CAPF (ACs) 2026 — General Ability and Intelligence (Full Question Paper)

History & CultureGeographyEnvironment & EcologyScience & TechPolity & GovernanceEconomyInt'l Relations & DefenceEthics & AptitudeReasoning & Aptitude

Questions 1–10

1.Int'l Relations & Defence

Which one of the following statements about 'SB 64' is correct?

(a)It is a long-range intercontinental ballistic missile that could be armed with nuclear warhead.
(b)It was a submarine destroyed in the Strait of Hormuz recently.
(c)It is an informal group of 64 companies committed to manufacturing only environmentally sustainable brands.
(d)It refers to the sixty-fourth session of the Subsidiary Body for Scientific and Technological Advice and the Subsidiary Body for Implementation of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).

Answer: (d) It refers to the sixty-fourth session of the Subsidiary Body for Scientific and Technological Advice and the Subsidiary Body for Implementation of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).

SB 64 ran from 8 to 18 June 2026, in Bonn, Germany. It was not a missile, a submarine, or a company group.

2.Environment & Ecology

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1.As per the Renewable Energy Statistics, 2026, India ranks third globally in Renewable Energy Installed Capacity.
2.India ranks fourth globally in terms of Global Installed Wind Turbine Capacity.

Select the answer using the code given below.

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

India ranks 3rd globally in renewable energy installed capacity, behind China and the US. India also ranks 4th globally in installed wind power capacity, behind China, the US, and Germany.

3.History & Culture

Raghu Rai, who passed away recently, was

(a)an educationist
(b)a sports person
(c)an eminent photographer
(d)a theatre personality

Answer: (c) an eminent photographer

Raghu Rai was one of India’s most celebrated photographers, documenting Indian culture and history for over 60 years. He died on 26 April 2026, aged 83.

4.History & Culture

Which of the following statements about Ol Chiki script is/are correct?

1.The Government of India recently celebrated two hundred years of the development of this script.
2.This script has been used for the Santhali language.

Select the answer using the code given below.

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

The Ol Chiki script is genuinely used for the Santhali language. But the Government of India marked its centenary, 100 years, in February 2026, not 200 years.

5.Science & Tech

Which of the following statements about the Black Swan Summit India, 2026 is/are correct?

1.It was jointly organized by the Government of Odisha and the Government of Andhra Pradesh for jointly promoting the two States as AI and FinTech hubs.
2.It was organized under the BharatNetra Initiative.

Select the answer using the code given below.

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

The Black Swan Summit India 2026 was held in Bhubaneswar on 6 February 2026, organized by the Government of Odisha with the Global Finance and Technology Network, not Andhra Pradesh. It was held under the BharatNetra Initiative.

6.Science & Tech

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1.Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant 3 and 4 are being set up in India in cooperation with the Russian Federation.
2.Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant 5 and 6 are being set up in India in cooperation with the USA.

Select the answer using the code given below.

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

All six Kudankulam reactors are a Russian collaboration, with Rosatom. Units 3 and 4 are correctly linked to Russia. Units 5 and 6 are also being built with Russia, not the USA.

7.Polity & Governance

The Sustainable Harnessing and Advancement of Nuclear Energy for Transforming India (SHANTI) Act, 2025 allows private sector participation, under a license from the Central Government, to undertake which of the following?

1.Plant operations
2.Power generation
3.Equipment manufacturing

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a)1, 2 and 3
(b)1 and 2 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)3 only

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3

The SHANTI Act, 2025 permits licensed private companies to undertake plant operations, power generation, and equipment manufacturing. It reserves sensitive activities, like nuclear-material enrichment and spent-fuel management, for the Central Government.

8.Polity & Governance

Consider the following statements with reference to the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Act, 2025:

1.The Central Government shall take necessary steps to recognize and register e-sports with the agency and authority, as the case may be, as a legitimate form of competitive sports in India.
2.The Central Government shall facilitate the development and availability of online social games for recreational and educational purposes.
3.This Act prohibits 'online money game' and 'online money gaming services'.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1, 2 and 3
(b)1 and 3 only
(c)2 only
(d)3 only

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3

All three statements are correct. The Act, enforced from 1 May 2026, recognises e-sports as a competitive sport, promotes online social games for recreation and learning, and bans online money games entirely.

9.Int'l Relations & Defence

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1.LAMITIYE-2026 was a joint military exercise between India and Seychelles.
2.DUSTLIK was a joint military exercise between India and Azerbaijan.
3.Cyclone-IV was a joint military exercise between India and Israel.

Select the answer using the code given below.

(a)1, 2 and 3
(b)1 and 3 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1 only

Answer: (d) 1 only

LAMITIYE-2026 is genuinely India-Seychelles. DUSTLIK is actually India-Uzbekistan, not Azerbaijan. Cyclone-IV is actually India-Egypt, not Israel.

10.History & Culture

Which of the following statements with regard to Mundial do Queijo do Brasil 2026 is/are correct?

1.It was an international competition for cheese and dairy products.
2.Four Indian products won medals at the competition.

Select the answer using the code given below.

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Mundial do Queijo do Brasil 2026 is an international cheese and dairy competition. Four Indian cheese products won medals, including a Super Gold for a brie-style cheese from Gulmarg.

Questions 11–20

11.Economy

Consider the following statements about India's labour reforms introduced in 2025:

1.The Industrial Relations Code, 2020 introduces Re-skilling Fund by an industrial establishment which is equal to 15 days wages for every worker retrenched in addition to the retrenchment compensation, and has to be credited in the worker's account within 45 days of retrenchment.
2.With respect to Trade Union Recognition, any union with 41% membership shall get recognition as the Negotiating Union.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Statement 1 is correct: the Re-skilling Fund pays 15 days wages within 45 days, on top of retrenchment compensation. Statement 2 is wrong — a union needs 51% membership, not 41%, to become the sole Negotiating Union.

12.Economy

In the context of labour market of an economy, consider the following statements:

1.Labour Force Participation Rate is defined as the share of employed and unemployed workers to the total working-age population.
2.Worker Population Ratio is defined as the share of unemployed workers to the total working-age population.
3.The usual activity status of a person is determined on the basis of the activities pursued by the person during the specified reference period of the last 365 days preceding the date of survey.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

Statement 2 is wrong: the Worker Population Ratio counts only EMPLOYED persons against the working-age population, not unemployed ones. Statements 1 and 3 correctly describe the Labour Force Participation Rate and the 365-day usual-status reference period.

13.Economy

What does the term 'Orange Economy' refer to?

(a)Economic activities linked to creativity, culture and intellectual property that generate income and jobs
(b)Economic activities linked to desert ecosystems and their unique socio-environmental characteristics
(c)Economic activities linked to the aging population, including health care, leisure, and services for older adults
(d)Informal, unaccounted, or illegal economic activities that evade taxation and regulation

Answer: (a) Economic activities linked to creativity, culture and intellectual property that generate income and jobs

The Orange Economy covers creative, cultural, and IP-driven activities like film, music, design, and publishing. The term was coined in a 2013 book by economists Felipe Buitrago and Ivan Duque.

14.Economy

India stands at number one at global level in the production of which of the following items?

1.Milk
2.Steel
3.Wheat

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)1, 2 and 3
(c)1 only
(d)2 only

Answer: (c) 1 only

India is the world’s largest milk producer. But India ranks only 2nd in both steel and wheat production, behind China in both.

15.Environment & Ecology

Which one among the following elements is not a part of the 'Panchamrit' of India's climate action presented at COP-26?

(a)Achieving 50 percent of its energy requirements from renewable energy by 2030
(b)Achieving the target of net zero emissions by 2047
(c)Reduction of the carbon intensity of the economy by 45 percent by 2030, over the 2005 levels
(d)Reduction of total projected carbon emissions by one billion tonnes by 2030

Answer: (b) Achieving the target of net zero emissions by 2047

India’s real net-zero pledge, the fifth Panchamrit element, targets 2070, not 2047 — the other three options (50% renewables, 45% carbon intensity cut, 1 billion tonnes emissions cut, all by 2030) are genuine Panchamrit pledges. Related: EnvEco0008 — Energy Resources.

16.Economy

Consider the following statements about the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme:

1.It aims to increase the share of manufacturing sector in India's GDP to 25% and claims its place among the world's leading industrial economies.
2.The scheme extends an incentive of 10% to 14% on incremental sales for a period of five years subsequent to the base year.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

PLI pays a percentage incentive on incremental sales, so statement 2 is correct. The 25% manufacturing-share-of-GDP target belongs to the National Manufacturing Mission, not to PLI, so statement 1 is not correct.

17.Economy

Consider the following statements about the Global Innovation Index:

1.It was launched in 2007.
2.India has moved up from 81st rank in 2015 to 38th rank in 2025.
3.India, Bangladesh and Indonesia are the top three innovation economies in the category of Lower Middle Income Group as per the Global Innovation Index Report, 2025.
4.France, Germany and the United States of America are the top three innovation economies in the category of High Income Group as per the Global Innovation Index Report, 2025.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)1, 2 and 3
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)3 and 4 only

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Statements 1 and 2 are correct: the GII launched in 2007, and India rose from 81st (2015) to 38th (2025). Statement 3 is wrong — India and Vietnam are the top lower-middle-income performers, not Bangladesh and Indonesia. Statement 4 is also wrong — the actual top three High Income economies are Switzerland, Sweden, and the US.

18.Economy

Consider the following investments in an economy by a foreign company:

1.Purchase of the ownership of a transport company
2.Setting up a new company to produce transport equipment
3.Acquisition of a Public Sector Unit
4.Building a storage facility to expand the production capacity

Which of the above are examples of brownfield investments?

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)1, 2 and 3
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)2, 3 and 4

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

Brownfield investment means taking over something that already exists. Buying an existing company and acquiring a PSU are both brownfield. Setting up a new company and building new capacity are greenfield investments instead.

19.Economy

Consider the following statements about Ways and Means Advances (WMA):

1.WMA is a provision in which the Reserve Bank of India provides long-term loans to the State Governments/UT Governments and Central Government.
2.WMA is a provision in which the Reserve Bank of India provides short-term loans to the State Governments/UT Governments and Central Government.
3.WMA was introduced in 1997.
4.Interest rate charged by the RBI on WMA is the same as the bank rate.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)1 and 3 only
(c)2 and 3
(d)1, 3 and 4

Answer: (c) 2 and 3

WMA gives short-term loans, not long-term. It was introduced in 1997. Interest is charged at the repo rate, not the bank rate.

20.Economy

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I (Interest Rate System of the RBI): A. Marginal Cost of Funds-based Lending Rate; B. Base Rate; C. External Benchmark Lending Rate; D. Benchmark Prime Lending Rate. List-II (Year of Introduction): 1. 2003; 2. 2019; 3. 2016; 4. 2010

Code:

(a)A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
(b)A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
(c)A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
(d)A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3

Answer: (b) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1

The correct chronological order is: Benchmark Prime Lending Rate (2003), Base Rate (2010), MCLR (2016), External Benchmark Lending Rate (2019). Each system replaced the one before it.

Questions 21–30

21.Economy

Consider the following statements about the Special Drawing Facility (SDF):

1.It makes provision of short-term loans by the RBI to the State Governments/UT Governments against Government Securities.
2.Interest rate charged by the RBI on it is the same as Repo Rate.
3.It can be availed by the State Governments/UT Governments only after exhausting the normal Ways and Means Advances limit.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1, 2 and 3
(b)1 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)2 and 3 only

Answer: (b) 1 only

SDF genuinely gives short-term loans to states against government securities. But its interest rate is below the repo rate, not equal to it, and states use SDF before exhausting WMA, not after.

22.Economy

As per the 2023-24 data on the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) published by the NITI Aayog, which one of the following States has a lower value of SDGs score than the all-India score?

(a)Maharashtra
(b)Rajasthan
(c)Gujarat
(d)Telangana

Answer: (b) Rajasthan

The all-India SDG India Index score for 2023-24 was 71. Rajasthan scored 67, below that average. Maharashtra (73), Gujarat (74), and Telangana (74) all scored above it.

23.Economy

Consider the following statements in the context of the Union Budget, 2026-27:

1.The Gross Tax Revenue of the Central Government is estimated to be 11.2 percent of the GDP.
2.The Direct Tax Revenue of the Central Government is less than its Indirect Tax Revenue.
3.The Effective Capital Expenditure is lower than the Capital Expenditure.
4.The tariff rate on all dutiable goods imported for personal use will be reduced from 20 percent to 10 percent.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)1, 2 and 3
(c)4 only
(d)1 and 4

Answer: (d) 1 and 4

Gross Tax Revenue is 11.2% of GDP, and personal-use import tariffs were cut from 20% to 10% — both correct. But Direct Tax (6.9% of GDP) is actually higher than Indirect Tax (4.3%), and Effective Capital Expenditure (₹17.15 lakh crore) is actually higher than plain Capital Expenditure (₹12.22 lakh crore) — the reverse of both claims.

24.Economy

Which one of the following systems has been adopted by the Government of India to improve cash management, reduce idle balance, enhance transparency and strengthen expenditure efficiency as a major public financial management system reform?

(a)Paper-Based Clearing System
(b)Decentralized Account Management System
(c)Just-in-Time Fund Release System
(d)Asset Management and Tracking System

Answer: (c) Just-in-Time Fund Release System

The Just-in-Time (JIT) system releases funds only when actually needed, instead of in advance. This reduces idle cash and improves transparency, implemented through PFMS and the Single Nodal Agency model.

25.Economy

'Anna Chakra' PDS Supply Chain Optimization is an initiative launched by the Government of India to enhance the efficiency of the PDS logistics network across the country. Which one of the following Indian institutions collaborated with the United Nations World Food Programme to develop this system?

(a)The Indian Institute of Technology Madras
(b)The Indian Institute of Science
(c)The Defence Research and Development Organization
(d)The Indian Institute of Technology Delhi

Answer: (d) The Indian Institute of Technology Delhi

‘Anna Chakra’ was developed by IIT Delhi’s Public Systems Lab, working with the UN World Food Programme. It optimises foodgrain logistics for over 4 lakh Fair Price Shops nationwide.

26.History & Culture

Which one among the following events of Indian history was the earliest to take place?

(a)Dandi March
(b)Chauri Chaura Incident
(c)Partition of Bengal
(d)Champaran Satyagraha

Answer: (c) Partition of Bengal

The Partition of Bengal happened in 1905, well before the others. Champaran Satyagraha was 1917, the Chauri Chaura Incident was 1922, and the Dandi March was 1930.

27.History & Culture

Consider the following statements:

1.The first book in the Tamil script was printed in 1578.
2.The first printing press at Bombay was imported from England by the efforts of Bhimji Parikh.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Thambiran Vanakkam, the first Tamil-script book, was printed in 1578. Bhimji Parikh personally requested a printing press from the East India Company, and it arrived in Bombay from England in 1674-75.

28.History & Culture

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I (Sufi Work): A. Kashf-ul Mahjub; B. Fawa'id-al Fu'ad; C. Siyar-ul Auliya; D. Maktubat-i Imam Rabbani. List-II (Nature of Composition): 1. Biographical accounts of saints; 2. Manuals dealing with Sufi thought; 3. Letters of Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi; 4. Conversations of Shaikh Nizamuddin Auliya

Code:

(a)A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
(b)A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
(c)A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
(d)A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

Answer: (c) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

Kashf-ul Mahjub, by Ali Hujwiri, is an early Persian manual of Sufi thought. Fawa'id-al Fu'ad records the conversations of Shaikh Nizamuddin Auliya. Siyar-ul Auliya is a biographical (tazkira) work on Sufi saints. Maktubat-i Imam Rabbani collects the letters of Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi. Related: MedHist0036 — The Naqshbandi Order of Sufism · MedHist0047 — Ali Hujwiri (Data Ganj Bakhsh).

29.History & Culture

Which one of the following statements about the 'Amara-Nayaka' system is not correct?

(a)The Amara-Nayaka system was a major political innovation of the Vijayanagara Empire.
(b)The Amara-Nayakas were military commanders who were given territories to govern by the Raya.
(c)The Amara-Nayakas collected taxes and retained part of the revenue for personal use and for maintaining their contingents.
(d)The territories held by the Amara-Nayakas were hereditary and were therefore non-transferrable.

Answer: (d) is NOT correct

The territories were not hereditary. The Raya could transfer Amara-Nayakas between territories at will, which is exactly what prevented them from becoming independent hereditary lords.

30.History & Culture

Which of the following is an offshoot of the Chaitanya tradition originating in Nadia in Bengal and followed by both Hindus and Muslims?

(a)Ekasarana Dharma
(b)Sahajiya
(c)Gaudiya Vaishnavism
(d)Baul

Answer: (d) Baul

The Baul tradition of Nadia, Bengal, is an offshoot of the Chaitanya bhakti movement, followed by both Hindus and Muslims. It blends Vaishnava devotion with Sufi mysticism.

Questions 31–40

31.History & Culture

Consider the following statements about the Zawar mines:

1.Zinc was present, mixed with ores of copper, lead and silver.
2.By the 14th century, zinc began to be isolated by the distillation method.
3.Abul Fazl described zinc as a newly discovered metal unknown to the ancients.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Zinc ore at Zawar occurred alongside copper, lead, and silver, and India’s distillation process for isolating zinc was established there well before the 14th century. Statement 3 is false: in the Ain-i-Akbari, Abul Fazl actually compares zinc to mercury and lead, not describes it as an unknown or newly discovered metal.

View this question →

32.History & Culture

Which one of the following does not find mention in the works of the astronomers of ancient India?

(a)Sun
(b)Mercury
(c)Uranus
(d)Venus

Answer: (c) Uranus

Ancient Indian texts like the Surya Siddhanta cover the Sun, Moon, and the five visible planets: Mercury, Venus, Mars, Jupiter, and Saturn. Uranus is not visible to the naked eye and was only discovered in 1781, using a telescope.

33.History & Culture

Which one among the following about Kodumanal is correct?

(a)An archaeological site in Tamil Nadu
(b)A Chera king
(c)An Alvar saint
(d)A celebrated dance form of South India

Answer: (a) An archaeological site in Tamil Nadu

Kodumanal is a Sangam-era archaeological site in Erode district, Tamil Nadu. It was a trade and craft hub known for iron, steel, and beads.

34.History & Culture

Which one of the following inscriptions refers to a confederacy of Tamil States?

(a)The Second Major Rock Edict of Ashoka
(b)Hathigumpha Inscription of Kharavela
(c)Allahabad Pillar Inscription of Samudragupta
(d)Junagadh Inscription of Rudradaman

Answer: (b) Hathigumpha Inscription of Kharavela

The Hathigumpha Inscription records that Kharavela destroyed a 113-year-old Tamil confederacy. It calls this league 'Tramira desha Sanghatam'.

35.History & Culture

Who among the following Vedic deities was considered the guardian of compacts and marriages?

(a)Marut
(b)Varuna
(c)Aryaman
(d)Agni

Answer: (c) Aryaman

Aryaman, one of the Aditya gods, was the guardian of social bonds, hospitality and marriage. He is invoked as a divine witness in the Rigveda’s own marriage hymn (RV 10.85). Varuna guarded cosmic and moral order more broadly, Marut led the storm gods, and Agni was the fire god who carried offerings to the gods.

36.History & Culture

In which one of the following Vedas does the term 'Gotra' appear for the first time as representing a clan?

(a)Rigveda
(b)Atharvaveda
(c)Samaveda
(d)Yajurveda

Answer: (b) Atharvaveda

The word Gotra first appears in the Rigveda, but only means a cattle-pen there. The Atharvaveda is the first text to use it for a clan.

Related: AncHist0094 — The Atharvaveda

37.History & Culture

The 'Descent of the Ganga' is a

(a)relief sculpture at Mamallapuram
(b)poem by Bhatti
(c)temple built by Rashtrakutas
(d)painting at Ajanta

Answer: (a) relief sculpture at Mamallapuram

The Descent of the Ganga, also called Arjuna's Penance, is a huge rock relief at Mamallapuram, carved by the Pallavas in the 7th century CE.

38.History & Culture

Who among the following Congressmen was not a member of the 'No-Changers' group?

(a)C. Rajagopalachari
(b)Rajendra Prasad
(c)Vithalbhai Patel
(d)Vallabhbhai Patel

Answer: (c) Vithalbhai Patel

Vithalbhai Patel was a Pro-Changer, not a No-Changer. He sided with C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru on council entry, unlike his brother Vallabhbhai Patel.

39.History & Culture

Arrange the following events in the correct chronological order:

1.Formation of the Azad Hind Government
2.Setting-up of the Indian Legion
3.Beginning of the INA trials
4.The Bombay Naval Strike

Select the answer using the code given below.

(a)2-1-3-4
(b)3-1-4-2
(c)2-1-4-3
(d)1-2-3-4

Answer: (a) 2-1-3-4

Indian Legion (1942), Azad Hind Government (Oct 1943), INA trials (Nov 1945), Bombay Naval Strike (Feb 1946).

40.History & Culture

Who among the following was appointed by the Constituent Assembly of India as Head of the Sub-Committee for North-East Frontier (Assam) Tribal and Excluded Areas?

(a)Gopinath Bordoloi
(b)Rupnath Brahma
(c)Bishnuram Medhi
(d)Tarun Ram Phukan

Answer: (a) Gopinath Bordoloi

Bordoloi chaired this Constituent Assembly sub-committee. Its work shaped the Fifth and Sixth Schedules for tribal and excluded areas.

Questions 41–50

41.Polity & Governance

The Universal Declaration of Human Rights adopted by the United Nations General Assembly Resolution of 1948 does not include

(a)right against arbitrary arrest
(b)right against slavery
(c)right against inhuman or degrading treatment
(d)right to rest and leisure

42.Polity & Governance

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I (Constitutional Amendment Act): A. The Constitution (One Hundred and Second Amendment) Act; B. The Constitution (One Hundred and Third Amendment) Act; C. The Constitution (One Hundred and Fourth Amendment) Act; D. The Constitution (One Hundred and Sixth Amendment) Act. List-II (Major Amendment): 1. Constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes; 2. Abolition of reservation of seats for Anglo-Indians in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies; 3. Ten percent reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) in the Central Government jobs; 4. Thirty-three percent reservation for women in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies

Code:

(a)A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(b)A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(c)A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
(d)A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1

Answer: (c) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4

The 102nd Amendment (2018) gave the National Commission for Backward Classes constitutional status. The 103rd (2019) introduced 10% EWS reservation. The 104th (2020) abolished the Anglo-Indian nominated seats while extending SC/ST reservation. The 106th (2023) reserved 33% of Lok Sabha and State Assembly seats for women. Source: 103rd Amendment, Wikipedia. Related: Polity0062 — Constitutional Amendment Procedure · Also related: Polity0108 — Caste Census: The Bihar Survey and the National Debate.

43.Polity & Governance

Which of the following statements about Public Interest Litigation (PIL) is/are correct?

1.In India, it adheres to the strict requirements imposed by the doctrine of locus standi.
2.Letters to judges may be treated as petitions.
3.M. C. Mehta vs. Union of India was a PIL that expanded the scope of Article 21 and Article 32 of the Constitution of India.

Select the answer using the code given below.

(a)1, 2 and 3
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)3 only
(d)1 and 2 only

Answer: (b)

Statement 1 is false: PIL did the opposite of adhering strictly to locus standi. It relaxed that doctrine, letting any public-spirited person approach the court on behalf of someone who cannot. Statement 2 is true (this informal channel is called epistolary jurisdiction). Statement 3 is true: M.C. Mehta’s PILs against industrial pollution expanded Article 21 (right to life, later read to include a healthy environment) and used Article 32 as the enforcement route. So only 2 and 3 are correct. (Source: Wikipedia)

44.Polity & Governance

Which of the following statements in respect of the election of the President of India is/are correct?

1.By convention, the Secretary General, Lok Sabha or the Secretary General, Rajya Sabha is appointed as the Returning Officer by rotation.
2.Members of the Electoral College can vote according to their wish and are not bound by any party whip.
3.The provisions of NOTA are applicable.

Select the answer using the code given below.

(a)1 and 2
(b)2 and 3
(c)1 and 3
(d)1 only

Answer: (a) 1 and 2

The Returning Officer role rotates between the two Secretaries General. Electors face no party whip. NOTA does not apply, since this is an indirect election.

45.Polity & Governance

Which one of the following pairs of Ministries and Departments is not correctly matched?

(a)The Ministry of Finance : The Department of Pension and Pensioners' Welfare
(b)The Ministry of Home Affairs : The Department of Official Language
(c)The Ministry of Defence : The Department of Ex-Servicemen Welfare
(d)The Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers : The Department of Pharmaceuticals

Answer: (a) is NOT correctly matched

The Department of Pension and Pensioners' Welfare sits under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, not the Ministry of Finance.

46.Polity & Governance

Which among the following subjects is not included in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India?

(a)The Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act, 1969
(b)The General Insurance Business (Nationalization) Act, 1972
(c)The Coal Mines (Taking Over of Management) Act, 1973
(d)The Consumer Protection Act, 2019

Answer: (d)

The MRTP Act (Entry 91), the General Insurance Nationalisation Act (Entry 95), and the Coal Mines Act (Entry 98) are all real Ninth Schedule entries. The Ninth Schedule’s 284 entries stop well short of 2019 — no Consumer Protection Act was ever added. (Source: Ninth Schedule, Constitution of India)

47.Polity & Governance

Which one of the following statements in respect of the North Eastern Council is correct?

(a)The Council is the nodal agency under the Ministry of Home Affairs for the economic and social development of eight States in the North Eastern Region.
(b)The Council consists of the Governors and Chief Ministers of eight North Eastern States along with three members nominated by the Governors of the respective States.
(c)The Council was constituted in 1971 by an Act of the Parliament.
(d)Manipur was added as the eighth member State in the North Eastern Council.

The NEC works under the Ministry of DoNER, not Home Affairs. Its nominated members are picked by the President, not Governors. Sikkim, not Manipur, was the eighth member added.

48.Polity & Governance

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I (Landmark Judgment): A. A. K. Gopalan vs. State of Madras; B. K. M. Nanavati vs. State of Bombay; C. Maneka Gandhi vs. Union of India; D. Shyam Narayan Chouksey vs. Union of India. List-II (Issue): 1. Whether Preventive Detention Act ultra vires the Fundamental Rights under the Constitution of India; 2. Whether the National Anthem must be played before movies in theatres; 3. Examining the power of suspension of sentence by the Governor under Article 161 of the Constitution of India; 4. Whether right to go abroad is included in right under Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution of India

Code:

(a)A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
(b)A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
(c)A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
(d)A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1

Answer: (b)

A. K. Gopalan (1950) tested the Preventive Detention Act against Fundamental Rights (A-1). K. M. Nanavati (1961) also examined the Governor’s power under Article 161 to suspend a sentence pending appeal (B-3). Maneka Gandhi (1978) covered whether the right to go abroad falls under Article 19(1)(a) (C-4), on top of its better-known Article 21 holding. Shyam Narayan Chouksey (2016) dealt with playing the National Anthem in cinema halls (D-2). That mapping is code (b). (Source: Indian Kanoon, Maneka Gandhi judgment)

Related: Polity0083 — Judicial Activism in India. Also related: Polity0092 — The National Security Act, 1980, and its Misuse (the Preventive Detention Act that A.K. Gopalan tested is the direct predecessor of today’s NSA).

49.Polity & Governance

Which of the following statements in respect of the nature of the federal system in India is/are correct?

1.Since the States had an independent existence prior to the formation of the Federation, the Constitution of India provided for safeguards for protecting 'State rights', similar to the Constitution of the United States.
2.The residuary powers are reserved with the States under the Constitution of the United States, but these are with the Union under the Constitution of India.
3.The Constitution of India has followed the Irish Constitution in vesting the residuary powers.

Select the answer using the code given below.

(a)1, 2 and 3
(b)2 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1 and 3 only

Answer: (b) 2 only

Indian states never had independent existence before the Union formed, unlike the US. India's residuary-powers scheme came from Canada's Constitution, not Ireland's.

50.Polity & Governance

Which of the following statements about the Viksit Bharat-G RAM G Act, 2025 is/are correct?

1.It links wage employment with durable rural infrastructure across four priority areas.
2.All assets created are aggregated into the Viksit Bharat National Rural Infrastructure Stack.

Select the answer using the code given below.

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Both statements are correct. The VB-G RAM G Act, 2025 links wage employment to durable rural infrastructure across four priority areas: Water Security, Core Rural Infrastructure, Rural Livelihoods, and Extreme Weather Mitigation. Every asset created is aggregated into the Viksit Bharat National Rural Infrastructure Stack, which integrates local Viksit Gram Panchayat Plans with the PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan.

Questions 51–60

51.Polity & Governance

Which of the following are a part of the 'basic features' of the Constitution of India as drawn from various decisions of the Supreme Court?

1.Effective access to justice
2.Rule of Law
3.Limitations upon the amending power under Article 368

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)1 and 3 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

All three are recognised basic structure elements, added by the courts case by case, alongside older ones like judicial review and federalism.

52.Polity & Governance

Which of the following statements about the Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against Women are correct?

1.The Convention was the culmination of more than thirty years of work by the United Nations Commission on the Status of Women.
2.The Convention devotes major attention to women's reproductive rights.
3.The implementation of the Convention is monitored by the Committee on Human Rights.

Select the answer using the code given below.

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)1 and 3 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Statements 1 and 2 match the official UN text on CEDAW. Statement 3 is wrong: implementation is monitored by the CEDAW Committee, not the Human Rights Committee.

53.Polity & Governance

Which one among the following States has the highest allocation of seats in the Council of States?

(a)West Bengal
(b)Karnataka
(c)Rajasthan
(d)Tamil Nadu

Answer: (d) Tamil Nadu

Tamil Nadu has 18 Rajya Sabha seats. West Bengal has 16, Karnataka has 12, and Rajasthan has 10.

54.Polity & Governance

Which of the following statements about human rights is/are correct?

1.The first generation rights were traditional civil and political rights.
2.The second generation rights are solidarity rights.

Select the answer using the code given below.

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

First generation rights are civil and political rights, correctly stated. Solidarity rights are third generation, not second. Second generation rights are economic, social, and cultural.

55.Polity & Governance

Which of the following statements about Article 20(1) of the Constitution of India is/are correct?

1.It contains a provision against ex post facto legislation.
2.A legislation shall not be competent to make a criminal law retrospective.

Select the answer using the code given below.

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Article 20(1) protects against ex post facto legislation — no one is convicted under a law that was not in force at the time. Both statements correctly describe this, so (c).

56.Reasoning & Aptitude

When A runs 5 km, B can run 2 km. Initially A was 750 m behind B and they were running in the same direction. How much distance, in metres, must A run to cross B, if they start at the same time?

(a)500
(b)750
(c)1250
(d)1500

Answer: (c) 1250

The relative speed (same direction) is 3 units (5 minus 2). A closes the 750 m gap at that rate, but moves at 5 units, so A runs (5/3) × 750 = 1250 m.

57.Reasoning & Aptitude

There is a question followed by two statements I and II: Question: If x and y are integers, can we find |x – y| uniquely? I. x^2 + y^2 = 25. II. x^2 – y^2 = 7. Which one of the following options is correct?

(a)The question can be answered using one of these statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other statement
(b)The question can be answered using either statement alone
(c)The question can be answered using both the statements together, but cannot be answered using either statement alone
(d)The question cannot be answered even using any of the statements

Answer: (d) Cannot be answered even using both together

Combining both gives x = ±4 and y = ±3, all four sign combinations valid. So |x-y| is still either 1 or 7, never fixed to one value.

58.Reasoning & Aptitude

A metallic cylindrical disc of radius 7 cm is melted and 22 square-shaped solids of the same thickness are made. If l cm is the side length of these squares, then (in cm)

(a)2.5 < l < 2.6
(b)2.6 < l < 2.7
(c)2.7 < l < 2.8
(d)2.8 < l < 2.9

Answer: (b) 2.6 < l < 2.7

The disc's area is (22/7) × 7 × 7 = 154 sq cm. Since thickness is unchanged, 22l² = 154, so l² = 7 and l = √7 ≈ 2.6458 cm.

59.Reasoning & Aptitude

In a club, there are 58 members. Among them, 25 members drink tea, 23 members drink coffee and only 7 members drink both tea and coffee. What is the ratio of the number of members who drink tea or coffee but not both, to the number of members who drink neither tea nor coffee?

(a)1 : 2
(b)1 : 3
(c)3 : 1
(d)2 : 1

Answer: (d) 2 : 1

Tea-only is 18, coffee-only is 16, so 'one but not both' totals 34. The union is 41, so 'neither' is 17. The ratio 34:17 is 2:1.

60.Reasoning & Aptitude

The brightness of a lightning event was seen at 19:06:17 hr, whereas the sound of the thunder in the same process was heard at 19:06:23 hr. If the speed of the sound is 320 metres per second, then which of the following is the distance in metres between the clouds that produced the lightning and the thunder, and the observer?

(a)1720
(b)1820
(c)1920
(d)2020

Sound takes 6 seconds to arrive (19:06:23 minus 19:06:17). At 320 m/s, the distance is 320 × 6 = 1920 m.

Questions 61–70

61.Reasoning & Aptitude

A large pot X contains 3 litres mixture consisting of milk and water in the ratio 3:2. Another pot Y contains 100 litres mixture consisting of milk and water in the ratio 9:1. How many litres of mixture from pot Y are to be poured into pot X to get a mixture with the ratio of milk to water as 17:3 in pot X?

(a)9
(b)12
(c)15
(d)18

Answer: (c) 15

Pot X starts with 1.8 L milk and 1.2 L water. Each litre from Y adds 0.9 L milk and 0.1 L water. Solving for the 17:3 ratio gives 15 litres.

62.Reasoning & Aptitude

A person X has to make a payment of Rs. 56. He has twenty-five Rs. 2 coins and nine Rs. 5 coins. In how many different ways can he make this payment?

(a)3
(b)4
(c)5
(d)6

Answer: (b) 4

With 2a+5b=56, b must be even. Checking b=2,4,6,8 gives a=23,18,13,8, all valid. That is 4 ways.

63.Reasoning & Aptitude

There are three rooms (I, II and III) with occupancy capacity of three each. P, Q, R, S and T are five friends. R and S occupied room I; T occupied room II. In how many different ways can P and Q occupy the rooms if there is no additional restriction?

(a)8
(b)7
(c)6
(d)5

Answer: (a) 8

Room I has 1 free slot, room II has 2, room III has 3. Different rooms: 3×2=6 ways. Same room (II or III only): 2 more ways. Total: 8.

64.Reasoning & Aptitude

If ART is encoded as BQU, then TAR is encoded as

(a)UZS
(b)UQB
(c)QBU
(d)USZ

Answer: (d) USZ

1st and 3rd letters shift forward by one, the 2nd shifts back by one. T+1=U, A-1=Z, R+1=S, giving USZ.

65.Reasoning & Aptitude

A shopkeeper marked a price on an article so that he gets 50% profit. After 2 months, the sale of the article reduced. So, he decided to sell the same article with a profit of 20%. What percentage of discount does he announce to get only 20% profit?

(a)50
(b)40
(c)30
(d)20

Answer: (d) 20

With cost price 100, marked price is 150. For 20% profit, selling price must be 120. That 30-rupee cut from 150 is a 20% discount.

66.Reasoning & Aptitude

The smaller angle made by the hour and the minute hands is noted when it was 1:30 PM. In which of the following intervals of time will the smaller angle between these hands again be the same?

(a)1:44 PM and 1:45 PM
(b)1:45 PM and 1:46 PM
(c)1:46 PM and 1:47 PM
(d)1:47 PM and 1:48 PM

Answer: (c) 1:46 PM and 1:47 PM

At 1:30 PM the angle is 135 degrees. That same gap recurs at about 1:46 and 22 seconds PM.

67.Reasoning & Aptitude

In a matching problem, there are two columns. The first column has 4 statements whereas the second column has 5 statements. Every statement of the first column is to be matched with exactly one statement of the second column. In how many different ways can one student match the two columns if the student has no idea of the correct match?

(a)120
(b)110
(c)100
(d)90

Answer: (a) 120

Each of the 4 items picks a distinct match from the 5 available: 5×4×3×2 = 120.

68.Reasoning & Aptitude

A rectangular wall is partitioned into 5 rectangular parts as shown in the following diagram: the wall is divided into two columns on the left two-thirds of its width and one tall column spanning the full height on the right (so the left two-thirds forms 2 top cells and 2 bottom cells side by side, plus 1 full-height cell on the right, totalling 5 parts). If you have three different colours to paint the wall and if no two adjacent parts are to be painted with the same colour, in how many different ways can one paint the wall?

(a)16
(b)17
(c)18
(d)19

Answer: (c) 18

The 4 left cells have 18 valid 3-colourings. The two cells touching the right cell always differ, so the right cell is forced to the one remaining colour: 18×1=18.

69.Reasoning & Aptitude

Suppose 1 <= x, y, z <= 9 are integers such that x > z. Let alpha and beta be the three-digit numbers given by alpha = xyz and beta = zyx so that x, y, z are the digits as they are shown. Set gamma = alpha – beta. How many of the following statements are always true? I. 2 does not divide gamma. II. 3 divides gamma. III. 5 does not divide gamma. IV. 7 does not divide gamma. V. 11 divides gamma. VI. 13 does not divide gamma.

Select the correct answer.

(a)3
(b)4
(c)5
(d)6

Answer: (a) 3

Gamma always equals 99(x-z), and 99=9×11. So gamma is always divisible by 3 and 11, and never by 13. Statements II, V, VI are always true; I, III, IV depend on the actual value of x-z.

70.Reasoning & Aptitude

P, Q, R and S are four places. To travel from P to R, one travels via Q and to travel from P to S, one travels via both Q and R. Between P and Q, there are 3 routes; between Q and R, there are 4 routes; and between R and S, there are 5 routes. The time taken to travel through these routes is exhibited on the following chart in hours for a specific vehicle: Routes table (Route number: Between P and Q / Between Q and R / Between R and S, in hours) — 1: 2 / 1 / 2; 2: 3 / 1.5 / 2; 3: 4 / 2 / 2.5; 4: — / 2 / 3; 5: — / — / 3.5. How many possible routes are there if the journey takes exactly 7 hours?

(a)10
(b)11
(c)12
(d)13

Answer: (b) 11

Checking every P-Q, Q-R, and R-S combination summing to 7 hours: 3 combinations at P-Q=2h, 6 at P-Q=3h, 2 at P-Q=4h. Total: 11.

Questions 71–80

71.Geography

The Strait of Hormuz connects

(a)the Red Sea and the Mediterranean Sea
(b)the Gulf of Aden and the Red Sea
(c)the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman
(d)the Black Sea and the Mediterranean Sea

Answer: (c) the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman

The Strait of Hormuz is the only sea passage from the Persian Gulf toward the Indian Ocean.

72.Geography

Which of the following countries share borders with Israel?

1.Egypt
2.Jordan
3.Syria
4.Lebanon

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a)1 and 4 only
(b)1 and 2 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Israel shares land borders with Egypt (south), Jordan (east), Syria (northeast), and Lebanon (north).

73.Geography

Consider the following pairs of islands and related water bodies: I. Kharg : Persian Gulf; II. Vaan : Gulf of Mannar; III. Tuti : Red Sea; IV. Qeshm : Arabian Sea. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a)1
(b)2
(c)3
(d)4

Answer: (b) 2

Kharg and Vaan are correctly matched. Vaan Island sits in the Gulf of Mannar off Thoothukudi, Tamil Nadu, part of the Gulf of Mannar Marine National Park. Tuti Island is actually in Sudan, at the Nile’s confluence, not the Red Sea. Qeshm is in the Persian Gulf, not the Arabian Sea. Related: IndGeo0043 — The Palk Strait · EnvEco0025 — Coral Reefs and Marine Biodiversity Conservation in India.

74.Economy

Consider the following statements regarding Industrial Corridors in India:

1.They are linear development zones.
2.They connect all major State capitals through an integrated network of roads, railways, ports and airports.
3.They promote acceleration of industrial growth.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 and 2
(b)1 and 3
(c)3 only
(d)1 only

Answer: (b) 1 and 3

Corridors are linear development zones that accelerate industrial growth. They connect major economic centres and transport hubs, not specifically all State capitals.

75.Environment & Ecology

Consider the following statements regarding cyclones in India:

1.More cyclones occur in the Bay of Bengal than in the Arabian Sea.
2.On an average, 12 to 15 tropical cyclones form every year.
3.Tropical cyclones occur continuously throughout the year.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)1 and 3
(c)2 and 3
(d)2 only

Answer: (a) 1 only

India averages 5 to 6 cyclones a year, not 12 to 15, and they form seasonally, not continuously. Only the Bay of Bengal frequency claim is correct.

76.Environment & Ecology

Consider the following statements about a geographical feature:

1.The feature is in close proximity to the Malacca Strait.
2.The Government of India proposed an international container transhipment port in this region.
3.The region is one of the most critical nesting grounds for the endangered leatherback sea turtle.
4.The region is home to dense forest, rich coral reefs and sea grass meadows.

Which one among the following geographical features is described above?

(a)Galathea Bay
(b)Gulf of Mannar
(c)Gulf of Kutch
(d)Palk Strait

Answer: (a) Galathea Bay

Galathea Bay, Great Nicobar, sits near the Malacca Strait route. India’s proposed transhipment port is planned there, in a critical leatherback turtle nesting bay with coral and sea grass habitat.

77.Geography

Consider the following statements:

1.A great circle is the largest possible circle that can be drawn on the surface of the sphere.
2.Every great circle divides the Earth into equal halves.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

A great circle is the largest circle on a sphere, and since its plane passes through the centre, it always splits the Earth into two equal hemispheres.

78.Science & Tech

Consider the following statements:

1.GPS uses signals from a network of satellites to determine a position on the Earth.
2.The GPS receiver calculates the distances from satellites to triangulate the exact location by the use of latitude.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

GPS finds position via trilateration — distances to at least three satellites — not by using latitude directly.

79.Geography

Which one among the following capital cities of the Union Territories of India is located at coordinates 11.62° North and 92.72° East?

(a)Sri Vijaya Puram
(b)Kavaratti
(c)Puducherry
(d)Chandigarh

Answer: (a) Sri Vijaya Puram

Sri Vijaya Puram, formerly Port Blair, is the capital of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, at these coordinates.

80.Environment & Ecology

Consider the following statements about a cloud form:

1.These are made up of ice crystals rather than droplets of water.
2.They are thin, stringy, white clouds that trail like feathers across the sky.
3.These clouds are formed at very high altitudes — normally between 6000 metres and 10000 metres.

Which one among the following cloud forms is described above?

(a)Cirrus
(b)Stratus
(c)Cumulus
(d)Nimbus

Answer: (a) Cirrus

Cirrus clouds are thin, feathery, made of ice crystals, and form at high altitude (6,000 to 10,000 metres).

Questions 81–90

81.Environment & Ecology

Consider the following statements:

1.Many urban and suburban areas experience a higher temperature than surrounding rural areas known as urban heat islands.
2.The reduction in urban green cover and the increase of built-up hard surface is the only cause of urban heat island.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Statement 1 correctly defines urban heat islands. Statement 2 is wrong — waste heat from vehicles, AC, and industry also contribute; green-cover loss is not the only cause.

82.Geography

Consider the following statements regarding the Andaman and Nicobar Islands:

1.There are 836 islands/islets/rocky outcrops.
2.The group of islands is divided by the Ten Degree Channel.
3.The Union Territory is home to tribes such as Koya, Malmi, Melacheri and Aminidivi.
4.There are more than two major ports in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)1 and 2 only
(c)1, 2 and 3
(d)2 and 4

Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only

Statement 1 is correct: the Andaman and Nicobar Administration counts 836 islands, islets, and rocky outcrops in total. Statement 2 is correct: the Ten Degree Channel divides the Andaman group from the Nicobar group. Statement 3 is wrong: Koya, Malmi, Melacheri, and Aminidivi are Lakshadweep communities, not Andaman and Nicobar tribes (the real ones include the Great Andamanese, Onge, Jarawa, Sentinelese, and Nicobarese). Statement 4 is wrong: the islands currently have no nationally-designated major port, though one is now under construction at Galathea Bay. Related: IndGeo0031 — Andaman and Nicobar Islands (Physical Geography).

83.Geography

Consider the following rivers of India: I. Sharavathi; II. Periyar; III. Mandovi; IV. Daman Ganga. How many of the above are west-flowing rivers?

(a)1
(b)2
(c)3
(d)4

Answer: (d) 4

All four are west-flowing rivers of the Western Ghats, draining into the Arabian Sea. The Periyar is the river that forms the lake at the heart of Periyar National Park. Related: IndGeo0095 — Periyar National Park.

84.Economy

Consider the following statements:

1.India's total electricity generation in the last four years (2022-23 to 2025-26) has witnessed an increasing trend.
2.The average availability of electricity in both rural and urban areas has increased in the last 12 years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Generation rose every year from 2022-23 to 2024-25. Daily electricity availability also rose in both rural and urban areas over the last 12 years.

85.Economy

Consider the following statements with respect to ports in India:

1.There are 12 major ports in operation in the country.
2.The major ports are under the administrative control of the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, whereas the non-major ports are under the jurisdiction of respective State Maritime Boards/State Governments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

India has 12 major ports in operation, run by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways. Non-major ports fall under State Maritime Boards or State Governments.

86.Science & Tech

Which one of the following statements about natural selection is not correct?

(a)Natural selection can only occur if there is no variation amongst members of the same species.
(b)Over time, natural selection can increase the frequency of adaptations that are favourable in a given environment.
(c)Species tend to overproduce beyond what the environment can support.
(d)Mutation, meiosis and sexual reproduction cause variation between individuals of a species.

Answer: (a) is NOT correct

Natural selection needs variation to act on — it cannot happen without it. This statement has the requirement exactly backwards.

87.Environment & Ecology

Which one of the following Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) talks about protecting and restoring terrestrial ecosystems, sustainably managing forests, combating desertification, halting and reversing land degradation and stopping biodiversity loss?

(a)SDG 5
(b)SDG 13
(c)SDG 15
(d)SDG 16

Answer: (c) SDG 15

SDG 15 (Life on Land) is officially defined as protecting and restoring terrestrial ecosystems, sustainably managing forests, combating desertification, and halting and reversing land degradation and biodiversity loss. Related: EnvEco0009 — Environmental Degradation.

88.Environment & Ecology

Consider the following statements regarding biodiversity conservation:

1.In situ conservation refers to conservation of species in their natural habitats.
2.Nature reserves are areas specifically designed for wildlife conservation.
3.Captive breeding of animals is an in situ conservation measure.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)1 and 2
(c)3 only
(d)2 and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 2

Statements 1 and 2 are correct definitions. Captive breeding is ex situ conservation, not in situ, since it removes animals from their natural habitat.

89.Science & Tech

Consider the following statements about genetic engineering:

1.The technique of genetic engineering involves creation of recombinant DNA, use of gene cloning and gene transfer.
2.Restriction enzymes cut DNA at specific locations.
3.Restriction enzymes split the entire double-stranded DNA into two strands.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)1 and 2
(c)1 and 3
(d)2 and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 2

Restriction enzymes cut DNA into fragments at specific sites, not simply split the molecule into its two strands.

Related: SciTech0009 — Biotechnology

90.Environment & Ecology

Which of the following statements about eutrophication is/are correct?

1.Eutrophication takes place in young lakes when the water is cold and clear.
2.Eutrophication is caused by nutrient enrichment in water bodies.

Select the answer using the code given below.

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Cold, clear, low-nutrient water describes young (oligotrophic) lakes, not eutrophic ones. Eutrophication is caused by nutrient enrichment, correctly stated in 2.

Questions 91–100

91.Environment & Ecology

In which one of the following regions of the Earth is the ozone hole prominently observed in the stratosphere?

(a)Equatorial region
(b)Arctic region
(c)Antarctic region
(d)Tropical region

Answer: (c) Antarctic region

Extreme cold over Antarctica creates polar stratospheric clouds, which speed up ozone-destroying reactions each spring.

92.Science & Tech

Which of the following is/are the basic step(s) in genetically modifying an organism?

1.Identification of DNA with desirable genes
2.Introduction of the identified DNA into the host
3.Maintenance of introduced DNA in the host and transfer of the DNA to its progeny

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a)1 only
(b)1, 2 and 3
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)3 only

Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 3

All three are standard steps: identifying the gene, inserting it into the host, and ensuring it is maintained and inherited.

Related: SciTech0009 — Biotechnology

93.Environment & Ecology

Which one of the following factors is responsible for the spread of myxomatosis — a severe viral disease among rabbits?

(a)Higher water temperature
(b)Higher soil temperature
(c)High population density of rabbits
(d)Low population density of rabbits

Answer: (c) High population density of rabbits

Myxomatosis spreads via biting insects moving between rabbits. Higher density means more contact and faster spread.

94.Science & Tech

Consider the following stages of insulin production procedure through gene technology:

1.Isolation of insulin coding gene from humans
2.Inserting the insulin coding gene into a plasmid vector
3.Inserting the recombinant plasmid vector into the bacterium (E. coli)

Which of the following is a correct sequence of the above?

(a)1-2-3
(b)1-3-2
(c)3-2-1
(d)2-3-1

Answer: (a) 1-2-3

Isolate the gene, insert it into a plasmid vector, then insert that recombinant plasmid into E. coli.

Related: SciTech0009 — Biotechnology

95.Science & Tech

Which one of the following statements about the catalytic conversion of nitrogen gas by nitrogenase enzyme in root nodules of leguminous plants is not correct?

(a)It needs ATP (Adenosine Tri-Phosphate) supply.
(b)It converts N2 (nitrogen gas) to NH4+ (ammonium ion) first.
(c)It needs hydrogen supply from reduced NADP (Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide Phosphate).
(d)It needs aerobic condition for the process.

Answer: (d) is NOT correct

Nitrogenase is highly sensitive to oxygen. It needs anaerobic conditions, not aerobic ones. Leghemoglobin in root nodules scavenges oxygen to protect it.

96.Science & Tech

Which one of the following statements about arteries is not correct?

(a)The inner lining is made of squamous endothelium.
(b)The middle layer is made of smooth muscle and elastic fibres.
(c)The outer layer is made of fibrous connective tissue with collagen fibres.
(d)Arteries have the thinnest walls amongst any other blood vessels.

Answer: (d) is NOT correct

Arteries have the thickest walls of any blood vessel, built for high-pressure blood flow. Veins and capillaries have much thinner walls.

97.Science & Tech

Which one of the following effects best explains the high partial pressure of carbon dioxide causing haemoglobin to release oxygen in actively respiring tissues?

(a)Haldane effect
(b)Allee effect
(c)Bohr effect
(d)Eagle effect

Answer: (c) Bohr effect

Rising CO2 and falling pH lower haemoglobin's oxygen affinity, releasing oxygen where tissues need it most.

98.Science & Tech

Which one of the following statements about xylem vessels in plants is not correct?

(a)Xylem vessels have lignified cell walls.
(b)Phloem sieve tubes are identical to xylem vessels in structure.
(c)Dead xylem vessels provide structural support to plants.
(d)Water is transported through xylem vessels.

Answer: (b) is NOT correct

Xylem vessels are dead and lignified; phloem sieve tubes are living cells. They are structurally very different, not identical.

99.Science & Tech

Which one of the following is considered as the basic structural element of all life forms?

(a)Phosphorus
(b)Carbon
(c)Oxygen
(d)Nitrogen

Answer: (b) Carbon

Carbon forms the backbone of proteins, carbohydrates, lipids, and nucleic acids, making it the basic structural element of life.

100.Science & Tech

Which one of the following plant hormones promotes stomatal closure during drought stress?

(a)Auxin
(b)Cytokinin
(c)Gibberellin
(d)Abscisic acid

Answer: (d) Abscisic acid

Abscisic acid is the plant's stress hormone. It rises during drought and triggers stomatal closure to reduce water loss.

Questions 101–110

101.Science & Tech

Which of the following statements about nuclear fuel are correct?

1.Spent fuel is highly radioactive.
2.Fuel has to be enriched.
3.Failure of the control system can lead to a meltdown.

Select the answer using the code given below.

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)1, 2 and 3
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1 and 3 only

Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 3

All three are true: spent fuel stays highly radioactive, uranium must be enriched for most reactors, and loss of control can cause a meltdown.

102.Science & Tech

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I (Biological Molecule): A. Insulin; B. Haemoglobin; C. Amino acids; D. Cholesterol. List-II (Function/Property): 1. Monomer units of proteins; 2. High concentration linked to circulatory system diseases; 3. Carries oxygen; 4. Controls the concentration of glucose in blood

Code:

(a)A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
(b)A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
(c)A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2
(d)A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2

Answer: (d) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2

Insulin controls glucose, haemoglobin carries oxygen, amino acids are protein monomers, and high cholesterol links to circulatory disease.

103.Environment & Ecology

With reference to fossil fuels, consider the following statements:

1.Coal is the most abundant fossil fuel and has high specific energy and energy density.
2.The action of heat and pressure changes plant matter in stages from anthracite to bituminous to lignite coal.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Coal is genuinely the most abundant, high-energy fossil fuel. Statement 2 reverses the real order: lignite forms first, then bituminous, then anthracite.

104.Science & Tech

Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a)The number of electrons in alpha (a) particle is 2.
(b)The coordination number of EDTA is 6.
(c)The charge of beta (B) particle is +2.
(d)Both carbon and silicon form ionic compounds.

Answer: (b) EDTA coordination number is 6

EDTA is hexadentate. An alpha particle has 0 electrons, a beta particle has -1 charge, and carbon/silicon form covalent, not ionic, compounds.

105.Science & Tech

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I (Constituent of Paint): A. Pigment; B. Extender; C. Thinner; D. Drier. List-II (Example): 1. Zinc oxide; 2. China clay; 3. Naphthenate; 4. Turpentine

Code:

(a)A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
(b)A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
(c)A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
(d)A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1

Answer: (b) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3

Zinc oxide is a pigment, china clay is an extender, turpentine is a thinner, and naphthenates are driers.

106.Environment & Ecology

Which of the following is/are renewable source(s) of energy?

1.Fossil fuel
2.Biofuel
3.Uranium
4.Hydropower

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a)2 only
(b)3 and 4
(c)1 and 3
(d)2 and 4

Answer: (d) 2 and 4

Biofuel and hydropower are renewable. Fossil fuel and uranium are both finite, non-renewable resources.

107.Science & Tech

Consider the following statements in the light of octane number and cetane number of fuels:

1.Cetane number is used for gasoline and octane number is used for diesel.
2.Octane number of n-hexadecane is 100 and cetane number of isooctane is 100.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Both statements swap the assignment. Octane number rates gasoline (isooctane = 100). Cetane number rates diesel (n-hexadecane, called cetane = 100).

108.Science & Tech

Which of the following pairs of products obtained from petroleum distillation and their uses are correctly matched?

1.Petroleum ether : Used as solvent
2.Petroleum jelly : Used to make coating of metals
3.Petroleum wax : Used as rubber solvent
4.White spirit : Used for making candles

Select the answer using the code given below.

(a)1, 3 and 4
(b)1 and 2
(c)2, 3 and 4
(d)3 and 4 only

Answer: (b) 1 and 2

Pairs 3 and 4 are swapped: petroleum wax is used for candles, and white spirit is used as a paint solvent.

109.Science & Tech

Which one of the following processes is not used for the production of hydrogen gas?

(a)Electrolytic process
(b)Water gas-steam process
(c)Liquefaction of coal gas
(d)Hydrolysis of calcium carbide

Answer: (d) Hydrolysis of calcium carbide

Calcium carbide reacts with water to give acetylene gas and calcium hydroxide, not hydrogen.

110.Science & Tech

Which among the following are, respectively the correct oxidation numbers of chloride ion in Cl2O7, Cl2O, ClO3- and ClO2-?

(a)+7, +2, +4, +3
(b)+2, -1, -3, +4
(c)+7, +1, +3, -3
(d)+7, +1, +5, +3

Answer: (d) +7, +1, +5, +3

Balancing oxygen at -2 in each: Cl2O7 gives +7, Cl2O gives +1, ClO3⁻ gives +5, ClO2⁻ gives +3.

Questions 111–120

111.Science & Tech

Sound Navigation and Ranging (SONAR) is used to detect underwater objects. For this, its transmitter produces

(a)microwaves
(b)visible light
(c)ultrasonic waves
(d)infrared radiation

Answer: (c) ultrasonic waves

SONAR emits ultrasonic sound waves and measures the echo to detect underwater objects.

112.Science & Tech

Which combination of three resistors R1, R2 and R3 has minimum total resistance? (Consider R1 = 1 ohm, R2 = 2 ohm and R3 = 3 ohm)

(a)When all are connected in parallel
(b)When all are connected in series
(c)When R1 and R2 are connected in parallel and R3 is in series of them
(d)When R1 and R3 are connected in parallel and R2 is in series of them

Answer: (a) All connected in parallel

A fully parallel combination always gives the lowest total resistance, always less than the smallest individual resistor.

113.Science & Tech

If the relative density of gold is 19.3 and the density of water is 10^6 g/m^3, what will be the density of gold in SI units?

(a)1930 kg/m^3
(b)19300 kg/m^3
(c)193000 kg/m^3
(d)1.93 x 10^6 kg/m^3

Answer: (b) 19300 kg/m³

Density of water in SI units is 1000 kg/m³ (the same as 10⁶ g/m³). Multiplying by gold’s relative density, 19.3, gives 19.3 × 1000 = 19300 kg/m³.

(Source: NIST, SI Units)

114.Science & Tech

Velocity (m/s)-time (s) graph is plotted for the motion of two cars A and B for 10 s, when the cars are initially at rest and acquire final velocities as VA and VB, respectively. The respective straight lines of the graph make angles 30 degrees and 60 degrees, respectively with the x-axis (time). The difference in velocities VB and VA is

(a)20/sqrt(3) m/s
(b)2/sqrt(3) m/s
(c)3 m/s
(d)1 m/s

Answer: (a) 20/√3 m/s

Velocity equals slope × time. At t=10s: VA=10 tan(30°), VB=10 tan(60°). Their difference is 20/√3 m/s.

Related: GenSci0012 — Kinematics

115.Science & Tech

A uniform current-carrying narrow solenoid produces

(a)uniform magnetic field inside the solenoid
(b)uniform magnetic field outside the solenoid
(c)magnetic field with straight field lines in all the regions
(d)magnetic field with oscillating nature

Answer: (a) uniform magnetic field inside the solenoid

Inside a solenoid, the field is strong and uniform, parallel to the axis. Outside, it is weak and non-uniform.

116.Science & Tech

For a particle in uniform circular motion (radius R and angular velocity omega), the magnitude and direction of acceleration, respectively are

(a)omega*R, along the radius outward
(b)omega*R, towards the centre of the circle
(c)omega^2*R, towards the centre of the circle
(d)omega^3*R, along the linear velocity

Answer: (c) omega²R, towards the centre

Centripetal acceleration has magnitude ω²R and always points toward the centre of the circle.

117.Science & Tech

Which one among the following statements is correct?

(a)The total mechanical energy of a system is conserved if the forces, doing work on it, are conservative.
(b)The total mechanical energy of a system is conserved if the forces, doing work on it, are non-conservative.
(c)The total mechanical energy of a system remains constant.
(d)Every force encountered in mechanics does have an associated well-defined potential energy.

Answer: (a)

Mechanical energy stays conserved only under conservative forces. Non-conservative forces like friction drain energy, and friction has no well-defined potential energy.

118.Science & Tech

Which one of the following does not generally obey Hooke's law?

(a)Glass
(b)Quartz
(c)Clay
(d)Copper

Answer: (c) Clay

Glass, quartz, and copper are all elastic materials that follow a proportional stress-strain relationship. Clay is plastic instead: it deforms permanently under load, with no simple proportionality to recover from.

Related: GenSci0018 — Elasticity

(Source: DoITPoMS, Elastic Deformation)

119.Science & Tech

Which of the following statements regarding Carnot engine is/are correct?

1.It is an irreversible engine operating between two temperatures T1 (source) and T2 (sink).
2.Its efficiency is given by eta = 1 – T2/T1, where T1 is the temperature of source and T2 is the temperature of sink.

Select the answer using the code given below.

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

A Carnot engine is reversible, not irreversible. Its efficiency formula, η=1-T2/T1, is correct.

120.Science & Tech

In the ideal gas equation PV = uRT, relating pressure P, volume V and absolute temperature T, the quantity u is

(a)number of moles
(b)number of molecules
(c)specific heat ratio
(d)coefficient of friction

Answer: (a) number of moles

In PV=μRT, μ is the number of moles of gas, paired with the universal gas constant R.

Questions 121–125

121.Science & Tech

Which one among the following statements is not correct?

(a)Assembler translates an assembly language program into a machine language program.
(b)Compiler is a program that translates high-level language into machine language.
(c)Assembly level program is a sequence of machine language instructions.
(d)The term 'firmware' is used for the software stored in read-only storage devices.

Answer: (c) is NOT correct

Assembly-level programs use symbolic mnemonics, not machine-language instructions directly. An assembler translates them into machine code.

122.Science & Tech

Which one among the following transmission media is best suited for transmission of information over large distance?

(a)Twisted pair
(b)Optical fibre
(c)Thick Ethernet
(d)Thin Ethernet

Answer: (b) Optical fibre

Optical fibre has the lowest signal loss and highest bandwidth over long distances.

123.Science & Tech

Which one among the following devices is used for converting digital signals into analog signals and vice versa?

(a)Router
(b)Switch
(c)Bridge
(d)Modem

Answer: (d) Modem

A modem (modulator-demodulator) converts digital signals to analog and back for transmission.

124.Science & Tech

The binary multiplication of the numbers 12 and 10 will be

(a)1111000
(b)1110001
(c)1111001
(d)1111010

Answer: (a) 1111000

12×10=120 in decimal, which is 1111000 in binary (64+32+16+8).

125.Science & Tech

How many text alignments are there in Microsoft Word?

(a)1
(b)2
(c)3
(d)4

Answer: (d) 4

Microsoft Word offers four text alignments: left, right, centre, and justify.

Questions transcribed from the official Central Armed Police Forces (Assistant Commandants) Examination, 2026 question booklet (TARP-A-GAT/82A), General Ability and Intelligence paper. Hindi text omitted. Answer key not included.

CAPF (ACs) 2026 — General Ability and Intelligence (Full Question Paper)

General Ability and Intelligence

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