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The Supreme Court — MCQs with Answers (Set 3)

The Supreme Court sits at the very top of India’s judicial system. It began in 1950 with just eight judges. Today it has thirty-eight. But its central job has never changed. It is the final court of appeal, and the guardian of the Constitution.

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Q1. Which law did the Supreme Court hold now governs intestate succession for Indian Christians in the former Travancore territory?

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Answer: C

The Court declared that Chapter II of Part V of the Indian Succession Act, 1925 applies.

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Q2. In which year did the Supreme Court decide Mary Roy v. State of Kerala?

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Answer: B

The Supreme Court decided the case on 24 February 1986. The bench was led by Chief Justice P.N. Bhagwati.

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Q3. The Supreme Court restored P. Venugopal as AIIMS Director in 2008 after finding a proviso unconstitutional. Which Article of the Constitution did the case turn on?

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Answer: B

The answer is Article 14. It guarantees equality before law. The Court struck down the proviso as ultra vires and unconstitutional. Why the others fail: Article 19 is freedom, Article 21 is life and liberty, Article 32 is the right to move the Supreme Court. Memory hook: unequal treatment, Article 14.

Related topics: The Supreme Court · Article 32 of the Constitution · Article 19 of the Constitution · Article 21A of the Constitution

Q4. In October 2026, the Supreme Court refused to restore Andhra Pradesh’s 34% Backward Classes quota in local bodies. On what ground was the quota struck down?

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Answer: C

The answer is that the State gave no specific empirical data to justify crossing the 50% ceiling. The Court said a unified family survey was not enough.

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Q5. Under the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Bill, 2026, what will be the total strength of the Supreme Court, including the CJI?

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Answer: C

The Bill raises judges other than the CJI from 33 to 37. With the CJI, the total becomes 38.

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Q6. In August 2026, the Supreme Court directed how many States and UTs to declare cancer a notifiable disease?

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Answer: B

17 of 36 States and UTs had already notified cancer. The court directed the other 19 to do so.

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Q7. In August 2026, the Supreme Court reduced the mandatory legal practice for the Civil Judge (Junior Division) exam from three years to:

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Answer: C

By a 2:1 majority, the Court kept the practice rule but cut it from three years to one.

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Q8. In July 2026, the Supreme Court quashed a 2021 Office Memorandum in Vanashakti vs Union of India. What did that memorandum deal with?

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Answer: B

The 2021 Office Memorandum set a procedure for post-facto clearance of ‘violation’ projects. These had started work without prior environmental clearance. The court quashed it on 29 July 2026, but let pending cases be decided.

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Q9. Which one of the following is not true about the powers of the Supreme Court?

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Answer: D

The answer is the claim of exclusive writ power. High Courts also hold writ jurisdiction to protect fundamental rights under Article 226, so the Supreme Court’s power under Article 32 isn’t exclusive.

Related topics: The Supreme Court · The President of India · Article 137: Review and Curative Petitions at the Supreme Court · Judges of the Supreme Court of India

Q10. Which one of the following statements about the Supreme Court is not correct?

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Answer: A

The answer is the claim citing both Article 129 and 144 for contempt power. Article 129 alone grants the contempt power; Article 144 simply requires civil and judicial authorities to assist the Supreme Court, unrelated to contempt.

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Q11. Which one of the following powers of the Supreme Court is also conferred on a High Court?

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Answer: C

The answer is the power of court of record. Both the Supreme Court (Article 129) and High Courts (Article 215) are designated courts of record with the power to punish for contempt.

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Q12. Which of the following are the powers of the Supreme Court of India? 1. Original jurisdiction in a dispute between the Government of India and one or more States 2. The power to hear appeals from the High Courts 3. Passing decrees and orders for doing justice in any matter before it 4. Render advice to the President of India in matters of law. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

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Answer: A

The answer is 1, 2, 3 and 4. These correspond respectively to the Supreme Court’s original jurisdiction (Article 131), appellate jurisdiction, complete-justice power (Article 142), and advisory jurisdiction (Article 143).

Related topics: The Supreme Court · The President of India

Q13. The judgement of the Supreme Court of India in the Vishakha Case pertains to

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Answer: A

The answer is sexual harassment in the workplace. The 1997 Vishakha judgment laid down guidelines to protect women from workplace harassment, later codified into law.

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Q14. Which one of the following criteria is not required to be qualified for appointment as Judge of the Supreme Court?

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Answer: D

The answer is twenty years as a Sub-Judicial Magistrate. The Constitution’s actual qualifying routes are five years as an HC judge, ten years as an HC advocate, or being a distinguished jurist in the President’s opinion.

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Q15. Which law prescribes that all proceedings in the Supreme Court shall be in English language?

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Answer: B

The answer is Article 348. It requires that all proceedings in the Supreme Court and High Courts be conducted in English, until Parliament decides otherwise.

Related topics: The Supreme Court · Article 143 of the Constitution · Article 148 of the Constitution

Q16. In the Indian judicial system, writs are issued by

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Answer: C

The answer is the Supreme Court and High Courts only, under Articles 32 and 226 respectively. Lower courts have no writ jurisdiction.

Related topics: The Supreme Court · High Courts and Subordinate Courts

Q17. The power of the Supreme Court to decide in the case of a dispute between two or more States is called

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Answer: A

The answer is original jurisdiction. Under Article 131, only the Supreme Court can hear disputes directly between states or between the Centre and states.

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Q19. Which one of the following is the correct statement of the decision in D.C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar?

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Answer: B

In D.C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar (1987), the Supreme Court held that repeated re-promulgation of an ordinance without placing it before the Legislature is unconstitutional — a ‘colourable’ use of the ordinance power.

Related topics: The Supreme Court · Article 123: President’s Ordinance-Making Power · The Governor: Office, Powers and Immunities

Q20. In its 2024 handling of Kerala’s borrowing-limit suit, what did the Supreme Court eventually do?

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Answer: C

On 12 March 2024 the Court urged the Union to relax Kerala’s limit as a one-time measure, then on 1 April 2024 rejected interim relief and referred the case to a five-judge Constitution Bench, where it remains pending.

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Q21. Kerala challenged the Union’s borrowing-limit letter at the Supreme Court using which Article’s original jurisdiction over Centre-State disputes?

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Answer: A

Kerala filed its case under Article 131, which gives the Supreme Court original jurisdiction over disputes between the Union and a State. The case, State of Kerala v. Union of India, was registered as Original Suit No. 1 of 2024.

Related topics: The Supreme Court · Article 143 of the Constitution · Article 131 of the Constitution · Article 244 of the Constitution

Q22. In March 2023, the Union set a Net Borrowing Ceiling (NBC) for Kerala under Article 293. What was that ceiling?

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Answer: B

In March 2023, the Union capped Kerala’s Net Borrowing Ceiling at 3% of its projected GSDP for 2023-24, about ₹32,442 crore — the cap Kerala challenged at the Supreme Court.

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Q23. Which 1994 case sharply narrowed sovereign immunity, limiting it only to ‘primary and inalienable’ functions such as justice, law and order, and defence?

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Answer: C

In N. Nagendra Rao & Co. v. State of AP (1994), the Supreme Court narrowed sovereign immunity to only ‘primary and inalienable’ functions. Welfare and regulatory functions, like licensing or seizing goods under a trade law, no longer carry sovereign immunity.

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