CAPF (ACs) 2026 — General Ability and Intelligence (Full Question Paper)

Which one of the following statements about 'SB 64' is correct?

• (a)It is a long-range intercontinental ballistic missile that could be armed with nuclear warhead.
• (b)It was a submarine destroyed in the Strait of Hormuz recently.
• (c)It is an informal group of 64 companies committed to manufacturing only environmentally sustainable brands.
• (d)It refers to the sixty-fourth session of the Subsidiary Body for Scientific and Technological Advice and the Subsidiary Body for Implementation of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

• 1.As per the Renewable Energy Statistics, 2026, India ranks third globally in Renewable Energy Installed Capacity.
• 2.India ranks fourth globally in terms of Global Installed Wind Turbine Capacity.

Select the answer using the code given below.

• (a)1 only
• (b)2 only
• (c)Both 1 and 2
• (d)Neither 1 nor 2

Raghu Rai, who passed away recently, was

• (a)an educationist
• (b)a sports person
• (c)an eminent photographer
• (d)a theatre personality

Which of the following statements about Ol Chiki script is/are correct?

• 1.The Government of India recently celebrated two hundred years of the development of this script.
• 2.This script has been used for the Santhali language.

Select the answer using the code given below.

• (a)1 only
• (b)2 only
• (c)Both 1 and 2
• (d)Neither 1 nor 2

Which of the following statements about the Black Swan Summit India, 2026 is/are correct?

• 1.It was jointly organized by the Government of Odisha and the Government of Andhra Pradesh for jointly promoting the two States as AI and FinTech hubs.
• 2.It was organized under the BharatNetra Initiative.

Select the answer using the code given below.

• (a)1 only
• (b)2 only
• (c)Both 1 and 2
• (d)Neither 1 nor 2

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

• 1.Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant 3 and 4 are being set up in India in cooperation with the Russian Federation.
• 2.Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant 5 and 6 are being set up in India in cooperation with the USA.

Select the answer using the code given below.

• (a)1 only
• (b)2 only
• (c)Both 1 and 2
• (d)Neither 1 nor 2

The Sustainable Harnessing and Advancement of Nuclear Energy for Transforming India (SHANTI) Act, 2025 allows private sector participation, under a license from the Central Government, to undertake which of the following?

• 1.Plant operations
• 2.Power generation
• 3.Equipment manufacturing

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

• (a)1, 2 and 3
• (b)1 and 2 only
• (c)2 and 3 only
• (d)3 only

Consider the following statements with reference to the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Act, 2025:

• 1.The Central Government shall take necessary steps to recognize and register e-sports with the agency and authority, as the case may be, as a legitimate form of competitive sports in India.
• 2.The Central Government shall facilitate the development and availability of online social games for recreational and educational purposes.
• 3.This Act prohibits 'online money game' and 'online money gaming services'.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a)1, 2 and 3
• (b)1 and 3 only
• (c)2 only
• (d)3 only

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

• 1.LAMITIYE-2026 was a joint military exercise between India and Seychelles.
• 2.DUSTLIK was a joint military exercise between India and Azerbaijan.
• 3.Cyclone-IV was a joint military exercise between India and Israel.

Select the answer using the code given below.

• (a)1, 2 and 3
• (b)1 and 3 only
• (c)2 and 3 only
• (d)1 only

Which of the following statements with regard to Mundial do Queijo do Brasil 2026 is/are correct?

• 1.It was an international competition for cheese and dairy products.
• 2.Four Indian products won medals at the competition.

Select the answer using the code given below.

• (a)1 only
• (b)2 only
• (c)Both 1 and 2
• (d)Neither 1 nor 2

Consider the following statements about India's labour reforms introduced in 2025:

• 1.The Industrial Relations Code, 2020 introduces Re-skilling Fund by an industrial establishment which is equal to 15 days wages for every worker retrenched in addition to the retrenchment compensation, and has to be credited in the worker's account within 45 days of retrenchment.
• 2.With respect to Trade Union Recognition, any union with 41% membership shall get recognition as the Negotiating Union.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a)1 only
• (b)2 only
• (c)Both 1 and 2
• (d)Neither 1 nor 2

In the context of labour market of an economy, consider the following statements:

• 1.Labour Force Participation Rate is defined as the share of employed and unemployed workers to the total working-age population.
• 2.Worker Population Ratio is defined as the share of unemployed workers to the total working-age population.
• 3.The usual activity status of a person is determined on the basis of the activities pursued by the person during the specified reference period of the last 365 days preceding the date of survey.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a)1 only
• (b)2 only
• (c)1 and 3 only
• (d)1, 2 and 3

What does the term 'Orange Economy' refer to?

• (a)Economic activities linked to creativity, culture and intellectual property that generate income and jobs
• (b)Economic activities linked to desert ecosystems and their unique socio-environmental characteristics
• (c)Economic activities linked to the aging population, including health care, leisure, and services for older adults
• (d)Informal, unaccounted, or illegal economic activities that evade taxation and regulation

India stands at number one at global level in the production of which of the following items?

• 1.Milk
• 2.Steel
• 3.Wheat

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

• (a)1 and 2 only
• (b)1, 2 and 3
• (c)1 only
• (d)2 only

Which one among the following elements is not a part of the 'Panchamrit' of India's climate action presented at COP-26?

• (a)Achieving 50 percent of its energy requirements from renewable energy by 2030
• (b)Achieving the target of net zero emissions by 2047
• (c)Reduction of the carbon intensity of the economy by 45 percent by 2030, over the 2005 levels
• (d)Reduction of total projected carbon emissions by one billion tonnes by 2030

Consider the following statements about the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme:

• 1.It aims to increase the share of manufacturing sector in India's GDP to 25% and claims its place among the world's leading industrial economies.
• 2.The scheme extends an incentive of 10% to 14% on incremental sales for a period of five years subsequent to the base year.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a)1 only
• (b)2 only
• (c)Both 1 and 2
• (d)Neither 1 nor 2

Consider the following statements about the Global Innovation Index:

• 1.It was launched in 2007.
• 2.India has moved up from 81st rank in 2015 to 38th rank in 2025.
• 3.India, Bangladesh and Indonesia are the top three innovation economies in the category of Lower Middle Income Group as per the Global Innovation Index Report, 2025.
• 4.France, Germany and the United States of America are the top three innovation economies in the category of High Income Group as per the Global Innovation Index Report, 2025.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a)1 and 2 only
• (b)1, 2 and 3
• (c)2 and 3 only
• (d)3 and 4 only

Consider the following investments in an economy by a foreign company:

• 1.Purchase of the ownership of a transport company
• 2.Setting up a new company to produce transport equipment
• 3.Acquisition of a Public Sector Unit
• 4.Building a storage facility to expand the production capacity

Which of the above are examples of brownfield investments?

• (a)1 and 2 only
• (b)1, 2 and 3
• (c)1 and 3 only
• (d)2, 3 and 4

Consider the following statements about Ways and Means Advances (WMA):

• 1.WMA is a provision in which the Reserve Bank of India provides long-term loans to the State Governments/UT Governments and Central Government.
• 2.WMA is a provision in which the Reserve Bank of India provides short-term loans to the State Governments/UT Governments and Central Government.
• 3.WMA was introduced in 1997.
• 4.Interest rate charged by the RBI on WMA is the same as the bank rate.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a)1 only
• (b)1 and 3 only
• (c)2 and 3
• (d)1, 3 and 4

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I (Interest Rate System of the RBI): A. Marginal Cost of Funds-based Lending Rate; B. Base Rate; C. External Benchmark Lending Rate; D. Benchmark Prime Lending Rate. List-II (Year of Introduction): 1. 2003; 2. 2019; 3. 2016; 4. 2010

Code:

• (a)A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
• (b)A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
• (c)A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
• (d)A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3

Consider the following statements about the Special Drawing Facility (SDF):

• 1.It makes provision of short-term loans by the RBI to the State Governments/UT Governments against Government Securities.
• 2.Interest rate charged by the RBI on it is the same as Repo Rate.
• 3.It can be availed by the State Governments/UT Governments only after exhausting the normal Ways and Means Advances limit.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a)1, 2 and 3
• (b)1 only
• (c)1 and 3 only
• (d)2 and 3 only

As per the 2023-24 data on the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) published by the NITI Aayog, which one of the following States has a lower value of SDGs score than the all-India score?

• (a)Maharashtra
• (b)Rajasthan
• (c)Gujarat
• (d)Telangana

Consider the following statements in the context of the Union Budget, 2026-27:

• 1.The Gross Tax Revenue of the Central Government is estimated to be 11.2 percent of the GDP.
• 2.The Direct Tax Revenue of the Central Government is less than its Indirect Tax Revenue.
• 3.The Effective Capital Expenditure is lower than the Capital Expenditure.
• 4.The tariff rate on all dutiable goods imported for personal use will be reduced from 20 percent to 10 percent.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a)1 only
• (b)1, 2 and 3
• (c)4 only
• (d)1 and 4

Which one of the following systems has been adopted by the Government of India to improve cash management, reduce idle balance, enhance transparency and strengthen expenditure efficiency as a major public financial management system reform?

• (a)Paper-Based Clearing System
• (b)Decentralized Account Management System
• (c)Just-in-Time Fund Release System
• (d)Asset Management and Tracking System

'Anna Chakra' PDS Supply Chain Optimization is an initiative launched by the Government of India to enhance the efficiency of the PDS logistics network across the country. Which one of the following Indian institutions collaborated with the United Nations World Food Programme to develop this system?

• (a)The Indian Institute of Technology Madras
• (b)The Indian Institute of Science
• (c)The Defence Research and Development Organization
• (d)The Indian Institute of Technology Delhi

Which one among the following events of Indian history was the earliest to take place?

• (a)Dandi March
• (b)Chauri Chaura Incident
• (c)Partition of Bengal
• (d)Champaran Satyagraha

Consider the following statements:

• 1.The first book in the Tamil script was printed in 1578.
• 2.The first printing press at Bombay was imported from England by the efforts of Bhimji Parikh.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a)1 only
• (b)2 only
• (c)Both 1 and 2
• (d)Neither 1 nor 2

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I (Sufi Work): A. Kashf-ul Mahjub; B. Fawa'id-al Fu'ad; C. Siyar-ul Auliya; D. Maktubat-i Imam Rabbani. List-II (Nature of Composition): 1. Biographical accounts of saints; 2. Manuals dealing with Sufi thought; 3. Letters of Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi; 4. Conversations of Shaikh Nizamuddin Auliya

Code:

• (a)A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
• (b)A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
• (c)A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
• (d)A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

Which one of the following statements about the 'Amara-Nayaka' system is not correct?

• (a)The Amara-Nayaka system was a major political innovation of the Vijayanagara Empire.
• (b)The Amara-Nayakas were military commanders who were given territories to govern by the Raya.
• (c)The Amara-Nayakas collected taxes and retained part of the revenue for personal use and for maintaining their contingents.
• (d)The territories held by the Amara-Nayakas were hereditary and were therefore non-transferrable.

Which of the following is an offshoot of the Chaitanya tradition originating in Nadia in Bengal and followed by both Hindus and Muslims?

• (a)Ekasarana Dharma
• (b)Sahajiya
• (c)Gaudiya Vaishnavism
• (d)Baul

Consider the following statements about the Zawar mines:

• 1.Zinc was present, mixed with ores of copper, lead and silver.
• 2.By the 14th century, zinc began to be isolated by the distillation method.
• 3.Abul Fazl described zinc as a newly discovered metal unknown to the ancients.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a)1 and 2 only
• (b)2 and 3 only
• (c)1 and 3 only
• (d)1, 2 and 3

Which one of the following does not find mention in the works of the astronomers of ancient India?

• (a)Sun
• (b)Mercury
• (c)Uranus
• (d)Venus

Which one among the following about Kodumanal is correct?

• (a)An archaeological site in Tamil Nadu
• (b)A Chera king
• (c)An Alvar saint
• (d)A celebrated dance form of South India

Which one of the following inscriptions refers to a confederacy of Tamil States?

• (a)The Second Major Rock Edict of Ashoka
• (b)Hathigumpha Inscription of Kharavela
• (c)Allahabad Pillar Inscription of Samudragupta
• (d)Junagadh Inscription of Rudradaman

Who among the following Vedic deities was considered the guardian of compacts and marriages?

• (a)Marut
• (b)Varuna
• (c)Aryaman
• (d)Agni

In which one of the following Vedas does the term 'Gotra' appear for the first time as representing a clan?

• (a)Rigveda
• (b)Atharvaveda
• (c)Samaveda
• (d)Yajurveda

The 'Descent of the Ganga' is a

• (a)relief sculpture at Mamallapuram
• (b)poem by Bhatti
• (c)temple built by Rashtrakutas
• (d)painting at Ajanta

Who among the following Congressmen was not a member of the 'No-Changers' group?

• (a)C. Rajagopalachari
• (b)Rajendra Prasad
• (c)Vithalbhai Patel
• (d)Vallabhbhai Patel

Arrange the following events in the correct chronological order:

• 1.Formation of the Azad Hind Government
• 2.Setting-up of the Indian Legion
• 3.Beginning of the INA trials
• 4.The Bombay Naval Strike

Select the answer using the code given below.

• (a)2-1-3-4
• (b)3-1-4-2
• (c)2-1-4-3
• (d)1-2-3-4

Who among the following was appointed by the Constituent Assembly of India as Head of the Sub-Committee for North-East Frontier (Assam) Tribal and Excluded Areas?

• (a)Gopinath Bordoloi
• (b)Rupnath Brahma
• (c)Bishnuram Medhi
• (d)Tarun Ram Phukan

The Universal Declaration of Human Rights adopted by the United Nations General Assembly Resolution of 1948 does not include

• (a)right against arbitrary arrest
• (b)right against slavery
• (c)right against inhuman or degrading treatment
• (d)right to rest and leisure

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I (Constitutional Amendment Act): A. The Constitution (One Hundred and Second Amendment) Act; B. The Constitution (One Hundred and Third Amendment) Act; C. The Constitution (One Hundred and Fourth Amendment) Act; D. The Constitution (One Hundred and Sixth Amendment) Act. List-II (Major Amendment): 1. Constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes; 2. Abolition of reservation of seats for Anglo-Indians in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies; 3. Ten percent reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) in the Central Government jobs; 4. Thirty-three percent reservation for women in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies

Code:

• (a)A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
• (b)A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
• (c)A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
• (d)A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1

Which of the following statements about Public Interest Litigation (PIL) is/are correct?

• 1.In India, it adheres to the strict requirements imposed by the doctrine of locus standi.
• 2.Letters to judges may be treated as petitions.
• 3.M. C. Mehta vs. Union of India was a PIL that expanded the scope of Article 21 and Article 32 of the Constitution of India.

Select the answer using the code given below.

• (a)1, 2 and 3
• (b)2 and 3 only
• (c)3 only
• (d)1 and 2 only

Which of the following statements in respect of the election of the President of India is/are correct?

• 1.By convention, the Secretary General, Lok Sabha or the Secretary General, Rajya Sabha is appointed as the Returning Officer by rotation.
• 2.Members of the Electoral College can vote according to their wish and are not bound by any party whip.
• 3.The provisions of NOTA are applicable.

Select the answer using the code given below.

• (a)1 and 2
• (b)2 and 3
• (c)1 and 3
• (d)1 only

Which one of the following pairs of Ministries and Departments is not correctly matched?

• (a)The Ministry of Finance : The Department of Pension and Pensioners' Welfare
• (b)The Ministry of Home Affairs : The Department of Official Language
• (c)The Ministry of Defence : The Department of Ex-Servicemen Welfare
• (d)The Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers : The Department of Pharmaceuticals

Which among the following subjects is not included in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India?

• (a)The Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act, 1969
• (b)The General Insurance Business (Nationalization) Act, 1972
• (c)The Coal Mines (Taking Over of Management) Act, 1973
• (d)The Consumer Protection Act, 2019

Which one of the following statements in respect of the North Eastern Council is correct?

• (a)The Council is the nodal agency under the Ministry of Home Affairs for the economic and social development of eight States in the North Eastern Region.
• (b)The Council consists of the Governors and Chief Ministers of eight North Eastern States along with three members nominated by the Governors of the respective States.
• (c)The Council was constituted in 1971 by an Act of the Parliament.
• (d)Manipur was added as the eighth member State in the North Eastern Council.

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I (Landmark Judgment): A. A. K. Gopalan vs. State of Madras; B. K. M. Nanavati vs. State of Bombay; C. Maneka Gandhi vs. Union of India; D. Shyam Narayan Chouksey vs. Union of India. List-II (Issue): 1. Whether Preventive Detention Act ultra vires the Fundamental Rights under the Constitution of India; 2. Whether the National Anthem must be played before movies in theatres; 3. Examining the power of suspension of sentence by the Governor under Article 161 of the Constitution of India; 4. Whether right to go abroad is included in right under Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution of India

Code:

• (a)A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
• (b)A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
• (c)A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
• (d)A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1

Which of the following statements in respect of the nature of the federal system in India is/are correct?

• 1.Since the States had an independent existence prior to the formation of the Federation, the Constitution of India provided for safeguards for protecting 'State rights', similar to the Constitution of the United States.
• 2.The residuary powers are reserved with the States under the Constitution of the United States, but these are with the Union under the Constitution of India.
• 3.The Constitution of India has followed the Irish Constitution in vesting the residuary powers.

Select the answer using the code given below.

• (a)1, 2 and 3
• (b)2 only
• (c)2 and 3 only
• (d)1 and 3 only

Which of the following statements about the Viksit Bharat-G RAM G Act, 2025 is/are correct?

• 1.It links wage employment with durable rural infrastructure across four priority areas.
• 2.All assets created are aggregated into the Viksit Bharat National Rural Infrastructure Stack.

Select the answer using the code given below.

• (a)1 only
• (b)2 only
• (c)Both 1 and 2
• (d)Neither 1 nor 2

Which of the following are a part of the 'basic features' of the Constitution of India as drawn from various decisions of the Supreme Court?

• 1.Effective access to justice
• 2.Rule of Law
• 3.Limitations upon the amending power under Article 368

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

• (a)1 and 2 only
• (b)1 and 3 only
• (c)2 and 3 only
• (d)1, 2 and 3

Which of the following statements about the Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against Women are correct?

• 1.The Convention was the culmination of more than thirty years of work by the United Nations Commission on the Status of Women.
• 2.The Convention devotes major attention to women's reproductive rights.
• 3.The implementation of the Convention is monitored by the Committee on Human Rights.

Select the answer using the code given below.

• (a)1 and 2 only
• (b)1 and 3 only
• (c)2 and 3 only
• (d)1, 2 and 3

Which one among the following States has the highest allocation of seats in the Council of States?

• (a)West Bengal
• (b)Karnataka
• (c)Rajasthan
• (d)Tamil Nadu

Which of the following statements about human rights is/are correct?

• 1.The first generation rights were traditional civil and political rights.
• 2.The second generation rights are solidarity rights.

Select the answer using the code given below.

• (a)1 only
• (b)2 only
• (c)Both 1 and 2
• (d)Neither 1 nor 2

Which of the following statements about Article 20(1) of the Constitution of India is/are correct?

• 1.It contains a provision against ex post facto legislation.
• 2.A legislation shall not be competent to make a criminal law retrospective.

Select the answer using the code given below.

• (a)1 only
• (b)2 only
• (c)Both 1 and 2
• (d)Neither 1 nor 2

When A runs 5 km, B can run 2 km. Initially A was 750 m behind B and they were running in the same direction. How much distance, in metres, must A run to cross B, if they start at the same time?

• (a)500
• (b)750
• (c)1250
• (d)1500

There is a question followed by two statements I and II: Question: If x and y are integers, can we find |x – y| uniquely? I. x^2 + y^2 = 25. II. x^2 – y^2 = 7. Which one of the following options is correct?

• (a)The question can be answered using one of these statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other statement
• (b)The question can be answered using either statement alone
• (c)The question can be answered using both the statements together, but cannot be answered using either statement alone
• (d)The question cannot be answered even using any of the statements

A metallic cylindrical disc of radius 7 cm is melted and 22 square-shaped solids of the same thickness are made. If l cm is the side length of these squares, then (in cm)

• (a)2.5 < l < 2.6
• (b)2.6 < l < 2.7
• (c)2.7 < l < 2.8
• (d)2.8 < l < 2.9

In a club, there are 58 members. Among them, 25 members drink tea, 23 members drink coffee and only 7 members drink both tea and coffee. What is the ratio of the number of members who drink tea or coffee but not both, to the number of members who drink neither tea nor coffee?

• (a)1 : 2
• (b)1 : 3
• (c)3 : 1
• (d)2 : 1

The brightness of a lightning event was seen at 19:06:17 hr, whereas the sound of the thunder in the same process was heard at 19:06:23 hr. If the speed of the sound is 320 metres per second, then which of the following is the distance in metres between the clouds that produced the lightning and the thunder, and the observer?

• (a)1720
• (b)1820
• (c)1920
• (d)2020

A large pot X contains 3 litres mixture consisting of milk and water in the ratio 3:2. Another pot Y contains 100 litres mixture consisting of milk and water in the ratio 9:1. How many litres of mixture from pot Y are to be poured into pot X to get a mixture with the ratio of milk to water as 17:3 in pot X?

• (a)9
• (b)12
• (c)15
• (d)18

A person X has to make a payment of Rs. 56. He has twenty-five Rs. 2 coins and nine Rs. 5 coins. In how many different ways can he make this payment?

• (a)3
• (b)4
• (c)5
• (d)6

There are three rooms (I, II and III) with occupancy capacity of three each. P, Q, R, S and T are five friends. R and S occupied room I; T occupied room II. In how many different ways can P and Q occupy the rooms if there is no additional restriction?

• (a)8
• (b)7
• (c)6
• (d)5

If ART is encoded as BQU, then TAR is encoded as

• (a)UZS
• (b)UQB
• (c)QBU
• (d)USZ

A shopkeeper marked a price on an article so that he gets 50% profit. After 2 months, the sale of the article reduced. So, he decided to sell the same article with a profit of 20%. What percentage of discount does he announce to get only 20% profit?

• (a)50
• (b)40
• (c)30
• (d)20

The smaller angle made by the hour and the minute hands is noted when it was 1:30 PM. In which of the following intervals of time will the smaller angle between these hands again be the same?

• (a)1:44 PM and 1:45 PM
• (b)1:45 PM and 1:46 PM
• (c)1:46 PM and 1:47 PM
• (d)1:47 PM and 1:48 PM

In a matching problem, there are two columns. The first column has 4 statements whereas the second column has 5 statements. Every statement of the first column is to be matched with exactly one statement of the second column. In how many different ways can one student match the two columns if the student has no idea of the correct match?

• (a)120
• (b)110
• (c)100
• (d)90

A rectangular wall is partitioned into 5 rectangular parts as shown in the following diagram: the wall is divided into two columns on the left two-thirds of its width and one tall column spanning the full height on the right (so the left two-thirds forms 2 top cells and 2 bottom cells side by side, plus 1 full-height cell on the right, totalling 5 parts). If you have three different colours to paint the wall and if no two adjacent parts are to be painted with the same colour, in how many different ways can one paint the wall?

• (a)16
• (b)17
• (c)18
• (d)19

Suppose 1 <= x, y, z <= 9 are integers such that x > z. Let alpha and beta be the three-digit numbers given by alpha = xyz and beta = zyx so that x, y, z are the digits as they are shown. Set gamma = alpha – beta. How many of the following statements are always true? I. 2 does not divide gamma. II. 3 divides gamma. III. 5 does not divide gamma. IV. 7 does not divide gamma. V. 11 divides gamma. VI. 13 does not divide gamma.

Select the correct answer.

• (a)3
• (b)4
• (c)5
• (d)6

P, Q, R and S are four places. To travel from P to R, one travels via Q and to travel from P to S, one travels via both Q and R. Between P and Q, there are 3 routes; between Q and R, there are 4 routes; and between R and S, there are 5 routes. The time taken to travel through these routes is exhibited on the following chart in hours for a specific vehicle: Routes table (Route number: Between P and Q / Between Q and R / Between R and S, in hours) — 1: 2 / 1 / 2; 2: 3 / 1.5 / 2; 3: 4 / 2 / 2.5; 4: — / 2 / 3; 5: — / — / 3.5. How many possible routes are there if the journey takes exactly 7 hours?

• (a)10
• (b)11
• (c)12
• (d)13

The Strait of Hormuz connects

• (a)the Red Sea and the Mediterranean Sea
• (b)the Gulf of Aden and the Red Sea
• (c)the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman
• (d)the Black Sea and the Mediterranean Sea

Which of the following countries share borders with Israel?

• 1.Egypt
• 2.Jordan
• 3.Syria
• 4.Lebanon

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

• (a)1 and 4 only
• (b)1 and 2 only
• (c)2 and 3 only
• (d)1, 2, 3 and 4

Consider the following pairs of islands and related water bodies: I. Kharg : Persian Gulf; II. Vaan : Gulf of Mannar; III. Tuti : Red Sea; IV. Qeshm : Arabian Sea. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

• (a)1
• (b)2
• (c)3
• (d)4

Consider the following statements regarding Industrial Corridors in India:

• 1.They are linear development zones.
• 2.They connect all major State capitals through an integrated network of roads, railways, ports and airports.
• 3.They promote acceleration of industrial growth.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a)1 and 2
• (b)1 and 3
• (c)3 only
• (d)1 only

Consider the following statements regarding cyclones in India:

• 1.More cyclones occur in the Bay of Bengal than in the Arabian Sea.
• 2.On an average, 12 to 15 tropical cyclones form every year.
• 3.Tropical cyclones occur continuously throughout the year.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a)1 only
• (b)1 and 3
• (c)2 and 3
• (d)2 only

Consider the following statements about a geographical feature:

• 1.The feature is in close proximity to the Malacca Strait.
• 2.The Government of India proposed an international container transhipment port in this region.
• 3.The region is one of the most critical nesting grounds for the endangered leatherback sea turtle.
• 4.The region is home to dense forest, rich coral reefs and sea grass meadows.

Which one among the following geographical features is described above?

• (a)Galathea Bay
• (b)Gulf of Mannar
• (c)Gulf of Kutch
• (d)Palk Strait

Consider the following statements:

• 1.A great circle is the largest possible circle that can be drawn on the surface of the sphere.
• 2.Every great circle divides the Earth into equal halves.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a)1 only
• (b)2 only
• (c)Both 1 and 2
• (d)Neither 1 nor 2

Consider the following statements:

• 1.GPS uses signals from a network of satellites to determine a position on the Earth.
• 2.The GPS receiver calculates the distances from satellites to triangulate the exact location by the use of latitude.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a)1 only
• (b)2 only
• (c)Both 1 and 2
• (d)Neither 1 nor 2

Which one among the following capital cities of the Union Territories of India is located at coordinates 11.62° North and 92.72° East?

• (a)Sri Vijaya Puram
• (b)Kavaratti
• (c)Puducherry
• (d)Chandigarh

Consider the following statements about a cloud form:

• 1.These are made up of ice crystals rather than droplets of water.
• 2.They are thin, stringy, white clouds that trail like feathers across the sky.
• 3.These clouds are formed at very high altitudes — normally between 6000 metres and 10000 metres.

Which one among the following cloud forms is described above?

• (a)Cirrus
• (b)Stratus
• (c)Cumulus
• (d)Nimbus

Consider the following statements:

• 1.Many urban and suburban areas experience a higher temperature than surrounding rural areas known as urban heat islands.
• 2.The reduction in urban green cover and the increase of built-up hard surface is the only cause of urban heat island.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a)1 only
• (b)2 only
• (c)Both 1 and 2
• (d)Neither 1 nor 2

Consider the following statements regarding the Andaman and Nicobar Islands:

• 1.There are 836 islands/islets/rocky outcrops.
• 2.The group of islands is divided by the Ten Degree Channel.
• 3.The Union Territory is home to tribes such as Koya, Malmi, Melacheri and Aminidivi.
• 4.There are more than two major ports in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a)1 only
• (b)1 and 2 only
• (c)1, 2 and 3
• (d)2 and 4

Consider the following rivers of India: I. Sharavathi; II. Periyar; III. Mandovi; IV. Daman Ganga. How many of the above are west-flowing rivers?

• (a)1
• (b)2
• (c)3
• (d)4

Consider the following statements:

• 1.India's total electricity generation in the last four years (2022-23 to 2025-26) has witnessed an increasing trend.
• 2.The average availability of electricity in both rural and urban areas has increased in the last 12 years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a)1 only
• (b)2 only
• (c)Both 1 and 2
• (d)Neither 1 nor 2

Consider the following statements with respect to ports in India:

• 1.There are 12 major ports in operation in the country.
• 2.The major ports are under the administrative control of the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, whereas the non-major ports are under the jurisdiction of respective State Maritime Boards/State Governments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a)1 only
• (b)2 only
• (c)Both 1 and 2
• (d)Neither 1 nor 2

Which one of the following statements about natural selection is not correct?

• (a)Natural selection can only occur if there is no variation amongst members of the same species.
• (b)Over time, natural selection can increase the frequency of adaptations that are favourable in a given environment.
• (c)Species tend to overproduce beyond what the environment can support.
• (d)Mutation, meiosis and sexual reproduction cause variation between individuals of a species.

Which one of the following Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) talks about protecting and restoring terrestrial ecosystems, sustainably managing forests, combating desertification, halting and reversing land degradation and stopping biodiversity loss?

• (a)SDG 5
• (b)SDG 13
• (c)SDG 15
• (d)SDG 16

Consider the following statements regarding biodiversity conservation:

• 1.In situ conservation refers to conservation of species in their natural habitats.
• 2.Nature reserves are areas specifically designed for wildlife conservation.
• 3.Captive breeding of animals is an in situ conservation measure.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a)1 only
• (b)1 and 2
• (c)3 only
• (d)2 and 3

Consider the following statements about genetic engineering:

• 1.The technique of genetic engineering involves creation of recombinant DNA, use of gene cloning and gene transfer.
• 2.Restriction enzymes cut DNA at specific locations.
• 3.Restriction enzymes split the entire double-stranded DNA into two strands.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a)1 only
• (b)1 and 2
• (c)1 and 3
• (d)2 and 3

Which of the following statements about eutrophication is/are correct?

• 1.Eutrophication takes place in young lakes when the water is cold and clear.
• 2.Eutrophication is caused by nutrient enrichment in water bodies.

Select the answer using the code given below.

• (a)1 only
• (b)2 only
• (c)Both 1 and 2
• (d)Neither 1 nor 2

In which one of the following regions of the Earth is the ozone hole prominently observed in the stratosphere?

• (a)Equatorial region
• (b)Arctic region
• (c)Antarctic region
• (d)Tropical region

Which of the following is/are the basic step(s) in genetically modifying an organism?

• 1.Identification of DNA with desirable genes
• 2.Introduction of the identified DNA into the host
• 3.Maintenance of introduced DNA in the host and transfer of the DNA to its progeny

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

• (a)1 only
• (b)1, 2 and 3
• (c)2 and 3 only
• (d)3 only

Which one of the following factors is responsible for the spread of myxomatosis — a severe viral disease among rabbits?

• (a)Higher water temperature
• (b)Higher soil temperature
• (c)High population density of rabbits
• (d)Low population density of rabbits

Consider the following stages of insulin production procedure through gene technology:

• 1.Isolation of insulin coding gene from humans
• 2.Inserting the insulin coding gene into a plasmid vector
• 3.Inserting the recombinant plasmid vector into the bacterium (E. coli)

Which of the following is a correct sequence of the above?

• (a)1-2-3
• (b)1-3-2
• (c)3-2-1
• (d)2-3-1

Which one of the following statements about the catalytic conversion of nitrogen gas by nitrogenase enzyme in root nodules of leguminous plants is not correct?

• (a)It needs ATP (Adenosine Tri-Phosphate) supply.
• (b)It converts N2 (nitrogen gas) to NH4+ (ammonium ion) first.
• (c)It needs hydrogen supply from reduced NADP (Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide Phosphate).
• (d)It needs aerobic condition for the process.

Which one of the following statements about arteries is not correct?

• (a)The inner lining is made of squamous endothelium.
• (b)The middle layer is made of smooth muscle and elastic fibres.
• (c)The outer layer is made of fibrous connective tissue with collagen fibres.
• (d)Arteries have the thinnest walls amongst any other blood vessels.

Which one of the following effects best explains the high partial pressure of carbon dioxide causing haemoglobin to release oxygen in actively respiring tissues?

• (a)Haldane effect
• (b)Allee effect
• (c)Bohr effect
• (d)Eagle effect

Which one of the following statements about xylem vessels in plants is not correct?

• (a)Xylem vessels have lignified cell walls.
• (b)Phloem sieve tubes are identical to xylem vessels in structure.
• (c)Dead xylem vessels provide structural support to plants.
• (d)Water is transported through xylem vessels.

Which one of the following is considered as the basic structural element of all life forms?

• (a)Phosphorus
• (b)Carbon
• (c)Oxygen
• (d)Nitrogen

Which one of the following plant hormones promotes stomatal closure during drought stress?

• (a)Auxin
• (b)Cytokinin
• (c)Gibberellin
• (d)Abscisic acid

Which of the following statements about nuclear fuel are correct?

• 1.Spent fuel is highly radioactive.
• 2.Fuel has to be enriched.
• 3.Failure of the control system can lead to a meltdown.

Select the answer using the code given below.

• (a)1 and 2 only
• (b)1, 2 and 3
• (c)2 and 3 only
• (d)1 and 3 only

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I (Biological Molecule): A. Insulin; B. Haemoglobin; C. Amino acids; D. Cholesterol. List-II (Function/Property): 1. Monomer units of proteins; 2. High concentration linked to circulatory system diseases; 3. Carries oxygen; 4. Controls the concentration of glucose in blood

Code:

• (a)A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
• (b)A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
• (c)A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2
• (d)A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2

With reference to fossil fuels, consider the following statements:

• 1.Coal is the most abundant fossil fuel and has high specific energy and energy density.
• 2.The action of heat and pressure changes plant matter in stages from anthracite to bituminous to lignite coal.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a)1 only
• (b)2 only
• (c)Both 1 and 2
• (d)Neither 1 nor 2

Which one of the following statements is correct?

• (a)The number of electrons in alpha (a) particle is 2.
• (b)The coordination number of EDTA is 6.
• (c)The charge of beta (B) particle is +2.
• (d)Both carbon and silicon form ionic compounds.

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I (Constituent of Paint): A. Pigment; B. Extender; C. Thinner; D. Drier. List-II (Example): 1. Zinc oxide; 2. China clay; 3. Naphthenate; 4. Turpentine

Code:

• (a)A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
• (b)A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
• (c)A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
• (d)A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1

Which of the following is/are renewable source(s) of energy?

• 1.Fossil fuel
• 2.Biofuel
• 3.Uranium
• 4.Hydropower

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

• (a)2 only
• (b)3 and 4
• (c)1 and 3
• (d)2 and 4

Consider the following statements in the light of octane number and cetane number of fuels:

• 1.Cetane number is used for gasoline and octane number is used for diesel.
• 2.Octane number of n-hexadecane is 100 and cetane number of isooctane is 100.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a)1 only
• (b)2 only
• (c)Both 1 and 2
• (d)Neither 1 nor 2

Which of the following pairs of products obtained from petroleum distillation and their uses are correctly matched?

• 1.Petroleum ether : Used as solvent
• 2.Petroleum jelly : Used to make coating of metals
• 3.Petroleum wax : Used as rubber solvent
• 4.White spirit : Used for making candles

Select the answer using the code given below.

• (a)1, 3 and 4
• (b)1 and 2
• (c)2, 3 and 4
• (d)3 and 4 only

Which one of the following processes is not used for the production of hydrogen gas?

• (a)Electrolytic process
• (b)Water gas-steam process
• (c)Liquefaction of coal gas
• (d)Hydrolysis of calcium carbide

Which among the following are, respectively the correct oxidation numbers of chloride ion in Cl2O7, Cl2O, ClO3- and ClO2-?

• (a)+7, +2, +4, +3
• (b)+2, -1, -3, +4
• (c)+7, +1, +3, -3
• (d)+7, +1, +5, +3

Sound Navigation and Ranging (SONAR) is used to detect underwater objects. For this, its transmitter produces

• (a)microwaves
• (b)visible light
• (c)ultrasonic waves
• (d)infrared radiation

Which combination of three resistors R1, R2 and R3 has minimum total resistance? (Consider R1 = 1 ohm, R2 = 2 ohm and R3 = 3 ohm)

• (a)When all are connected in parallel
• (b)When all are connected in series
• (c)When R1 and R2 are connected in parallel and R3 is in series of them
• (d)When R1 and R3 are connected in parallel and R2 is in series of them

If the relative density of gold is 19.3 and the density of water is 10^6 g/m^3, what will be the density of gold in SI units?

• (a)1930 kg/m^3
• (b)19300 kg/m^3
• (c)193000 kg/m^3
• (d)1.93 x 10^6 kg/m^3

Velocity (m/s)-time (s) graph is plotted for the motion of two cars A and B for 10 s, when the cars are initially at rest and acquire final velocities as VA and VB, respectively. The respective straight lines of the graph make angles 30 degrees and 60 degrees, respectively with the x-axis (time). The difference in velocities VB and VA is

• (a)20/sqrt(3) m/s
• (b)2/sqrt(3) m/s
• (c)3 m/s
• (d)1 m/s

A uniform current-carrying narrow solenoid produces

• (a)uniform magnetic field inside the solenoid
• (b)uniform magnetic field outside the solenoid
• (c)magnetic field with straight field lines in all the regions
• (d)magnetic field with oscillating nature

For a particle in uniform circular motion (radius R and angular velocity omega), the magnitude and direction of acceleration, respectively are

• (a)omega*R, along the radius outward
• (b)omega*R, towards the centre of the circle
• (c)omega^2*R, towards the centre of the circle
• (d)omega^3*R, along the linear velocity

Which one among the following statements is correct?

• (a)The total mechanical energy of a system is conserved if the forces, doing work on it, are conservative.
• (b)The total mechanical energy of a system is conserved if the forces, doing work on it, are non-conservative.
• (c)The total mechanical energy of a system remains constant.
• (d)Every force encountered in mechanics does have an associated well-defined potential energy.

Which one of the following does not generally obey Hooke's law?

• (a)Glass
• (b)Quartz
• (c)Clay
• (d)Copper

Which of the following statements regarding Carnot engine is/are correct?

• 1.It is an irreversible engine operating between two temperatures T1 (source) and T2 (sink).
• 2.Its efficiency is given by eta = 1 – T2/T1, where T1 is the temperature of source and T2 is the temperature of sink.

Select the answer using the code given below.

• (a)1 only
• (b)2 only
• (c)Both 1 and 2
• (d)Neither 1 nor 2

In the ideal gas equation PV = uRT, relating pressure P, volume V and absolute temperature T, the quantity u is

• (a)number of moles
• (b)number of molecules
• (c)specific heat ratio
• (d)coefficient of friction

Which one among the following statements is not correct?

• (a)Assembler translates an assembly language program into a machine language program.
• (b)Compiler is a program that translates high-level language into machine language.
• (c)Assembly level program is a sequence of machine language instructions.
• (d)The term 'firmware' is used for the software stored in read-only storage devices.

Which one among the following transmission media is best suited for transmission of information over large distance?

• (a)Twisted pair
• (b)Optical fibre
• (c)Thick Ethernet
• (d)Thin Ethernet

Which one among the following devices is used for converting digital signals into analog signals and vice versa?

• (a)Router
• (b)Switch
• (c)Bridge
• (d)Modem

The binary multiplication of the numbers 12 and 10 will be

• (a)1111000
• (b)1110001
• (c)1111001
• (d)1111010

How many text alignments are there in Microsoft Word?

• (a)1
• (b)2
• (c)3
• (d)4