflutter” means nervously excited.

Answer: (a) I — the least, II — the fewest

Both blanks compare one item against a larger group (“the whole family”, “who work the hardest”), so the superlative forms “the least” and “the fewest” are needed, not the comparative “less” or “a few”.

Answer: (a) T will be slightly greater than T0.

A pendulum’s period stays the same for any small swing angle. This is the small-angle approximation, and it gives T0.

At larger angles, this approximation breaks down. Sixty degrees counts as a large angle here.

The real restoring force is weaker than the small-angle formula assumes. This makes each swing take a little longer.

So the true period T comes out slightly greater than T0. Option (a) is correct.

(Source: Physics LibreTexts, Higher-Order Corrections to the Period of a Simple Pendulum)

Answer: (c) Both I and II

Two equal forces combine using the standard law of vector addition.

By symmetry, the resultant bisects the angle between the two forces.

Balancing components along the resultant gives 2F cos(x) = F, where F is each force.

So cos(x) = 1/2, which means x equals 60 degrees, or π/3.

This x is the angle between the resultant and each force, so Statement I is correct.

The full angle between the two forces is then 2x, or 120 degrees (2π/3), matching Statement II.

Both statements hold, so the correct option is (c).

(Source: HyperPhysics, Basic Vector Operations)

Answer: (d) Q = m(T2 − T1)[C0 + (α/2)(T1 + T2)]

When specific heat changes with temperature, we cannot just multiply C by the temperature change. We must integrate instead.

Heat is Q = m ∫ C(T) dT, taken from T1 to T2. Here C(T) = C0 + αT.

Integrating gives Q = m[C0T + αT²/2], evaluated between T1 and T2.

This works out to Q = m[C0(T2−T1) + (α/2)(T2²−T1²)].

Factor (T2²−T1²) as (T2−T1)(T2+T1). Then pull out the common (T2−T1) term.

This gives Q = m(T2−T1)[C0 + (α/2)(T1+T2)], which matches option (d).

Related: GenSci0049 — Calorimetry and Heat

(Source: Physics LibreTexts, Specific Heat — on heat transfer with a temperature-dependent specific heat, Q = m∫C(T)dT)

Answer: (c) T1/T2 = V2/V1

An ideal gas always obeys PV = nRT at every stage of the process.

Here the process rule says PV² stays constant, so P = constant/V².

Put this P into PV = nRT. The V² and one V cancel, leaving TV = constant.

So T1V1 = T2V2 at the two states. Rearranging gives T1/T2 = V2/V1.

This matches option (c).

(Source: Britannica, Ideal gas law)

Related: GenSci0050 — Thermodynamics and Ideal Gas Processes

Answer: (b) C = Cv.

For an ideal gas, PV = nRT. The process gives P = kT, so P/T = k stays constant.

Combine the two: V = nRT/P = nR/k. This is a fixed number, so V does not change.

A process where volume stays fixed is called isochoric. The heat capacity in an isochoric process is Cv, by definition.

So C = Cv, and option (b) is correct.

Related: GenSci0050 — Thermodynamics and Ideal Gas Processes

Answer: (d) No work is done by gravity in moving the object from point A to point B.

Work done by gravity between two points depends only on the difference in gravitational potential between them, not on how strong the field is along the way. Since A and B share the same potential, gravity does exactly zero net work moving an object between them.

Related: GenSci0016 — Gravitation Basics

(Source: HyperPhysics, Gravity)

Answer: (d) The force acting on the particle is not parallel to the instantaneous momentum of the particle.

Velocity is the derivative of position: v = 2√3 t i + √2 j. Momentum always points partly along j, since that √2 term never disappears.

Acceleration is the derivative of velocity: a = 2√3 i, a constant vector pointing only along i. So force F = ma also points only along i, with zero j-component.

For F to be parallel to momentum, momentum would need zero j-component too, but it never does. So F is never parallel to momentum, at any time.

Related: GenSci0013 — Newton’s Laws, Force and Momentum

Answer: (c) ΔK is larger in frame S'.

Force is the same in every frame, but kinetic energy is not. Only Newton’s laws stay frame-independent, not energy values.

In frame S, the ball starts at rest. Its speed just before landing is √(2gh), so ΔK = ½m(2gh) = mgh.

In frame S', the ball already has downward speed v at release, since frame S' itself moves upward relative to the ground.

Its final speed in S' becomes (v + √(2gh)). Working out ΔK there gives mgh + mv√(2gh), which is mgh plus an extra positive term.

That extra term never vanishes as long as v is nonzero, so ΔK is always larger in frame S', never smaller or equal.

Related: GenSci0015 — Work, Energy and Power

Answer: (d) The centre of gravity of the body is below the metacentre.

A floating body tilts slightly, then either settles back or capsizes. Which one happens depends on where the metacentre sits.

The metacentre is the point where the buoyant force’s line of action crosses the body’s original vertical axis after a small tilt.

If the metacentre lies above the centre of gravity, the tilt creates a restoring couple. The body rocks back to upright.

If the metacentre lies below the centre of gravity instead, the tilt creates an overturning couple. The body capsizes.

So stable floating requires the centre of gravity to sit below the metacentre. Option (d) is correct.

(Source: Wikipedia, Metacentric height)

Related: GenSci0019 — Pressure and Fluid Statics

Answer: (b) v ∝ √t

Power is P = F × v, and force is F = m(dv/dt), so P = mv(dv/dt).

The surface is smooth, so there is no friction to account for.

Since P is constant, we can separate variables: v dv = (P/m) dt.

Integrating both sides from rest (v = 0 at t = 0) gives v²/2 = (P/m)t.

So v² is directly proportional to t, which means v itself is proportional to √t.

This matches option (b).

Related: GenSci0015 — Work, Energy and Power

(Source: self-derived from P = Fv and Newton’s second law, standard constant-power kinematics result taught in NCERT-level mechanics)

Answer: (c) 0.015

The ice must first warm from −20°C to 0°C, then melt fully, before the mix reaches 0°C liquid.

Heat to warm 5 g of ice: 5 × 0.5 cal/g°C × 20°C = 50 cal.

Heat to melt that ice: 5 g × 80 cal/g (latent heat of fusion) = 400 cal.

Total heat needed by the ice = 450 cal. Water supplies this by cooling from 30°C to 0°C.

Heat lost by water = (1000m) × 1 cal/g°C × 30°C = 30000m cal. Setting 30000m = 450 gives m = 0.015 kg.

Related: GenSci0049 — Calorimetry and Heat

(Self-derived: standard calorimetry, using NCERT constants — specific heat of ice 0.5 cal/g°C, specific heat of water 1 cal/g°C, latent heat of fusion of ice 80 cal/g.)

Answer: (a) 1

Speed of sound in a gas is c = √(γRT/M). This only has temperature T, not pressure P, in it.

Here T stays constant, so this formula says c cannot change at all.

Pressure and density actually rise together at constant T. Their effects on speed cancel each other out exactly.

So the new speed y equals the old speed x. The ratio x to y is 1.

(Source: The Engineering ToolBox, Speed of Sound Equations)

Related: GenSci0050 — Thermodynamics and Ideal Gas Processes

Answer: (c) The sand increases the impact time.

Impulse equals force times time, and it also equals the change in momentum. Landing on sand or hard ground changes momentum by about the same amount. Soft sand lets the body sink in, so the stop takes longer. A longer time means a smaller force, since force equals momentum change divided by time. A smaller force means less injury.

Related: GenSci0013 — Newton’s Laws, Force and Momentum

Answer: (a) The image will accelerate towards the centre of curvature.

Use the mirror formula 1/v + 1/u = 1/f, with object distance u and image distance v.

The object starts far beyond the centre of curvature, so u is much greater than 2f.

At this stage the image sits close to the focus, between the focus and the centre of curvature.

As the object accelerates towards the mirror, u keeps shrinking towards 2f.

Solving the formula for v shows it grows larger as u shrinks, moving the image away from the mirror.

So the image moves away from the focus, towards the centre of curvature.

Because u is shrinking at a growing rate (acceleration), v also grows at a growing rate. The image accelerates towards the centre of curvature.

(Source: Self-derived from the standard mirror formula, 1/v + 1/u = 1/f, a basic result in geometrical optics.)

Related: GenSci0051 — Geometric Optics: Mirrors, Reflection and Refraction.

Answer: (b) The net work equals the change in kinetic energy.

The work-energy theorem says net work always equals the change in kinetic energy: ½m(v_final² − v_initial²). That depends only on initial and final speed, exactly as given, and it holds for any force.

A conservative force’s work depends on initial and final position, not directly on speed, so (a) does not fit the given clue. Nothing here says the force stays constant or that speed always rises, so (c) and (d) are ruled out too.

Related: GenSci0015 — Work, Energy and Power

Answer: (d) The semimajor axis of the planet’s orbit is four times as compared to that of the Earth.

Kepler’s Third Law says orbital period squared is proportional to orbit radius cubed. An 8-times-longer year means T² is 64 times bigger, so R³ must also be 64 times bigger, giving R four times Earth’s orbital radius (4³=64).

Related: GenSci0017 — Satellites and Orbital Motion

(Source: NASA, Orbits and Kepler’s Laws)

Answer: (c) It enhances field and promotes continuous corona discharge.

A sharp tip concentrates charge on a very small area. This makes the local electric field extremely strong. That strong field ionises the surrounding air, causing a slow, continuous corona discharge. This bleeds off charge gradually, instead of letting one huge sudden strike build up.

(Source: Physics LibreTexts, Electric field at the surface of a conductor)

Answer: (a) The image will remain unchanged.

A periscope works by reflection, not refraction. The law of reflection says angle of incidence equals angle of reflection. This law depends only on geometry, never on the medium the light passes through. So filling the tube with a liquid does not change how the two 45° mirrors bend the light’s path.

Refraction (bending due to the liquid) could only happen where light crosses an air-liquid boundary. In a periscope, light enters and exits straight through the flat end faces of the tube, at zero angle to those faces. At this “normal incidence,” no bending occurs, whatever the refractive index. So the image direction and position stay exactly as before, ruling out a lateral shift, and the liquid’s refractive index does not scale the image’s brightness either.

Related: GenSci0051 — Geometric Optics: Mirrors, Reflection and Refraction.

Answer: (b) It is a convex mirror.

A convex mirror always forms a virtual image behind the mirror, no matter where the object is placed.

That image always sits between the mirror’s pole and its focus. It never moves outside this narrow zone.

A plane mirror does not work this way. Its image sits behind the mirror at the same distance as the object, not fixed between pole and focus.

A concave mirror does not work this way either. Its image position changes a lot depending on where the object is, sometimes real, sometimes virtual, sometimes far beyond the focus.

So only a convex mirror fits the description. Option (b) is correct.

(Source: Physics LibreTexts, Spherical Mirrors — image formation for convex mirrors always lies between the pole and the focus)

Related: GenSci0051 — Geometric Optics: Mirrors, Reflection and Refraction.

Answer: (c) 588 N

The skydiver falls at a uniform, constant speed. A constant speed means the acceleration is zero.

By Newton’s second law, zero acceleration means the net force on the skydiver is also zero.

So the upward force (air resistance) must exactly balance the downward weight.

Weight equals mass times g: 60 kg × 9.8 m/s² = 588 N. The 2 m/s speed value is not needed for this calculation.

Related: GenSci0013 — Newton’s Laws, Force and Momentum

Answer: (b) electric field only

An electromagnetic wave has two parts, an electric field and a magnetic field. Both fields oscillate together and move in the same direction.

Light is a type of electromagnetic wave. It is the electric field of light that acts on the charges inside our eye’s photoreceptor cells.

The magnetic field also exists, but its effect on these charges is far too weak to matter at optical speeds. So the eye does not respond to it.

This is why physics calls the electric field vector the “light vector.” It is the part responsible for every optical effect, including vision.

Option (d) is wrong too. Infrared lies just outside the visible range, so the eye is not sensitive to it.

Answer: (a) L1 = 3L and A1 = 2A

Each of the three wires is identical. Each has resistance R = ρL/A.

Two wires connect X to Y in parallel. Their combined resistance is R/2.

The third wire connects Y to Z in series. Its resistance is R.

So the total resistance from X to Z is R/2 + R, which equals 3R/2.

The new wire must give this same resistance. So ρL1/A1 = (3/2) × (ρL/A). This means L1/A1 = 1.5 × (L/A).

Check option (a): L1 = 3L and A1 = 2A gives L1/A1 = 3L/2A = 1.5(L/A). This matches. Option (a) is correct.

(Source: OpenStax University Physics Volume 2, Resistors in Series and Parallel)

Answer: (c) — the ray enters perpendicular, reflects once at the hypotenuse, and exits perpendicular through the base.

The ray enters the first face at a right angle. A ray that hits a surface straight-on does not bend. So it travels on, undeviated, until it reaches the hypotenuse.

At the hypotenuse the ray meets the glass-air boundary at a steep angle. This is well past the critical angle for ordinary glass, which is about 42°. So the ray cannot refract out here. It undergoes total internal reflection instead.

The reflected ray then travels down to the base of the prism. It meets the base at a right angle too. A ray hitting a surface at a right angle does not bend, so it exits straight, with no shift or displacement.

This is why (a) is wrong: once the critical angle is crossed, no light can escape through the hypotenuse the way (a) shows. It is also why (d) is wrong: a ray meeting a surface exactly perpendicular cannot come out displaced, so the base exit must be perfectly straight, not slightly angled.

Option (b) shows a second reflection sending the ray back out of the entry face. The standard reflecting-prism path needs only one reflection, at the hypotenuse. So option (c) is correct: straight in, one reflection at the hypotenuse, straight out through the base.

(Self-derived from the laws of reflection and refraction and the total-internal-reflection condition; critical angle θc given by sinθc = 1/n, n ≈ 1.5 for glass, θc ≈ 42°.)

Answer: (b) π/3

The ray hits face AB from inside at 60° from the normal. This is more than the critical angle for glass of refractive index 1.5, which is about 41.8°. So the ray undergoes total internal reflection at AB, not simple refraction.

By the law of reflection, the ray leaves AB at 60° from the normal too. That means it leaves AB at 30° from the surface AB itself.

For the light to retrace its whole path, the ray must hit mirror BC exactly along its normal, so it bounces straight back the way it came.

Now look at the small triangle formed by vertex B, the point where the ray leaves AB, and the point where it hits BC. The angle at B is angle ABC, call it θ. The angle at the point on AB is 30°. The angle at the point on BC is 90°, since the ray meets BC perpendicularly.

Angles in a triangle add up to 180°. So θ + 30° + 90° = 180°, which gives θ = 60° = π/3.

(Self-derived from standard laws of reflection and triangle angle sum; critical angle check via sinθc = 1/n, n = 1.5)

Answer: (d) 40 m/s

The area under a force-time graph equals impulse. Impulse is the change in momentum.

From t=0 to 5s, force rises from 0 to 20 N. That triangle’s area gives impulse = 0.5 × 5 × 20 = 50 Ns.

From t=5s to 20s, force stays at 20 N for 15 s. That rectangle’s area gives impulse = 20 × 15 = 300 Ns.

From t=20s to 25s, force falls from 20 N to 0. That triangle’s area gives impulse = 0.5 × 5 × 20 = 50 Ns.

Total impulse = 50 + 300 + 50 = 400 Ns.

The object starts at rest, so this impulse equals its final momentum. Final speed = impulse ÷ mass = 400 ÷ 10 = 40 m/s.

Related: GenSci0013 — Newton’s Laws, Force and Momentum

Answer: (c) x = 18 and y = 32

Sulfur has atomic number 16. A neutral sulfur atom has 16 protons and 16 electrons.

The notation ³²₁₆S shows a mass number of 32. Mass number is the total count of nucleons.

Nucleons are protons and neutrons together, inside the nucleus. Losing or gaining electrons never changes this count.

The ion S²⁻ carries a 2- charge. It formed when a neutral sulfur atom gained 2 extra electrons.

So the ion has 16 + 2 = 18 electrons (x = 18). Its nucleon count stays 32 (y = 32), since only electrons changed.

Related: GenSci0002 — Chemistry Fundamentals for Competitive Exams

(Source: Chemistry LibreTexts, Protons, Neutrons, and Electrons in Atoms)

Answer: (b) Graphite

Carbon has several forms. Coal is mostly carbon but is not a pure, well-defined structure like the others.

Graphite, diamond, and fullerene are all pure carbon allotropes with different atomic arrangements.

Chemists compare stability using standard enthalpy of formation. The most stable form is defined as having zero enthalpy of formation.

Graphite is the reference state of carbon, so its enthalpy of formation is exactly zero.

Diamond sits slightly higher in energy than graphite. Fullerene sits higher still.

Since lower energy means greater stability, graphite is the thermodynamically most stable form. Option (b) is correct.

(Source: Chemistry LibreTexts, Allotropes of Carbon)

Answer: (d) I, II and IV

Statement I is correct. A colloid and a suspension are both heterogeneous mixtures, unlike a true solution.

Statement II is correct. Colloidal particles can be separated from the dispersion medium by centrifugation.

Statement III is incorrect. Suspension particles are large enough to see with the naked eye, but colloid particles are not.

Statement IV is correct. Copper sulphate forms a true solution in water, so it does not scatter light and show the Tyndall effect. Milk is a colloid, so it does scatter light and show the Tyndall effect.

So statements I, II and IV are correct, matching option (d).

Answer: (c) Both I and II

A non-volatile solute does not evaporate along with the solvent. Only the solvent turns to vapour and leaves.

In evaporation, the solvent is heated until it turns to vapour and escapes. The solid solute stays behind as a residue.

This works well when you only need the solid back, and its exact crystal shape does not matter.

Crystallization also removes the solvent, but more slowly and under controlled conditions.

The solution is concentrated until it becomes saturated. Solute particles then come together and form pure crystals.

Crystallization is preferred when the solute would decompose under strong heating, or when pure, well-formed crystals are needed.

Both methods rely on the same basic idea: removing the solvent so the non-volatile solute is left behind. So both I and II are valid separation methods, and option (c) is correct.

Related: GenSci0002 — Chemistry Fundamentals for Competitive Exams

(Source: Royal Society of Chemistry, Evaporation, filtration and crystallisation)

Answer: (d) I, II, III and IV

Oxidation happens when a substance loses electrons, often by combining with oxygen. Rusting of iron is a slow oxidation. Iron reacts with oxygen and moisture to form hydrated iron oxide.

Burning of fuel is combustion. Combustion is a fast oxidation reaction with oxygen. It releases heat and light, and forms oxide products.

Rancidity is the spoiling of oils and fats. It happens mainly through slow oxidation by air. This oxidation creates the bad smell and taste.

Browning of cut fruit is also oxidation. Air exposes phenolic compounds in the fruit to oxygen. An enzyme called polyphenol oxidase speeds up this oxidation, and the surface turns brown.

So all four processes are oxidation reactions. Option (d) is correct.

Related: GenSci0009 — Everyday Chemistry: Household Materials and Fuels

(Source: PMC, Enzymatic browning: the role of substrates in polyphenol oxidase mediated browning)

Answer: (c) Arrhenius concept

Svante Arrhenius proposed this theory in 1887. It defines acids and bases only in terms of water.

An Arrhenius acid is a substance that dissociates in water to give H+ (aq) ions. An Arrhenius base dissociates in water to give OH⁻ (aq) ions.

The statement in the question matches this definition exactly. So the concept is the Arrhenius concept.

The Bronsted-Lowry concept instead defines acids and bases as proton donors and acceptors. It does not need water as a solvent.

The Lewis concept goes even further. It defines acids and bases by electron-pair acceptance and donation, without needing protons or water at all.

(Source: Britannica, Arrhenius theory)

Answer: (b) calcium phosphate with sulphuric acid.

Superphosphate of lime is made from rock phosphate, which is mostly calcium phosphate. Factories treat it with sulphuric acid.

This reaction turns the insoluble calcium phosphate into a soluble form plants can absorb. It produces calcium dihydrogen phosphate, the useful fertilizer part, along with calcium sulphate (gypsum) as a by-product.

(Source: Wikipedia, Superphosphate)

Answer: (b) Law of conservation of mass.

The reaction weighs the same on both sides. Reactants: 1.7 g silver nitrate plus 0.585 g sodium chloride, a total of 2.285 g.

Products: 1.435 g silver chloride plus 0.85 g sodium nitrate, also 2.285 g. No mass is gained or lost.

This is the Law of Conservation of Mass. It states that matter is neither created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction.

(Source: Wikipedia, Conservation of mass)

Answer: (a) I and II only.

Nitrolim is another name for calcium cyanamide. It is made by heating calcium carbide with nitrogen gas at a high temperature. That confirms statement I.

In soil, it reacts with moisture and slowly decomposes to release ammonia. That confirms statement II.

Nitrolim supplies only nitrogen, not phosphorus or potassium. So it is a straight nitrogenous fertilizer, not an NPK fertilizer. Statement III is wrong.

It is also a synthetic industrial chemical, made in a furnace process, not derived from organic matter. Statement IV is wrong too.

(Source: Wikipedia, Frank–Caro process)

Answer: (b) Two

Pair I is correct. Titanium dioxide (TiO2) is a widely used white pigment in paints. It gives paint its colour and opacity.

Pair II is incorrect. Turpentine is a paint thinner, not a drier. It is a volatile solvent that controls paint viscosity.

Pair III is incorrect. Naphthenates, such as cobalt or lead naphthenate, are driers, not thinners. They speed up the oxidative drying of paint film.

Pair IV is correct. Polyhydroxy phenol is used as an antiskinning agent. It stops a paint can’s surface from forming a skin during storage.

So only pairs I and IV are correctly matched. That is two pairs, matching option (b).

Answer: (d) I and III

Pine oil is a real antifoaming agent in emulsion paints. It stops excess foam from forming during mixing and application. So statement I is correct.

Protective colloids are added to emulsion paints for the opposite reason. They keep pigment particles evenly dispersed and stop them from clumping together. This increases stability, it does not decrease it. So statement II is wrong.

Driers are metal-based catalysts, such as cobalt or manganese compounds. They speed up the oxidation of oils in the paint binder. This makes the paint film dry and harden faster. So statement III is correct.

Only statements I and III hold up. Option (d) is correct.

(Source: ScienceDirect, Protective Colloid overview)

Answer: (c) Three.

A Lewis acid accepts a pair of electrons. AlCl3, BF3, and FeCl3 are all electron-deficient and accept electron pairs, so all three are Lewis acids.

NH3 is different. Nitrogen’s lone pair makes NH3 a Lewis base, not a Lewis acid.

So three of the four listed substances are Lewis acids.

(Source: LibreTexts, Lewis Acids and Bases)

Answer: (c) I and III only

Statement I is correct. Soaps are sodium or potassium salts of long-chain fatty (carboxylic) acids.

Statement II is wrong. It reverses cause and effect.

Carbon’s catenation and isomerism are not caused by the large number of organic compounds. It is the other way round.

Catenation lets carbon atoms link into long chains and rings. Isomerism lets the same atoms arrange in different structures.

These two properties are why organic compounds vastly outnumber inorganic ones, not the reverse.

Statement III is correct. Carbon dioxide dissolves in water to form carbonic acid, so it is an acidic oxide.

Carbon monoxide does not react with water to form an acid. It is treated as a neutral oxide.

So only statements I and III are correct, making option (c) the answer.

Related: GenSci0002 — Chemistry Fundamentals for Competitive Exams

(Source: Encyclopaedia Britannica, Carbon)

Answer: (d) I, II, III and IV

Paper testing checks several different kinds of physical properties, and all four listed ones are real, standard categories.

Mechanical and strength tests measure things like tensile strength, tear resistance, and folding endurance.

Surface tests measure roughness, smoothness, and friction, since these affect printing and coating quality.

Optical tests measure brightness, opacity, colour, and gloss, since these decide how paper looks and prints.

Permeability tests measure how well air, water, or oil pass through the paper, which affects absorbency and packaging use.

So all four properties are genuinely tested during paper manufacture, making option (d) correct.

(Source: Industrial Physics, Testing the Physical & Optical Properties of Paper)

Answer: (c) I, II and IV

Statement I is correct. Iron goes from 0 to +2, so it loses electrons and acts as the reductant.

Statement II is correct. The copper ion goes from +2 to 0, so it gains electrons and is reduced.

Statement III is wrong. Bromine goes from 0 to -1, so it gains electrons and is reduced, not acting as reductant.

Iodide is the one being oxidized here, so iodide is the true reductant in this reaction.

Statement IV is correct. Carbon goes from -4 in methane to +4 in carbon dioxide, so it loses electrons and is oxidized.

So statements I, II and IV are correct, making option (c) the answer.

(Source: LibreTexts, Oxidation-Reduction Reactions)

Answer: (d) I, II and III

All three properties genuinely help gas exchange in the lungs.

The thin epithelial lining means oxygen and carbon dioxide only cross a very short distance between air and blood.

Elastic fibres let the alveolar walls stretch during breathing in and spring back during breathing out.

This elastic recoil keeps air moving in and out steadily, which keeps fresh air reaching the exchange surface.

A dense network of blood capillaries around each alveolus keeps carrying blood past the surface constantly.

This maintains a steady concentration gradient, so diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide keeps happening efficiently.

So all three properties, I, II and III, support efficient gaseous exchange, making option (d) correct.

(Source: Encyclopaedia Britannica, Pulmonary Alveolus)

Answer: (b) Monkeys

Most mammals go through an oestrus cycle, where the female is fertile only during a short “heat” period.

Cows, rats and tigers are non-primate mammals, so all of them show this oestrus cycle pattern.

Primates, including monkeys, apes and humans, do not show an oestrus cycle at all.

Instead, primates show a menstrual cycle, where the uterine lining sheds as bleeding if pregnancy does not occur.

So monkeys are the odd one out here, making option (b) the answer.

(Source: NCBI Bookshelf, Endotext — Menstrual Cycle Physiology)

Answer: (c) Sclerenchyma

Sclerenchyma cells have thick, hard walls made of lignin, a tough material that gives strength and rigidity.

Once these cells mature, their protoplast (the living contents) usually dies off completely.

So mature sclerenchyma is dead tissue, working purely as mechanical support for the plant.

Collenchyma and parenchyma, by contrast, stay alive and keep their protoplast even when mature.

Xylem parenchyma is also a living tissue, despite sitting inside the xylem alongside dead conducting cells.

So sclerenchyma is the one tissue here that is dead at maturity, making option (c) correct.

(Source: Encyclopaedia Britannica, Sclerenchyma)

Answer: (b) Primary spermatocyte

Spermatogenesis starts with a spermatogonium, which divides by ordinary mitosis, not meiosis.

The spermatogonium grows into a primary spermatocyte, and this is the cell that undergoes the first meiotic division.

This first division, meiosis I, splits the primary spermatocyte into two secondary spermatocytes.

The secondary spermatocyte then undergoes the second meiotic division, meiosis II, producing spermatids.

Sertoli cells are not part of this dividing lineage at all. They are support cells that nourish developing sperm.

So the first meiotic division happens in the primary spermatocyte, making option (b) correct.

(Source: NCBI Bookshelf, Developmental Biology — Spermatogenesis)

Answer: (b) II only

Statement I is wrong. Animal cells have no cell wall at all, only a flexible outer membrane.

Only plant cells, fungal cells, and some microbes actually have a cell wall.

Statement II is correct. Every kind of cell, from bacteria to human cells, contains ribosomes.

Ribosomes are the universal machinery every cell needs to build proteins.

Statement III is wrong. Bacteria and other prokaryotes have no nuclear membrane at all.

Their DNA sits loose in the cytoplasm, in a region called the nucleoid, not inside a proper nucleus.

Statement IV is wrong. Bacterial DNA is usually a single circular molecule, not linear.

Linear DNA is mainly a feature of eukaryotic cells, packaged into chromosomes.

So only statement II holds true for every cell, making option (b) correct.

(Source: Lumen Learning, Microbiology — Unique Characteristics of Prokaryotic Cells)

Answer: (d) Thalamus

A true fruit develops only from the ovary of a flower, after fertilization.

A false fruit, or pseudocarp, forms when some other flower part also swells up and becomes part of the fruit.

In an apple, the fleshy part we eat comes mainly from the thalamus, also called the receptacle.

The true fruit, formed from the ovary, is just the small core in the centre, holding the seeds.

So the thalamus is the part that makes apple a false fruit, making option (d) correct.

(Source: Wikipedia, Accessory Fruit)

Answer: (b) Bronchi of humans

Earthworms breathe through their moist skin, so gaseous exchange genuinely happens there.

Pila is a freshwater snail that uses gills for gaseous exchange, much like a fish.

In humans, alveoli are the tiny air sacs in the lungs where real gas exchange happens.

Bronchi, by contrast, are just the branching airway tubes that carry air toward the alveoli.

Their walls are too thick, and not built for diffusion, so no real gas exchange happens there.

So the bronchi of humans is the one place with no real gaseous exchange, making option (b) correct.

(Source: Cleveland Clinic, Bronchi)

Answer: (d) Nucellus

An ovule has several distinct parts, and each one plays a different role.

The integument is the outer protective layer, which later becomes the seed coat.

The funicle is just the stalk that attaches the ovule to the ovary wall.

The chalaza is the basal region where the integuments and the main body of the ovule join.

The nucellus is the mass of tissue inside the ovule that stores reserve food for the developing embryo.

So the nucellus is the part that holds this reserve food, making option (d) correct.

(Source: Wikipedia, Ovule)

Answer: (b) Tidal volume

Tidal volume is the amount of air breathed in or out during one normal, quiet breath.

In an average adult, this is only around 500 millilitres, a small amount compared to the lung total.

Inspiratory reserve volume is much bigger, around 2500 to 3000 millilitres, the extra air you can force in after a normal breath.

Expiratory reserve volume, the extra air you can force out after a normal breath, is around 1000 to 1200 millilitres.

Residual volume, the air always left behind even after forcing all the air out, is also around 1100 to 1200 millilitres.

So tidal volume, at roughly 500 millilitres, is clearly the smallest of the four, making option (b) correct.

(Source: TeachMePhysiology, Lung Volumes and Capacities)

Answer: (b) Semilunar valve

The heart has four valves, and each one sits at a different exit or entry point.

The tricuspid valve sits between the right atrium and the right ventricle, not the pulmonary artery.

The bicuspid, or mitral, valve sits between the left atrium and the left ventricle.

The pulmonary semilunar valve is the one that guards the opening from the right ventricle into the pulmonary artery.

A matching aortic semilunar valve guards the exit from the left ventricle into the aorta.

Both of these pocket-shaped valves are called semilunar valves, so option (b) is correct here.

(Source: NCBI Bookshelf, StatPearls — Anatomy, Thorax, Heart Pulmonic Valve)

Answer: (d) Optimizing canal irrigation

Rainfed Area Development is a scheme meant specifically for areas that do not have assured irrigation.

It runs as a component of the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture, started in 2014-15.

Its real strategies include diversified and integrated farming, mixing crops with livestock, horticulture, or fisheries.

It also pushes soil health management, using soil test cards to guide nutrient use and crop choice.

It works through a cluster-based, watershed-plus approach, developing natural resources area by area.

Canal irrigation belongs to a totally different category of farming, the already-irrigated areas, not rainfed ones.

So optimizing canal irrigation is not a genuine RAD strategy, making option (d) the answer.

Related: IndEco0251 — Rainfed Area Development (RAD): Integrated Farming Systems Under NMSA

(Source: Department of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, Government of India, Rainfed Farming System)

Answer: (a) I and II only

Statement I is correct. Kamarajar Port is India’s only major port registered as a corporatized public company.

Every other major port in India is run directly by a government port trust, not a company.

Statement II is correct. The port was originally built and known as Ennore Port, near Chennai.

It was later renamed Kamarajar Port, after the former Tamil Nadu Chief Minister K. Kamaraj.

Statement III is wrong. Kamarajar Port is an artificial port, built with dredged channels and constructed berths.

A natural port instead uses a naturally deep, sheltered coastline without needing major construction.

So statements I and II are correct, but III is not, making option (a) the answer.

Related: IndEco0270 — Major Ports of India: Mundra, Kamarajar, JNPT, and Visakhapatnam

(Source: Wikipedia, Kamarajar Port)

Answer: (c) Both I and II

Statement I is correct. Earthquake waves are grouped into two broad types, body waves and surface waves.

Body waves travel through the Earth’s interior and include P-waves and S-waves.

Statement II is also correct. As body waves reach the surface, they interact with surface rocks.

This interaction generates a new set of waves that travel only along the Earth’s surface.

These surface waves, mainly Love waves and Rayleigh waves, cause most of an earthquake’s surface damage.

So both statements hold true, making option (c) the answer.

(Source: Pacific Northwest Seismic Network, Earthquake Waves)

Answer: (c) III only

Statement I is wrong. Continental crust is actually thicker, not thinner, under fold mountains.

Fold mountains form when plates push together and compress the crust, forcing rock upward into peaks.

The same compression also pushes rock downward, creating a deep crustal root beneath the range.

Because of this, crust under the Himalayas can reach nearly 90 kilometres thick, far more than average.

Statement II is wrong. Ocean crust averages only around 6 to 10 kilometres, not 30 kilometres.

A thickness of about 30 to 40 kilometres actually describes average continental crust, not oceanic crust.

Statement III is correct. The crust is solid, rigid rock, and it genuinely behaves as brittle material.

This is unlike the hot, semi-solid mantle below it, which can slowly flow instead of cracking.

So only statement III holds true, making option (c) the answer.

(Source: Encyclopaedia Britannica, Continental Crust)

Answer: (d) I, II and III

Composite volcanoes, also called stratovolcanoes, form from thick, sticky magma that traps gas inside.

This trapped gas builds up huge pressure, so composite volcanoes usually erupt violently and explosively.

These explosions throw out pyroclastic material, meaning ash, cinders, and rock fragments, not just flowing lava.

Over many eruptions, this pyroclastic debris and ash keep piling up close to the central vent.

These repeated layers of ash and rock build up the volcano’s classic tall, steep-sided cone shape.

So all three statements genuinely describe composite volcanoes, making option (d) the answer.

(Source: USGS, Volcanoes: Principal Types of Volcanoes)

Answer: (a) lithification

Loose sediment, like sand, silt, or mud, needs to be squeezed and glued together to become solid rock.

This overall hardening process is called lithification, and it involves two main steps.

First, compaction: the weight of overlying layers presses the grains closer together, squeezing out water.

Second, cementation: minerals dissolved in water fill the gaps and glue the grains permanently together.

Weathering, by contrast, is what breaks big rocks down into loose sediment in the first place.

Mass wasting and solifluction both describe material moving downhill, not sediment turning into rock.

So lithification is the correct process here, making option (a) the answer.

Related: WorldGeo0064 — Types of Rocks: Igneous, Sedimentary, and Metamorphic

(Source: Encyclopaedia Britannica, Lithification)

Answer: (c) I and III only

Statement I is correct. Temperature normally falls as height increases, a pattern called the lapse rate.

Temperature inversion is exactly this pattern flipping, so temperature rises with height near the surface instead.

Statement II is wrong. It is clear skies, not cloudy skies, that favour inversion on winter nights.

Under a clear sky, the ground loses heat quickly into space, so the air just above it cools fast.

Clouds actually trap this outgoing heat, which stops the ground from cooling enough for inversion.

Statement III is correct. Polar regions stay so cold and receive so little direct sunlight that their surface air layer is inverted for most of the year, not just in winter.

So statements I and III hold true, but II does not, making option (c) the answer.

(Source: National Weather Service, The Inversion)

Answer: (a) I and II only

Statement III is wrong: extratropical cyclones, including Western Disturbances, are carried by the westerlies and move west to east, not east to west. Related: IndGeo0062 — Western Disturbances

Answer: (c) Ladakh

Ladakh is a cold desert lying in the rain shadow of the Himalayas, receiving well under 50 cm of rain a year, far less than Madhya Pradesh, Haryana, or Jharkhand. Related: IndGeo0072 — Rainfall Pattern and Distribution of India.

Answer: (b) Fallow, other than current fallow

India’s land-use records split fallow land into two separate categories based on how long it sits idle.

Current fallow is land left uncultivated for one year or less, usually just to let the soil rest one season.

Fallow, other than current fallow, covers land left idle for longer than a year but less than five years.

If the land stays uncultivated for more than five years straight, it moves into a different category entirely, culturable wasteland.

Barren land is different again, meaning land that genuinely cannot support farming at all.

So the one-to-five-year gap described here matches “fallow, other than current fallow”, making option (b) correct.

(Source: Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation, Government of India, Nine-fold Classification of Land Use)

Answer: (d) All the four

Pair I is correctly matched. Solution weathering dissolves soluble minerals, washing them away as leached-out material.

Pair II is correctly matched. Carbonation happens when carbon dioxide dissolves in water to form a weak carbonic acid.

This acid reacts with minerals like feldspar, breaking them down into softer clay minerals.

Pair III is correctly matched. In hydration, minerals chemically absorb water molecules and physically swell up.

This swelling increases the rock’s overall volume, often cracking it apart from the inside.

Pair IV is correctly matched. Oxidation happens when oxygen reacts with metals in the rock, forming oxides.

This reaction often turns the rock a reddish or rust-brown colour, a visible sign of oxidation.

So all four pairs are genuinely correct, making option (d) the answer.

(Source: NCERT, Fundamentals of Physical Geography, Geomorphic Processes)

Answer: (c) Sandstone

Quartzite forms when sandstone gets buried deep and exposed to intense heat and pressure.

Sandstone is made mostly of quartz grains, and this heat and pressure fuses those grains tightly together.

The result is quartzite, a much harder, more compact rock than the original sandstone.

Limestone, for comparison, metamorphoses into marble instead, not quartzite.

Shale metamorphoses into slate, and later into schist or gneiss under even more pressure.

So sandstone is the correct parent rock here, making option (c) the answer.

Related: WorldGeo0064 — Types of Rocks: Igneous, Sedimentary, and Metamorphic

(Source: Encyclopaedia Britannica, Quartzite)

Answer: (c) Both I and II

Statement I is correct. P waves, or primary waves, travel faster through the Earth than S waves do.

Because of this speed difference, a seismograph always records the P wave first, then the slower S wave.

Statement II is also correct. P waves are longitudinal waves, so particles vibrate back and forth in the same direction the wave is travelling.

S waves are transverse waves instead, so particles vibrate up and down, at right angles to the wave’s direction.

This difference in vibration is also why S waves cannot travel through liquids, unlike P waves.

So both statements genuinely hold true, making option (c) the answer.

(Source: Pacific Northwest Seismic Network, Earthquake Waves)

Answer: (c) Both I and II

Statement I is correct. The hypocentre is exactly where an earthquake’s stored energy first breaks free.

This same point is also commonly called the focus of the earthquake.

Statement II is also correct. The hypocentre marks where the actual rupture starts, deep inside the Earth.

It can sit anywhere from close to the surface down to several hundred kilometres deep, depending on the earthquake.

The point directly above it, on the Earth’s surface, is called the epicentre instead, a different, related term.

So both statements genuinely hold true, making option (c) the answer.

(Source: Wikipedia, Hypocenter)

Answer: (c) I and III (Neodymium and Dysprosium)

Tellurium and Gallium are core semiconductors in thin-film PV cells (CdTe and CIGS/GaAs). Neodymium and Dysprosium instead go into permanent magnets for wind-turbine generators, not solar panels. Related: EnvEco0010 — Depletion of Natural Resources. Related: IndEco0046 — Natural Resources, Ethnic Conflict and Civil Wars.

Answer: (c) Santa Ana wind

Santa Ana winds are strong, hot, dry winds that blow from inland deserts toward the Southern California coast.

As this air sinks and squeezes through mountain canyons, it heats up further and dries out the vegetation.

This combination of heat, dryness, and strong gusts makes wildfires spread far faster once they start.

Diablo wind is a similar phenomenon, but it affects Northern California, around the San Francisco Bay Area, not the south.

Jarbo Gap wind is another local Northern California wind, tied to a specific canyon near Butte County.

Chinook wind is unrelated to California altogether, a warm downslope wind found near the Rocky Mountains.

So Santa Ana wind is the one genuinely linked to Southern California wildfires, making option (c) correct.

(Source: Fox Weather, What are the Santa Ana and Diablo Winds)

Answer: (c) Muling La

Kumjawng Pass, Yonggyap Pass, and Bomdi La are all genuine mountain passes located in Arunachal Pradesh.

Kumjawng Pass sits in the Dibang Valley district, connecting India towards Myanmar.

Yonggyap Pass lies on the India-China border, connecting Arunachal Pradesh with the Tibet region.

Bomdi La sits further inland, in the West Kameng district of Arunachal Pradesh.

Muling La, however, is a completely different pass, located in Uttarakhand, not Arunachal Pradesh.

It sits in the Great Himalayas, north of Gangotri, connecting Uttarakhand towards Tibet.

So Muling La is the odd one out here, making option (c) the answer.

Related: IndGeo0046 — Himalayan Mountain Passes

(Source: Wikipedia, List of Mountain Passes of India)

Answer: (b) composite volcano

Mount Ibu sits on Halmahera island in Indonesia, and it is classed as a stratovolcano.

Stratovolcano is just another name for a composite volcano, built from alternating layers of lava and ash.

Mount Ibu has been highly active for years, exploding repeatedly and sending ash columns into the sky.

A shield volcano instead has gentle, wide slopes, built mainly from thin, runny lava flows, unlike Ibu’s steep cone.

A volcanic dome and a cinder cone are also smaller, structurally different features, not what Mount Ibu is.

So Mount Ibu is genuinely a composite volcano, making option (b) the answer.

(Source: Wikipedia, Mount Ibu)

Answer: (d) II only

Statement I is wrong. Terrestrial planets are actually denser, not less dense, than other planets.

Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars are all rocky, so they pack more mass into their volume than gas giants do.

Statement II is correct. All four terrestrial planets orbit between the Sun and the main asteroid belt.

This asteroid belt marks the rough dividing line between the small rocky planets and the giant gas planets beyond.

Statement III is wrong. Lower gravity actually makes it harder, not easier, to hold onto light escaping gases.

That is exactly why terrestrial planets lack the thick hydrogen and helium atmospheres seen on gas giants.

So only statement II genuinely holds true, making option (d) the answer.

Related: GenSci0004 — Astronomy Fundamentals: The Solar System and Beyond

(Source: Encyclopaedia Britannica, Terrestrial Planet)

Answer: (a) None

Pair I is wrong. Ultraviolet radiation is absorbed by the stratosphere’s ozone layer, not the troposphere.

Pair II is wrong. Weather and climate changes happen in the troposphere, the lowest layer, not the stratosphere.

The stratosphere sits calmly above the weather, actually growing warmer with height instead of stormier.

Pair III is wrong. Radio waves are reflected back by the ionosphere, a charged region overlapping the upper mesosphere and thermosphere.

The mesosphere itself is better known for burning up incoming meteors, not for bouncing radio signals.

So every single pair here has been swapped around, and none of them is genuinely correct, making option (a) the answer.

(Source: UCAR Center for Science Education, Layers of Earth’s Atmosphere)

Answer: (d) All the four

Pair I is correct. Jimutavahana wrote the Dayabhaga, a treatise on inheritance law that became standard in Bengal.

Pair II is correct. Chandbardai wrote the Prithviraj Raso, an epic poem about the Chauhan king Prithviraj III.

Pair III is correct. Bhaskaracharya, or Bhaskara II, wrote the Lilavati, a famous work on mathematics.

Pair IV is correct. Vijnaneshvara wrote the Mitakshara, a commentary on the Yajnavalkya Smriti.

Along with the Dayabhaga, the Mitakshara became one of the two main schools of Hindu inheritance law.

So all four book-author pairs are genuinely correct, making option (d) the answer.

(Source: Wikipedia, Mitakshara)

Answer: (b) IV, II, I, III

In order: Vasco da Gama reached Calicut in 1498, Magellan’s expedition completed its circumnavigation in 1522, the British East India Company formed in 1600, and the Dutch East India Company (VOC) followed in 1602.

Related: ModHist0076 — Portuguese, Dutch and Danish Trading Companies in India · WorldHist0059 — European Voyages of Exploration

Answer: (a) One

Pair I is correct. John Kay patented the flying shuttle in 1733, letting one weaver work a wider loom alone.

Pair II is wrong. The water frame was actually invented by Richard Arkwright, not James Hargreaves.

Pair III is wrong. The spinning jenny was actually invented by James Hargreaves, not Richard Arkwright.

These two inventors’ names have simply been swapped between their real inventions in this question.

So only the first pair is genuinely correct, making option (a) the answer.

Related: WorldHist0039 — The Industrial Revolution: Inventions and Inventors · Source: Historic UK, Richard Arkwright

Answer: (d) I, II and III

All three statements are correct. The Act passed the Imperial Legislative Council on 18 March 1919 despite every Indian member voting against it, gave the government sweeping repressive powers, and Gandhi responded with a nationwide hartal and Satyagraha.

Related: ModHist0047 — India’s Role in the First World War

Answer: (c) Both I and II

Statement I is correct. Britain had a developed banking system, ready to lend capital for new factories.

This access to loans let entrepreneurs actually build and equip their industries at scale.

Statement II is also correct. Britain had built a strong transport network, especially through its canals.

During the canal-building boom of the late 1700s, these waterways cheaply moved coal, raw materials, and finished goods.

This combination of easy financing and efficient transport gave British industry a genuine head start.

So both statements genuinely hold true, making option (c) the answer.

Related: WorldHist0039 — The Industrial Revolution: Inventions and Inventors · Source: Wikipedia, History of the British Canal System

Answer: (c) Both I and II

Bloody Sunday, in January 1905, saw troops fire on peaceful protesters in St Petersburg, triggering the 1905 Revolution. That same year, professionals formed the Union of Unions and demanded a Constituent Assembly — an early rehearsal for 1917.

Related: WorldHist0022 — The Russian Revolution of 1917

Answer: (a) Lord Dalhousie

Lord Dalhousie advocated building the first railways in India, partly to move the British army quickly. Lytton, Churchill and Wellesley are different figures.

Related: ModHist0057 — Lord Dalhousie: The Doctrine of Lapse, Railways and Annexation · View this question →

Answer: (c) in one of the adjoining rooms on the eastern side

A dedicated well chamber sits just east of the Great Bath tank, lined with wedge-shaped bricks to draw groundwater and fill the pool. It was not inside the tank itself or on a staircase.

Source: Harappa.com, The Great Bath of Mohenjo-daro. Related: ArtnCulture0049 — Indus Valley Town Planning.

Answer: (d) I, II and III

Moodabidri, in coastal Karnataka, is often called the Jain Kashi, with 18 old Jain temples called basadis.

Sonagiri, near Gwalior in Madhya Pradesh, is dotted with over a hundred Jain temples spread across two hills.

Madurai is famous for its Hindu Meenakshi temple, but the district also holds real, ancient Jain heritage.

Nearby villages like Mangulam and Arittapatti have Jain monks’ rock-cut caves dating back over two thousand years.

These caves carry some of the earliest known Tamil-Brahmi inscriptions, recording gifts to Jain monks.

So genuine Jain pilgrimage heritage exists at all three towns, making option (d) the answer.

(Source: Wikipedia, Mangulam)

Answer: (d) I, II and III

Statement I is correct. Harappan bead-makers used a wide range of materials, including carnelian, quartz and steatite.

Statement II is correct. Excavated beads come in several distinct shapes, including cylindrical, barrel-shaped and disc-shaped.

Statement III is correct. Craftsmen used specialized drills to bore neat holes through even very hard stones like carnelian.

At sites like Chanhudaro, a special drill made from an extremely hard stone was used for this precise, repeated task.

So all three statements genuinely describe Harappan bead-making, making option (d) the answer.

Related: ArtnCulture0051 — Indus Valley Trade: The Lothal Dockyard and Mesopotamian Contact

(Source: GeeksforGeeks, Craft Production of Harappan Civilization)

Answer: (a) I and II only

Statement I is correct. The Second Five-Year Plan (1956-61) explicitly aimed to build a socialistic pattern of society.

This plan pushed rapid industrialisation, especially heavy industry, following the Congress’s 1955 Avadi resolution.

Statement II is correct. After the Third Plan ended in 1966, India took a break from five-year plans.

Instead, it ran three separate one-year Annual Plans, covering 1966-67, 1967-68, and 1968-69, often called the Plan Holiday.

Statement III is wrong on the year. The Ninth Five-Year Plan actually began in 1997, the 50th year of independence, not the 60th year.

So only statements I and II genuinely hold true, making option (a) the answer.

Related: IndEco0050 — India’s Five Year Plans

(Source: Wikipedia, Ninth Five-Year Plan)

Answer: (a) I and II only

Statement I is correct. Article 148 of the Constitution says the President appoints the CAG.

Statement II is also correct. Once a CAG leaves office, they cannot hold any further post under the Government of India.

This rule protects the CAG’s independence, removing any incentive to please the government while still in office.

Statement III is wrong on one detail. Article 151 says CAG reports on Union accounts go to the President, not the Prime Minister.

The President then causes these reports to be laid before Parliament, completing the accountability chain.

So only statements I and II genuinely hold true, making option (a) the answer.

Related: Polity0058 — The CAG and Finance Commission

(Source: Comptroller and Auditor General of India, Constitutional Provisions)

Answer: (b) I, III, II, IV

India’s official Table of Precedence ranks the Vice President second, right after the President.

The Prime Minister comes next at rank three, ahead of every other office listed here.

Governors rank fourth, but only within their own respective States, not nationwide.

The Speaker of the Lok Sabha sits lower still, tied with the Chief Justice of India at rank six.

So the correct ceremonial order here is Vice President, Prime Minister, Governor, then Speaker.

That sequence is I, III, II, IV, making option (b) the answer.

(Source: Delhi Legislative Assembly, Warrant of Precedence Issued by the President’s Secretariat)

Answer: (c) Three

Part IXA = Municipalities (I, correct), Part IXB = Cooperative Societies (II, correct), Part X = Relations between Union and States (III, WRONG — that is Part XI, not Part X), Part XII = Finance/Property/Contracts/Suits (IV, correct). Three are correct, so (c).

Answer: (a) One

Pair I is correct. Goal 1 genuinely is to end poverty in all its forms everywhere.

Pair II is wrong. Goal 2 is actually about ending hunger and improving nutrition, not healthy lives.

Ensuring healthy lives and well-being is actually Goal 3, not Goal 2.

Pair III is wrong. Ensuring quality education is actually Goal 4, not Goal 3.

Pair IV is wrong. Achieving gender equality is actually Goal 5, not Goal 4.

Each of these three pairs has simply been shifted one goal number too early.

So only the first pair is genuinely correct, making option (a) the answer.

Related: EnvEco0013 — Sustainable Development

(Source: United Nations, The 17 Sustainable Development Goals)

Answer: (c) Both I and II

Statement I is correct. Article 109 says a Money Bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha, never the Rajya Sabha.

Statement II is also correct. Once the Lok Sabha passes a Money Bill, it goes to the Rajya Sabha for just 14 days.

In that time, the Rajya Sabha can only recommend changes, not reject or block the bill outright.

The Lok Sabha is then free to accept or ignore those recommendations entirely, as it chooses.

So both statements genuinely hold true, making option (c) the answer.

Related: Polity0243 — Article 110: Money Bill Definition

(Source: Constitution of India, Article 109 — Special Procedure in Respect of Money Bills)

Answer: (d) Neither I nor II

The Speaker does adjourn the House sine die, but the Constitution does not say so explicitly in those words (I wrong). On prorogation, it is the PRESIDENT — not the Speaker — who summons the Houses (II wrong). So (d).

Answer: (c) Three

Pair I is correct. UNMOGIP observes the ceasefire line between India and Pakistan in Jammu and Kashmir.

Pair II is correct. UNFICYP has kept peace in Cyprus since 1964, following the island’s ethnic conflict.

Pair III is correct. UNMIK administered Kosovo after the 1999 conflict there.

Pair IV is wrong. UNTSO actually operates in the Middle East, not Haiti, monitoring truces since 1948.

Haiti instead had its own separate UN missions, like MINUSTAH, nothing to do with UNTSO.

So three of the four pairs are genuinely correct, making option (c) the answer.

Related: IntlRel0146 — UN Peacekeeping Missions: India’s Role and Notable Deployments

(Source: United Nations Peacekeeping, UNTSO)

Answer: (a) One

Pair I is wrong. Lakshadweep actually falls under the Kerala High Court, not the Calcutta High Court.

Pair II is correct. Puducherry genuinely falls under the Madras High Court, alongside Tamil Nadu.

Pair III is wrong. Manipur got its own separate High Court in 2013, so Gauhati High Court no longer covers it.

Before 2013, Gauhati High Court did cover Manipur, but that arrangement has since ended.

Pair IV is wrong. Andaman and Nicobar Islands actually fall under the Calcutta High Court, not Kerala.

So only the second pair is genuinely correct, making option (a) the answer.

Related: Polity0053 — High Courts and Subordinate Courts

(Source: Wikipedia, Manipur High Court)

Answer: (a) a Judge of the Supreme Court

Article 324(5) gives the Chief Election Commissioner the same removal protection as a sitting Supreme Court judge — removable only by Parliament, on proved misbehaviour or incapacity, not by ordinary executive action. Source: Article 324, Constitution of India. Related: Polity0057 — The Election Commission and Electoral Reforms.

Answer: (a) I only

Statement I is correct: the BrahMos Cruise Missile is jointly developed by India’s DRDO and Russia’s NPO Mashinostroyeniya (NPOM). Statement II is false: the Indo-Russia Rifles Private Limited (IRRPL) joint venture that manufactures AK-203 rifles is located at Korwa in Amethi district, Uttar Pradesh, not Madhya Pradesh.

Related: IntlRel0007 — India’s Relations with Major Developed Powers

Answer: (d) The Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation

The Ministry of Home Affairs is actually made up of six departments.

These are Internal Security, States, Home, Jammu Kashmir and Ladakh Affairs, Border Management, and Official Language.

The Department of States handles Centre-State relations and Union Territory administration.

The Department of Official Language enforces the constitutional rules on languages and the Official Languages Act, 1963.

The Department of Border Management looks after international and coastal border security.

Drinking Water and Sanitation, however, is a completely separate ministry, dealing with water supply and hygiene, not internal security or governance.

So this department does not sit under the Ministry of Home Affairs, making option (d) the answer.

Related: Polity0382 — Ministry of Home Affairs: Structure and Functions · (Source: Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India, Departments of MHA)

Answer: (b) NITI Aayog

The Atal Innovation Mission is a flagship initiative of NITI Aayog, not the Department of Science and Technology, the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation, or the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.

Related: IndEco0153 — Atal Innovation Mission

Answer: (b) Lucknow

UNESCO announced its latest batch of Creative Cities on 31 October 2025, adding 58 cities worldwide.

Lucknow joined this list under the Gastronomy category, becoming only the second Indian city to earn this tag, after Hyderabad in 2019.

The recognition celebrates Lucknow’s centuries-old Awadhi cuisine, including its famous kebabs, biryanis, and traditional sweets.

Agra, Indore, and Ludhiana are not part of the UNESCO Creative Cities Network at all.

So Lucknow is the correct city here, making option (b) the answer.

Related: IntlRel0167 — UNESCO Creative Cities Network and India · (Source: UNESCO, Lucknow Joins UNESCO Creative Cities Network as a City of Gastronomy)

Answer: (c) Textile

PM MITRA stands for Mega Integrated Textile Region and Apparel Parks. Seven such parks were approved in 2022, spread across seven states, to build integrated textile value chains from raw fibre to finished garment.

Related: IndEco0112 — Textile Industry in India

Answer: (a) Timor-Leste

On 26 October 2025, at the 47th ASEAN Summit in Kuala Lumpur, Timor-Leste officially joined ASEAN.

This marked ASEAN’s first expansion since 1999, growing the bloc from ten members to eleven.

Timor-Leste had first applied for membership back in 2011, then waited through years of a roadmap and observer status.

Vietnam, Brunei, and Cambodia are all long-standing ASEAN members already, not new entrants in 2025.

So Timor-Leste is the correct answer here, making option (a) correct.

Related: IntlRel0166 — ASEAN: Association of Southeast Asian Nations · (Source: ASEAN, Forging a New Era: Timor-Leste Admitted into ASEAN)

Answer: (a) Vidarbha

Vidarbha beat Kerala in the 2024-25 Ranji Trophy final, played at Jamtha, Nagpur, from late February 2025.

The match itself ended as a draw, but Vidarbha had taken a first-innings lead, so they were declared champions.

Danish Malewar and Karun Nair both batted well for Vidarbha across the match.

This was Vidarbha’s third Ranji Trophy title overall, making them only the sixth team to win it three or more times.

Karnataka and Saurashtra did not even reach this particular final.

So Vidarbha is the correct answer here, making option (a) correct.

Related: GK0011 — Cricket in India

(Source: ESPNcricinfo, Ranji Trophy 2024-25 Final Match Report)

Answer: (b) Jakarta, Dhaka, Tokyo, New Delhi, Manila

The UN’s 2025 World Urbanization Prospects introduced a new way to measure city size, called Degree of Urbanization.

Instead of stitching together each country’s own definition, it uses satellite data to measure population density directly.

Under this new method, Jakarta comes out as the world’s single largest city, overtaking Tokyo for the first time.

Dhaka ranks second, followed by Tokyo in third place, a big change from older rankings that had Tokyo on top.

New Delhi comes next, followed by Manila further down the list among these five cities.

So the correct descending order is Jakarta, Dhaka, Tokyo, New Delhi, Manila, making option (b) the answer.

(Source: NBC News, Move Aside Tokyo, The World Has a New Largest City)

Answer: (d) I, II, III and IV

Germanwatch released its Climate Risk Index 2026 at COP30, covering extreme weather losses from 1995 to 2024.

The report places India in a special “continuous threats” group, alongside the Philippines, Nicaragua, and Haiti.

This group covers countries hit by recurring, severe extreme weather events almost every single year over the full 30-year period.

India alone recorded over 430 extreme weather events, more than 80,000 deaths, and about 170 billion dollars in losses.

So all four listed countries genuinely belong to this recurring-events group, making option (d) the answer.

(Source: Germanwatch, Climate Risk Index 2026)

Answer: (c) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

Operation Kaveri evacuated Indians from Sudan in 2023, during heavy fighting there. That is A-IV.

Operation Indravati evacuated Indians from Haiti in 2024, after armed gangs seized parts of the country. That is B-II.

Operation Ajay evacuated Indians from Israel in 2023, after the Israel-Hamas conflict broke out. That is C-I.

Operation Ganga evacuated Indians from Ukraine in 2022, right after Russia’s invasion began. That is D-III.

So the correct matching code is A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III, making option (c) the answer.

(Source: Wikipedia, Operation Kaveri)