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UPSC CDS (II) 2020 — General Knowledge (Full Question Paper)

Combined Defence Services Examination (II), 2020 · Booklet DZOL-D-LKG, Series A

General Knowledge

120 questions
100 marks
2 hours
GeographyGeneral ScienceEnvironment & EcologyPolity & GovernanceEconomyHistory & CultureInt’l Relations & DefenceSports & Current Affairs
Questions 1–10
1.
Economy

As per the Budget Estimates of 2019-20, the following are some of the important sources of tax receipts for the Union Government: 1. Corporation Tax 2. Taxes on Income other than Corporation Tax 3. Goods and Services Tax 4. Union Excise Duties Which one of the following is the correct descending order of the foresaid tax receipts as a percentage of GDP?

  • (a)1, 2, 3, 4
  • (b)1, 3, 2, 4
  • (c)3, 2, 1, 4
  • (d)2, 4, 3, 1

Answer: (b)

Corporation Tax was the largest of these as a share of GDP in 2019-20 BE, followed by the Centre’s GST share, then income tax, then excise.

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2.
Economy

As per the World Bank's Ease of Doing Business Ranking, India's rank has improved from 142 in 2014 to 63 in 2019. During this period, in which of the following parameters has India's rank deteriorated?

  • (a)Ease of starting a business
  • (b)Getting electricity
  • (c)Registering property
  • (d)Paying taxes

Answer: (c)

India’s rank on registering property actually slipped, from 121 to 154, even as its overall ranking climbed sharply.

Related: IndEco0216 — Ease of Doing Business Reforms in India

View this question →

3.
Economy

Which one of the following statements with regard to the National Food Security Act is not correct?

  • (a)The Act was enacted in the year 2013
  • (b)The Act was rolled out in the year 2014
  • (c)The Act legally entitles 67 percent of the population to receive highly subsidised food grains
  • (d)The Act is not being implemented in all the States/Union Territories

Answer: (d) The Act is not being implemented in all the States/Union Territories

This statement is NOT correct. The National Food Security Act (2013) is a central law implemented across all states and UTs. It legally entitles about 67% of the population (75% rural and 50% urban) to highly subsidised foodgrain.

Related: Agriculture in the Indian Economy

4.
Economy

Which one of the following statements about Indian economy during 2019-20 is not correct?

  • (a)There has been deceleration in growth rate
  • (b)There has been sluggish growth in tax revenue relative to the Budget Estimates
  • (c)Fiscal deficit as percentage of GDP has been as per the Budget Estimates
  • (d)The non-tax revenue registered a considerably higher growth

Answer: (c)

Fiscal deficit actually overshot the Budget Estimates that year, driven by weak tax collections.

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5.
Economy

As per the Budget Estimates of expenditure on major subsidies during 2019-20, the maximum expenditure was likely to be on

  • (a)urea subsidy
  • (b)petroleum subsidy
  • (c)food subsidy
  • (d)fertilizer subsidy

Answer: (c) food subsidy

In the 2019-20 budget estimates, food subsidy was the largest single subsidy, ahead of fertiliser and petroleum.

Related: Agricultural Subsidies: Types and Economics

6.
Geography

Which one of the following Indian places receives minimum rainfall in a year?

  • (a)Jodhpur
  • (b)Leh
  • (c)New Delhi
  • (d)Bengaluru

Answer: (b)

Leh sits in the Himalayan rain shadow, a cold desert receiving even less rainfall than the hot Thar Desert around Jodhpur.

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7.
Geography

Timber vegetation is generally not found in which of the following regions?

  • (a)Subtropical region
  • (b)Temperate region
  • (c)Alpine region
  • (d)Tundra region

Answer: (d)

The Tundra’s extreme cold and short growing season prevent trees from establishing at all.

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8.
Geography

Decadal growth rate of population in percentage was highest in India in the year

  • (a)1991
  • (b)1981
  • (c)1971
  • (d)1961

Answer: (c)

The 1961-71 decade recorded India’s highest-ever decadal growth rate, at 24.8%.

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9.
Geography

The Isotherm Line, which divides India North-South in almost two equal parts in the month of January, is

  • (a)10°C
  • (b)25°C
  • (c)15°C
  • (d)20°C

Answer: (d)

The 20 degree C isotherm runs roughly across central India in January, separating the cooler north from the milder south.

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10.
Geography

Which one of the following indicates the Tropical Savannah climate?

  • (a)Aw
  • (b)Dfc
  • (c)Cwg
  • (d)Am

Answer: (a)

In the Koppen system, Aw denotes a tropical wet-and-dry climate, the Savannah type.

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Questions 11–20
11.
Geography

The largest geographical area of India is covered by which one of the following types of soils?

  • (a)Inceptisols
  • (b)Entisols
  • (c)Alfisols
  • (d)Vertisols

Answer: (a)

Inceptisols are India’s single largest soil order by area, covering roughly a quarter of the country.

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12.
Geography

Which one of the following cities is closest to the Equator?

  • (a)Mogadishu
  • (b)Singapore
  • (c)Colombo
  • (d)Manila

Answer: (b)

Singapore sits at about 1.3 degrees North, closer to the Equator than Mogadishu, Colombo, or Manila.

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13.
History & Culture

Who among the following gave evidence before the Joint Select Committee on the Government of India Bill, 1919 in favour of female franchise? 1. Mrs. Annie Besant 2. Mrs. Sarojini Naidu 3. Mrs. Hirabai Tata Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  • (a)1 only
  • (b)1 and 2 only
  • (c)2 and 3 only
  • (d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

Annie Besant, Sarojini Naidu, and Hirabai Tata all testified before the Committee, pressing for women’s voting rights.

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14.
History & Culture

In which one of the following places was the Ahmadiyya Movement started by Mirza Ghulam Ahmad?

  • (a)Patna
  • (b)Aligarh
  • (c)Bhopal
  • (d)Gurdaspur

Answer: (d)

Mirza Ghulam Ahmad founded the movement at Qadian, a town in Gurdaspur district, Punjab, in 1889.

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15.
History & Culture

With whom did Subhas Chandra Bose form an alliance to destroy the Holwell Monument in Calcutta during 1939-40?

  • (a)The Communist Party of India
  • (b)The Muslim League
  • (c)The Hindu Mahasabha
  • (d)The Unionist Party

Answer: (b)

Bose allied with Muslim League leader Fazlul Huq’s government to have the monument removed in 1940.

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16.
History & Culture

Who among the following created the first All India Trade Union Congress in 1920?

  • (a)B.P. Wadia
  • (b)S.A. Dange
  • (c)N.M. Joshi
  • (d)B.T. Ranadive

Answer: (c) N.M. Joshi

N.M. Joshi was a founder-organizer of the All-India Trade Union Congress, created in Bombay in October 1920 with Lala Lajpat Rai as president and Dewan Chaman Lal as general secretary. B.P. Wadia founded the Madras Labour Union (1918); S.A. Dange and B.T. Ranadive were communist leaders of the later 1920s.

Related: ModHist0351 — The Founding of the Hind Mazdoor Sabha · View this question →

17.
History & Culture

Which one among the following was India's first trade union in the proper sense of the term?

  • (a)Bombay Labour Union
  • (b)Ahmedabad Labour Union
  • (c)Madras Labour Union
  • (d)Allahabad Labour Union

Answer: (c) Madras Labour Union

The Madras Labour Union, founded by B.P. Wadia in 1918, is regarded as India’s first trade union in the proper sense – a continuous, dues-paying organisation of workers with demands and bargaining power. The Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association and Bombay unions came after it.

Related: ModHist0351 — The Founding of the Hind Mazdoor Sabha · View this question →

18.
History & Culture

Who among the following formed the Seva Samiti Boy Scouts Association in 1914?

  • (a)Hriday Nath Kunzru
  • (b)S.G. Vaze
  • (c)Annie Besant
  • (d)Shri Ram Bajpai

Answer: (d)

Shri Ram Bajpai founded the scouting wing, separate from the Seva Samiti itself, which Hriday Nath Kunzru had founded.

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19.
Polity & Governance

Which one among the following is not correct about the Secretary General of the Lok Sabha?

  • (a)The Secretary General is the advisor to the Speaker
  • (b)The Secretary General acts under the authority in the name of the Speaker
  • (c)The Secretary General works under the Speaker with delegated authority
  • (d)The Secretary General passes orders in the name of the Speaker

Answer: (c)

The Secretary General acts under, and in the name of, the Speaker directly, rather than through a separate delegation of authority.

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20.
History & Culture

Who among the following moved the motion of Secret Sitting Session of the Assembly (1942)?

  • (a)M.S. Aney
  • (b)G.V. Mavalankar
  • (c)C.M. Stephen
  • (d)A. Ayyangar

Answer: (a)

M.S. Aney moved this motion in the Central Legislative Assembly in 1942.

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Questions 21–30
21.
Polity & Governance

Which one among the following statements pertaining to the President's term of office is not correct?

  • (a)The President holds office for a term of five years
  • (b)The President may be removed from the office by way of impeachment
  • (c)The President may resign before the expiration of his/her term by writing to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
  • (d)The President shall, notwithstanding the expiration of his/her term, continue to hold office until his/her successor enters upon his/her office

Answer: (c)

Under Article 56(1)(c), the President actually resigns by writing to the Vice-President, not the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

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22.
Polity & Governance

Which of the following Articles in the Constitution of India are exceptions to the Fundamental Rights enumerated in Article 14 and Article 19?

  • (a)Article 31A and Article 31C
  • (b)Article 31B and Article 31D
  • (c)Article 12 and Article 13
  • (d)Article 16 and Article 17

Answer: (a)

Article 31A and Article 31C shield certain categories of laws from challenge under Articles 14 and 19.

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23.
Polity & Governance

Which one of the following is not the necessary condition for the issue of a writ of Quo Warranto?

  • (a)The office must be a public office
  • (b)The office must be created by the Statute or by the Constitution itself
  • (c)The office must not be a substantive one
  • (d)There has been a contravention of the Constitution or a Statute in appropriating such person to that office

Answer: (c)

Quo Warranto actually requires the office to be a substantive one, not just a function delegated to an existing officer.

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24.
Polity & Governance

Which one of the following Commissions is related to Article 338A?

  • (a)The National Commission for Scheduled Castes
  • (b)The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
  • (c)The National Commission for Backward Classes
  • (d)The National Commission for Women

Answer: (b)

Article 338A specifically established the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes, separate from the SC Commission under Article 338.

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25.
Sports & Current Affairs

August 12 is celebrated as

  • (a)the World Environment Day
  • (b)the World No-Tobacco Day
  • (c)the International Day against Drug Abuse and Illicit Trafficking
  • (d)the International Youth Day

Answer: (d)

International Youth Day, designated by the UN, spotlights youth issues and empowerment worldwide.

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26.
Sports & Current Affairs

Which one of the following countries had chosen the name 'Nisarga' for the cyclone which devastated the coastline of Maharashtra and Gujarat in June 2020?

  • (a)Maldives
  • (b)Bangladesh
  • (c)Thailand
  • (d)Japan

Answer: (b) Bangladesh

Bangladesh suggested the name ‘Nisarga’, an Arabian Sea cyclone that struck Maharashtra and Gujarat in June 2020. Related: IndGeo0057 — Cyclone Formation: Bay of Bengal vs Arabian Sea

27.
Sports & Current Affairs

Who among the following played the role of Shakuntala Devi in the biopic movie based on the life of the famous mathematician?

  • (a)Madhuri Dixit
  • (b)Rani Mukherjee
  • (c)Tabu
  • (d)Vidya Balan

Answer: (d) Vidya Balan

Vidya Balan played the title role in the 2020 biopic “Shakuntala Devi,” dramatising the mathematician’s life and career.

Related: GenSci0031 — Shakuntala Devi: India’s Human Computer

(Source: Wikipedia, Shakuntala Devi (film))

28.
Sports & Current Affairs

G.C. Murmu, who was appointed as the Comptroller and Auditor General of India in August 2020, was the Lieutenant Governor/Administrator of which one of the following Union Territories prior to this appointment?

  • (a)Ladakh
  • (b)Jammu and Kashmir
  • (c)Chandigarh
  • (d)Puducherry

Answer: (b)

G.C. Murmu served as J&K’s first Lieutenant Governor before moving to head the CAG in August 2020.

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29.
Sports & Current Affairs

Which one of the following States is planned to host the Khelo India Youth Games (4th Edition)?

  • (a)Kerala
  • (b)Haryana
  • (c)Gujarat
  • (d)Manipur

Answer: (b)

Panchkula, Haryana, hosted the 4th edition of the Khelo India Youth Games.

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30.
Geography

Which one among the following is not a coral reef island?

  • (a)Great Barrier Reef, Australia
  • (b)Rainbow Reef, Fiji
  • (c)Swaraj Island, India
  • (d)Kyushu Island, Japan

Answer: (d)

Kyushu Island is a large volcanic and continental landmass, unlike the other three genuine coral reef formations.

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Questions 31–40
31.
Economy

Since 2014-15, India has consistently run trade surplus with which one among the following countries?

  • (a)China
  • (b)Saudi Arabia
  • (c)USA
  • (d)Germany

Answer: (c)

India has run a consistent trade surplus with the United States, while running deficits with China and oil suppliers like Saudi Arabia.

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32.
Economy

Arrange the following countries in descending order as per the Global Human Development Index, 2019: 1. Germany 2. USA 3. South Africa 4. India Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  • (a)1, 2, 3, 4
  • (b)1, 3, 2, 4
  • (c)3, 2, 1, 4
  • (d)4, 3, 2, 1

Answer: (a)

Germany ranks highest of the four on the HDI, followed by the USA, then South Africa, then India.

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33.
Economy

As per the use-based classification of the Index of Industrial Production (IIP), the maximum weight has been assigned to

  • (a)primary goods
  • (b)intermediate goods
  • (c)consumer durables
  • (d)consumer non-durables

Answer: (a)

Primary goods carry the single largest weight among the IIP’s use-based categories, around a third of the index.

Related: IndEco0110 — Index of Industrial Production (IIP)

View this question →

34.
Economy

Normally, there will not be a shift in the demand curve when

  • (a)price of a commodity falls
  • (b)consumers want to buy more at any given price
  • (c)average income rises
  • (d)population grows

Related: Economy0006 — Basic Economic Concepts: Microeconomics

Answer: (a)

A fall in the commodity’s own price causes movement along the existing demand curve, not a shift of the whole curve.

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35.
Economy

A market, in which there are a large number of firms, homogeneous product, infinite elasticity of demand for an individual firm and no control over price by firms, is termed as

  • (a)oligopoly
  • (b)imperfect competition
  • (c)monopolistic competition
  • (d)perfect competition

Answer: (d)

Perfect competition is defined by many sellers, identical products, and price-taking firms with no market power.

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36.
Environment & Ecology

Which one of the following statements with regard to ozone is not correct?

  • (a)Ozone is found mostly at 15-55 km in the atmosphere
  • (b)Ozone is produced by gaseous chemical reactions
  • (c)16th November is celebrated as the International Day for the Preservation of the Ozone Layer
  • (d)Ozone is a form of oxygen in which three oxygen atoms are bounded together

Answer: (c)

The actual International Day for the Preservation of the Ozone Layer falls on September 16, not November 16.

Related: EnvEco0017 — Ozone Layer Protection

View this question →

37.
Geography

Sea of Azov is connected to

  • (a)Black Sea
  • (b)Baltic Sea
  • (c)Mediterranean Sea
  • (d)North Sea

Answer: (a)

The narrow Kerch Strait links the Sea of Azov to the Black Sea.

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38.
Geography

Climax mine, the largest producer of molybdenum, is located in

  • (a)Canada
  • (b)USA
  • (c)Australia
  • (d)South Africa

Answer: (b) USA

The Climax mine sits in Colorado, USA, and was for decades the world’s largest single source of molybdenum — one of the trace elements essential in small amounts for human enzyme function.

Related: GenSci0024 — Trace Elements and Essential Micronutrients

(Source: Wikipedia, Climax Mine)

39.
Geography

Which one among the following Union Territories of India is the smallest in geographical area?

  • (a)Chandigarh
  • (b)Puducherry
  • (c)Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu
  • (d)Lakshadweep

Answer: (d)

Lakshadweep, at about 32 square kilometres, is smaller than any of the other Union Territories listed.

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40.
Geography

Buenos Aires and Montevideo are situated across the banks of

  • (a)River Plate
  • (b)Orinoco River
  • (c)Purus River
  • (d)Madeira River

Answer: (a)

Buenos Aires sits on the Argentine bank of the River Plate (Rio de la Plata), and Montevideo on the Uruguayan side.

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Questions 41–50
41.
Geography

The largest barrier reef system in the world is found at

  • (a)East Australian Coast
  • (b)West Australian Coast
  • (c)North Australian Coast
  • (d)South Australian Coast

Answer: (a)

The East Australian Coast is home to the Great Barrier Reef, the world’s largest coral reef system.

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42.
History & Culture

During the 19th century, who among the following wrote Satapatra Series?

  • (a)M.G. Ranade
  • (b)B.G. Tilak
  • (c)Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
  • (d)G.H. Deshmukh

Answer: (d)

G.H. Deshmukh’s ‘Shatapatre’ (Hundred Letters), published 1848-50, sparked public debate on caste and social reform.

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43.
History & Culture

Which one of the following was not a demand made by the Congress moderates?

  • (a)Universal adult franchise
  • (b)Repeal of the Arms Act
  • (c)Extension of Permanent Settlement
  • (d)Higher jobs for Indians in the army

Answer: (a) Universal adult franchise

Universal adult franchise was NOT a demand of the Congress moderates. The moderates (1885-1905) did demand the repeal of the Arms Act (1878), the extension of the Permanent Settlement, and higher jobs for Indians in the army. The demand for universal adult franchise came much later in the freedom struggle.

Related: Lord Lytton: The Vernacular Press Act, Arms Act and the Delhi Durbar · View this question →

44.
History & Culture

Who among the following founded the Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental Defence Association (1893)?

  • (a)Auckland Colvin
  • (b)Badruddin Tyabji
  • (c)Theodore Beck
  • (d)Sir Syed Ahmad Khan

Answer: (d)

Sir Syed Ahmad Khan founded the association; Theodore Beck, his college principal, assisted closely but did not found it.

Related: ModHist0091 — Sir Syed Ahmad Khan

View this question →

45.
History & Culture

After the First World War, the Triveni Sangh was formed by

  • (a)the Jats and Gujjars
  • (b)the Rajputs and Yadavs
  • (c)the Jats and Yadavs
  • (d)the Ahirs and Kurmis

Answer: (d)

The Triveni Sangh, formed in Bihar, united the Yadav (Ahir), Kurmi, and Koeri castes to demand political representation.

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46.
History & Culture

Who among the following was the first to accept a ministerial position in the Central Provinces in October 1925?

  • (a)B.S. Moonje
  • (b)M.R. Jayakar
  • (c)S.B. Tambe
  • (d)B.N. Sasmal

Answer: (c)

S.B. Tambe’s acceptance of office split opinion within the Swaraj Party, which had campaigned against taking ministerial posts.

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47.
History & Culture

Who among the following formed the National Liberation Federation (Liberal Party)?

  • (a)Motilal Nehru and C.R. Das
  • (b)Muhammad Ali and C.R. Das
  • (c)T.B. Sapru and M.R. Jayakar
  • (d)M.R. Jayakar and C.R. Das

Answer: (c)

T.B. Sapru and M.R. Jayakar, moderates who broke from Congress, founded this Liberal Party after the Montagu-Chelmsford reforms.

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48.
Polity & Governance

The National Disaster Management Authority functions under the Ministry of

  • (a)Environment, Forest and Climate Change
  • (b)Home Affairs
  • (c)Commerce and Industry
  • (d)Finance

Answer: (b) Home Affairs

The NDMA functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs, not the Environment Ministry — a common mix-up given the subject matter. Related: EnvEco0004 — Disaster Management: Concepts and India’s Legal Framework.

49.
History & Culture

The socialist idea of Sapta Kranti (Seven Revolutions) was proposed by

  • (a)Ram Manohar Lohia
  • (b)Jawaharlal Nehru
  • (c)M.G. Ranade
  • (d)Jayaprakash Narayan

Answer: (a) Ram Manohar Lohia

Lohia proposed Sapta Kranti, or the Seven Revolutions, as his blueprint for socialism: seven simultaneous struggles against inequalities of gender, race, caste, colonial rule, wealth, civil liberties, and violence.

Related: ModHist0025 — Ram Manohar Lohia: Underground Resistance and Socialist Politics

50.
Polity & Governance

Which one among the following is not a character of a secular State?

  • (a)It refuses theocracy
  • (b)It separates religion from the State
  • (c)A State in order to be secular must be democratic
  • (d)It must prevent religious conflict and promote religious harmony

Answer: (c)

That’s not actually a defining feature of secularism itself — a state can separate religion from government without being democratic.

Related: IndSoc0020 — Indian Secularism: Sarva Dharma Sambhava and the Bommai Doctrine

View this question →

Questions 51–60
51.
Polity & Governance

A special address by the Governor refers to the address delivered by the Governor

  • (a)when President's Rule is called for
  • (b)when a national emergency necessitates dissolution of Legislative Assembly
  • (c)at the commencement of the first session after general election and at the first session of each year
  • (d)whenever he/she has concluded that such is necessary

Answer: (c)

Article 176 mirrors the President’s address to Parliament, at the start of the first post-election session and the first session of each year.

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52.
Polity & Governance

Which one of the following statements in relation to Panchayats is not correct?

  • (a)Legislature of a State may, by law, make provisions with respect to the composition of Panchayats
  • (b)Panchayat area means the territorial area of a Panchayat
  • (c)Gram Sabha includes all persons in the electoral rolls of village within a Panchayat
  • (d)Reservation of seats for SCs and STs has nothing to do with proportion of their population

Answer: (d)

SC/ST seat reservation in Panchayats is actually proportional to their share of the local population, under Article 243D.

View this question →

53.
Polity & Governance

Which one of the following statements with regard to 'protective democracy' is not correct?

  • (a)It propounds that citizen participation is essential in democracies
  • (b)Citizens must be able to protect themselves from governmental encroachments
  • (c)It is compatible with laissez-faire capitalism
  • (d)Political equality is understood in formal terms as equal voting rights

Answer: (a)

Protective democracy treats voting as a minimal safeguard against government overreach, not as an essential good in itself.

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54.
Sports & Current Affairs

In August 2020, a blast has taken place at Beirut killing about one hundred people and thousand wounded. The blast was caused by

  • (a)dynamite
  • (b)ammonium nitrate
  • (c)RDX
  • (d)mercury nitride

Answer: (b)

Tonnes of ammonium nitrate, stored unsafely at the Beirut port for years, detonated and devastated much of the city.

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55.
Sports & Current Affairs

What is 'Little Boy'?

  • (a)The fission bomb dropped at Hiroshima
  • (b)The fusion bomb dropped at Nagasaki
  • (c)The first nuclear bomb tested by America
  • (d)The first nuclear bomb tested by North Korea

Answer: (a)

‘Little Boy’ was the fission bomb dropped on Hiroshima in August 1945; Nagasaki’s ‘Fat Man’ was a plutonium implosion device.

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56.
Sports & Current Affairs

Which one of the following Indian institutes was approved by the Drugs Controller General of India for conducting human trials of the Oxford-AstraZeneca Covid-19 vaccine candidate?

  • (a)Bharat Biotech
  • (b)AIIMS
  • (c)Serum Institute of India
  • (d)National Institute of Epidemiology

Answer: (c)

Serum Institute of India partnered with AstraZeneca to manufacture and trial the vaccine, later sold as Covishield.

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57.
Sports & Current Affairs

The recent explosion near OIL well in Baghjan is due to

  • (a)removing the spool during the blowout control operations
  • (b)transfer of oil from its depot to a pipeline
  • (c)the leakage of methyl isocyanide
  • (d)the leakage of radiations from radioactive substance

Answer: (a)

Foreign well-control experts were injured when the explosion happened while removing the spool in July 2020.

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58.
Sports & Current Affairs

Who among the following is the architect of the Ram Temple being constructed at Ayodhya?

  • (a)P.O. Sompura
  • (b)Chandrakant Sompura
  • (c)Brinda Somaya
  • (d)B.V. Doshi

Answer: (b) Chandrakant Sompura

Chandrakant Sompura is the chief architect of the Ram Mandir at Ayodhya, part of a family that has designed temples for 15 generations, including the rebuilt Somnath Temple. His grandfather P.O. Sompura designed that Somnath rebuild.

Related: ModHist0018 — The Babri Masjid Demolition and Its Aftermath

59.
Geography

Which one of the following countries is not located on the Tropic of Capricorn?

  • (a)Chile
  • (b)Brazil
  • (c)Paraguay
  • (d)Uruguay

Answer: (d)

Uruguay lies entirely south of the Tropic of Capricorn, unlike Chile, Brazil, and Paraguay, which the line passes through.

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60.
Geography

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I (Active Volcano): A. Mount Merapi B. Sakurajima C. Mount Vesuvius D. Mauna Loa List-II (Location): 1. Hawaii 2. Italy 3. Japan 4. Indonesia Code:

  • (a)A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4
  • (b)A-1 B-3 C-2 D-4
  • (c)A-4 B-2 C-3 D-1
  • (d)A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1

Answer: (d)

Mount Merapi is in Indonesia, Sakurajima in Japan, Vesuvius in Italy, and Mauna Loa in Hawaii.

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Questions 61–70
61.
Geography

Which one of the following is not a major tectonic plate?

  • (a)Saudi Arabian plate
  • (b)Antarctica and the surrounding oceanic plate
  • (c)India-Australia-New Zealand plate
  • (d)Pacific plate

Answer: (a)

The Arabian plate is classified as a minor plate, unlike the seven major plates, which include the Antarctic and Pacific plates.

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62.
Geography

Which one of the following is considered as the deepest point of the oceans?

  • (a)Tonga Trench
  • (b)Mariana Trench
  • (c)Philippine Trench
  • (d)Kermadec Trench

Answer: (b)

The Mariana Trench’s Challenger Deep is the deepest known point in any ocean.

Related: WorldGeo0022 — Mariana Trench

View this question →

63.
Geography

The four planets closest to the Sun are called

  • (a)terrestrial planets
  • (b)giant planets
  • (c)dwarf planets
  • (d)gas planets

Answer: (a)

Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars are rocky, Earth-like terrestrial planets, unlike the gas giants further out.

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64.
Geography

Which one of the following countries does not have Tundra vegetation?

  • (a)Belarus
  • (b)USA
  • (c)Russia
  • (d)Canada

Answer: (a)

Belarus sits too far south, in a temperate zone, unlike the Arctic reaches of the USA, Russia, and Canada.

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65.
Geography

Which one of the following is not a fluvial landform?

  • (a)Cirque
  • (b)Gorge
  • (c)Braids
  • (d)Canyon

Answer: (a)

A Cirque is carved by glaciers, not rivers, unlike gorges, braided channels, and canyons.

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66.
History & Culture

In the Gandhara School of Art, initially blue schist and green phyllite were used. When did stucco completely replace stone as main material used by Gandhara School sculptors?

  • (a)1st century CE
  • (b)2nd century CE
  • (c)3rd century CE
  • (d)5th century CE

Answer: (c) 3rd century CE

Gandhara sculptors began using stucco (lime plaster) alongside stone from around the 1st century CE, but by the 3rd century CE stucco had completely replaced blue schist and green phyllite as the main material, since it was cheaper and easier to mould in bulk.

Related: AncHist0016 — Indo-Greeks, Shakas and Kushans

67.
History & Culture

Which one of the following statements about Gupta coins is not correct?

  • (a)Gupta kings issued large number of gold coins known as Dinar
  • (b)Chandragupta II, Kumaragupta I, Skandagupta and Budhagupta issued silver coins
  • (c)The obverses of coins are carved with the images of the kings and on the reverse are carved deities
  • (d)The largest number of coins issued by the Guptas were of copper

Answer: (d) The largest number of coins issued by the Guptas were of copper

Gupta coinage is known for the opposite: a large, well-preserved run of gold coins called dinaras, issued by rulers from Chandragupta II through Skandagupta, with the standard obverse-king/reverse-deity design. Copper coins from the Gupta period are comparatively scarce.

Related: AncHist0001 — Sources of Ancient Indian History: Archaeology and Epigraphy

68.
History & Culture

Who among the following wrote The Philosophy of the Bomb?

  • (a)Sukhdev
  • (b)Chandrashekhar Azad
  • (c)Bhagwati Charan Vohra
  • (d)Bhagat Singh

Answer: (c)

Bhagwati Charan Vohra wrote this 1930 pamphlet defending revolutionary violence, responding to Gandhi’s criticism of the Assembly bomb incident.

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69.
History & Culture

At which one of the following Sessions of the Indian National Congress was the resolution on Fundamental Rights and Economic Policy passed?

  • (a)Tripuri Session
  • (b)Lahore Session
  • (c)Lucknow Session
  • (d)Karachi Session

Answer: (d) Karachi Session

The resolution on Fundamental Rights and Economic Policy was passed at the Karachi Session of the Indian National Congress in 1931. This resolution was a landmark that outlined the social and economic goals the Congress stood for. It shows how far the Congress had grown from its founding in 1885 under Dufferin.

Related: Lord Dufferin: The Founding of the Indian National Congress · View this question →

70.
History & Culture

Which one of the following towns was not a centre of the Revolt of 1857?

  • (a)Ayodhya
  • (b)Agra
  • (c)Delhi
  • (d)Kanpur

Answer: (a)

The main 1857 centres were Delhi, Kanpur, Lucknow, Jhansi, and Gwalior; nearby Faizabad saw more active rebellion than Ayodhya itself.

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Questions 71–80
71.
History & Culture

Consider the following statements: The Azamgarh Proclamation refers to 1. the declaration by the rebels of 1857 2. the statement by the leader of the underground movement in the Revolt of 1942 Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

  • (a)1 only
  • (b)2 only
  • (c)Both 1 and 2
  • (d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

The Azamgarh Proclamation was genuinely a rebel declaration from 1857, in Bahadur Shah Zafar’s name, not connected to the 1942 Quit India movement.

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72.
History & Culture

Ibn Batuta went to China as the envoy of which one of the following Delhi Sultans?

  • (a)Alauddin Khilji
  • (b)Muhammad bin Tughluq
  • (c)Iltutmish
  • (d)Firoz Shah Tughluq

Answer: (b)

Muhammad bin Tughluq sent the traveller Ibn Battuta as his envoy to the Yuan court in China.

View this question →

73.
History & Culture

Al-Biruni's Kitab-ul-Hind was written in which language?

  • (a)Arabic
  • (b)Persian
  • (c)Urdu
  • (d)Turkish

Answer: (a) Arabic

Al-Biruni wrote the Kitab-ul-Hind in Arabic, the scholarly language of the Islamic world at the time. It was later translated into Persian, and much later into Latin, French, and English.

Source: India (Al-Biruni), Wikipedia.

Related: MedHist0023 — Mahmud of Ghazni

74.
Polity & Governance

Which of the following statements with regard to the privileges of the Members of the Parliament are correct? 1. Privileges would not be fettered by the Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution of India. 2. Privileges must be read subject to the Articles 20-22 and Article 32 of the Constitution of India. 3. Immunity is available in relation to both civil and criminal prosecution. 4. Immunity is available in relation to freedom of speech even in his/her private or personal capacity. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  • (a)1, 2 and 4
  • (b)1 and 2 only
  • (c)2 and 3
  • (d)1 and 4 only

Answer: (b)

Parliamentary speech privilege is not limited by ordinary free-speech restrictions, but does not shield MPs from criminal prosecution or conduct outside official duties.

Related: Polity0227 — Article 105: Parliamentary Privileges and the Sita Soren Case

View this question →

75.
Polity & Governance

Which one of the following statements with regard to the appointment of the Members of the Parliamentary Committees is correct?

  • (a)The Members are only appointed
  • (b)The Members are only elected
  • (c)The Members are only nominated
  • (d)The Members are appointed or elected on a motion made and adopted or nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha or the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

Answer: (d)

Depending on the committee, members may be elected by the House, or nominated by the Speaker or the Rajya Sabha Chairman.

View this question →

76.
Polity & Governance

Which one of the following is not a classified category of political parties as outlined by the Election Commission of India?

  • (a)National Parties
  • (b)State Recognised Parties
  • (c)Regional Parties
  • (d)Registered Unrecognised Parties

Answer: (c) Regional Parties

The Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968 recognises only three categories: National Parties, State (Recognised) Parties, and Registered Unrecognised Parties. “Regional Parties” is a common informal label people use for state parties, not an official ECI classification. Source: The Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, official text.

Related: Polity0109 — Political Parties in India: Recognition, Symbols and the Party System

77.
Polity & Governance

Which of the following terms were added to the Preamble of the Constitution of India by the Constitutional Amendment, 1976? 1. Socialist 2. Secular 3. Integrity 4. Fraternity Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  • (a)1 and 2 only
  • (b)1, 2 and 3
  • (c)2 and 4
  • (d)1, 3 and 4

Answer: (b)

The 42nd Amendment added ‘Socialist’ and ‘Secular,’ and changed ‘unity’ to ‘unity and integrity.’ ‘Fraternity’ was already in the original 1950 Preamble.

Related: Polity0004 — Preamble to the Indian Constitution: A Complete Guide

View this question →

78.
Polity & Governance

Who among the following was the advisor to the Constituent Assembly?

  • (a)B.N. Rau
  • (b)B.R. Ambedkar
  • (c)Pattabhi Sitaramayya
  • (d)Alladi Krishnaswamy

Answer: (a) B.N. Rau

B.N. Rau served as Constitutional Adviser to the Constituent Assembly, preparing its first working draft. Ambedkar chaired the Drafting Committee, Pattabhi Sitaramayya was a Congress leader, and Alladi Krishnaswamy Ayyar was a Drafting Committee member — none held the advisor role itself. Source: Draft Constitution of India, 1948, constitutionofindia.net. Related: Polity0064 — The Constituent Assembly’s Drafting Committee.

79.
Polity & Governance

In the Indian judicial system, writs are issued by

  • (a)the Supreme Court only
  • (b)the High Courts only
  • (c)the Supreme Court and High Courts only
  • (d)the Supreme Court, High Courts and Lower Courts

Answer: (c)

The Supreme Court and High Courts issue writs under Articles 32 and 226 respectively; lower courts have no writ jurisdiction.

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80.
Polity & Governance

The Citizenship (Amendment) Act falls under which one of the following Parts of the Constitution of India?

  • (a)Part I
  • (b)Part II
  • (c)Part IV
  • (d)Part VI

Answer: (b)

Part II covers citizenship, Articles 5 to 11, under which Parliament can legislate on the subject.

Related: Polity0154 — Citizenship of India: Constitutional Provisions and the Citizenship Act, 1955

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Questions 81–90
81.
Sports & Current Affairs

Recently a rare kind of yellow turtle was discovered in India. The State in which it was seen is

  • (a)Uttarakhand
  • (b)Odisha
  • (c)Tamil Nadu
  • (d)Arunachal Pradesh

Answer: (b)

An albino Indian flapshell turtle, its yellow colour caused by a pigment disorder, was found in Odisha’s Balasore district in 2020.

View this question →

82.
Sports & Current Affairs

ASEEM is

  • (a)Aatmanirbhar Skilled Employee Employer Measurement
  • (b)Aatmanirbhar Skilled Employee Employer Mapping
  • (c)Aatmanirbhar Skilled Employee Enterprises Medium
  • (d)Automatic Skilled Employee Employer Mission

Answer: (b)

ASEEM (Aatmanirbhar Skilled Employee Employer Mapping) matches skilled workers with employers as part of India’s self-reliance push.

View this question →

83.
Sports & Current Affairs

The Government of India programme regarding 'Stay in India and Study in India' is initiated by

  • (a)the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports
  • (b)the Ministry of Culture
  • (c)the Ministry of Education
  • (d)the Ministry of Tourism

Answer: (c)

The Ministry of Education runs this programme, encouraging students to pursue higher education within India.

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84.
Geography

Which one of the following lakes in India has a large quantity of a substance found in the Moon?

  • (a)Lonar Lake, Maharashtra
  • (b)Pangong Lake, Ladakh
  • (c)Chilika Lake, Odisha
  • (d)Loktak Lake, Manipur

Answer: (a)

Lonar Lake formed from a meteor impact, and its soil minerals closely match those in lunar rock samples from the Apollo missions.

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85.
Sports & Current Affairs

The Pragyan rover installed in Chandrayaan-2 mission had how many wheels?

  • (a)2
  • (b)3
  • (c)4
  • (d)6

Answer: (d) 6

Pragyan was a 27 kg, six-wheeled, solar-powered rover designed to travel about 500 metres on the lunar surface. It was destroyed along with the Vikram lander when Chandrayaan-2’s descent lost contact on 6 September 2019, and never actually deployed. Related: SciTech0095 — K. Sivan.

86.
General Science

If the linear momentum of a moving object gets doubled due to application of a force, then its kinetic energy will

  • (a)remain same
  • (b)increase by four times
  • (c)increase by two times
  • (d)increase by eight times

Answer: (b) increase by four times

Kinetic energy relates to momentum as KE = p²/2m. Since KE depends on momentum squared, doubling momentum (with mass unchanged) quadruples kinetic energy, not just doubles it.

Related: GenSci0013 — Newton’s Laws, Force and Momentum

(Source: The Physics Classroom, Momentum)

87.
General Science

If the distance between two objects is increased by two times, the gravitational force between them will

  • (a)remain same
  • (b)increase by two times
  • (c)decrease by two times
  • (d)decrease by four times

Answer: (d)

Gravitational force follows an inverse-square law, so doubling the distance cuts the force to one-fourth.

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88.
General Science

Which one of the following statements about the properties of neutrons is not correct?

  • (a)Neutron mass is almost equal to proton mass
  • (b)Neutrons possess zero charge
  • (c)Neutrons are located inside the atomic nuclei
  • (d)Neutrons revolve around the atomic nuclei

Answer: (d)

That’s actually electrons — neutrons sit inside the nucleus alongside protons.

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89.
General Science

Which one of the following statements with regard to the ultraviolet light is not correct?

  • (a)It is an electromagnetic wave
  • (b)It can travel through vacuum
  • (c)It is a longitudinal wave
  • (d)Its wavelength is shorter/smaller than that of visible light

Answer: (c)

UV light, like all electromagnetic waves, is actually transverse, not longitudinal.

View this question →

90.
General Science

If the speed of light in air is represented by c and the speed in a medium is v, then the refractive index of the medium can be calculated using the formula

  • (a)v/c
  • (b)c/v
  • (c)c/(2.v)
  • (d)(c-v)/c

Answer: (b)

Refractive index compares how much slower light travels in the medium relative to air.

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Questions 91–100
91.
General Science

Under the Kingdom Plantae, which of the following individuals are predominantly aquatic?

  • (a)Bryophytes
  • (b)Algae
  • (c)Pteridophyta
  • (d)Gymnosperms

Answer: (b)

Most algae live in water, unlike bryophytes, ferns, and gymnosperms, which are primarily terrestrial.

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92.
General Science

All the individuals of a particular organism, such as rose plants, belong to a taxonomic category called

  • (a)species
  • (b)genus
  • (c)family
  • (d)order

Answer: (a)

Species is the basic taxonomic unit, grouping individuals capable of interbreeding to produce fertile offspring.

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93.
General Science

Pearls are harvested from

  • (a)Prawn
  • (b)Pila
  • (c)Tuna
  • (d)Oyster

Answer: (d)

Pearls form inside oysters as a defence response to an irritant lodged in their shell.

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94.
General Science

Wings of birds and bats are considered analogous structures because they have

  • (a)common origin and common function
  • (b)different origin and common function
  • (c)common origin and different function
  • (d)different origin and different function

Answer: (b)

Different origin and common function is exactly what makes structures analogous, unlike homologous structures.

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95.
General Science

Apart from hyper acid secretion, peptic ulcers are also developed due to bacterial infection. The causative agent is

  • (a)Helicobacter pylori
  • (b)E. coli
  • (c)Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • (d)Salmonella typhimurium

Answer: (a)

Helicobacter pylori colonises the stomach lining and is a major cause of peptic ulcers.

View this question →

96.
General Science

A mixture of sodium chloride (salt) and ammonium chloride can be separated by

  • (a)sublimation
  • (b)filtration
  • (c)chromatography
  • (d)distillation

Answer: (a)

Ammonium chloride sublimes directly from solid to gas on heating, leaving sodium chloride behind.

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97.
General Science

Symbol of element was introduced by

  • (a)John Dalton
  • (b)Antoine Lavoisier
  • (c)Jöns Jacob Berzelius
  • (d)Robert Boyle

Answer: (c)

Jons Jacob Berzelius introduced the modern system of one- or two-letter chemical symbols still used today.

View this question →

98.
General Science

Identify the correct pair of elements among the following which are liquid at room temperature and standard pressure.

  • (a)Bromine and fluorine
  • (b)Mercury and rubidium
  • (c)Bromine and thallium
  • (d)Bromine and mercury

Answer: (d)

Bromine and mercury are the only two elements that exist as liquids under normal room conditions.

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99.
General Science

Which one of the following oxides shows both acidic and basic behaviour?

  • (a)Zinc oxide
  • (b)Copper oxide
  • (c)Magnesium oxide
  • (d)Calcium oxide

Answer: (a)

Zinc oxide is amphoteric, reacting with both acids and bases, unlike the other three purely basic oxides.

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100.
General Science

Silver articles turn black when kept in the open for longer time due to the formation of

  • (a)H2S
  • (b)AgS
  • (c)AgSO4
  • (d)Ag2S

Answer: (d)

Trace sulphur compounds in air react with silver to form Ag2S, a black tarnish layer.

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Questions 101–110
101.
General Science

Which of the following lenses will bend the light rays through largest angle?

  • (a)Lens with power +2.0 D
  • (b)Lens with power +2.5 D
  • (c)Lens with power -1.5 D
  • (d)Lens with power -2.0 D

Answer: (b)

The magnitude of power determines how sharply a lens bends light, and 2.5 D is the largest magnitude here.

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102.
General Science

A luminous object is placed at a distance of 40 cm from a converging lens of focal length 25 cm. The image obtained in the screen is

  • (a)erect and magnified
  • (b)erect and smaller
  • (c)inverted and magnified
  • (d)inverted and smaller

Answer: (c)

With the object between f and 2f, a converging lens forms a real, inverted, magnified image beyond 2f.

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103.
General Science

When a light ray enters into glass medium from water at an angle of incidence 0°, what would be the angle of refraction?

  • (a)90°
  • (b)45°
  • (c)0°
  • (d)The ray will not enter at all

Answer: (c)

A ray hitting a boundary straight-on, at normal incidence, passes through without bending.

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104.
General Science

Which one of the following phenomena verifies the fact that light travels much faster than sound?

  • (a)Twinkling of stars in night sky
  • (b)Lighting of a matchstick
  • (c)Thunderstorm
  • (d)Mirage

Answer: (c)

Seeing lightning well before hearing its thunder shows light reaching us far faster than sound.

View this question →

105.
General Science

Which one of the following combinations of source and screen would produce sharpest shadow of an opaque object?

  • (a)A point source and an opaque screen
  • (b)An extended source and an opaque screen
  • (c)A point source and a transparent screen
  • (d)An extended source and a transparent screen

Answer: (a)

A single point of light casts a crisp shadow with sharp edges, unlike a spread-out source, which blurs them.

View this question →

106.
General Science

Which one among the following is a non-conventional source of energy?

  • (a)Petroleum
  • (b)Coal
  • (c)Radioactive elements
  • (d)Solar energy

Answer: (d)

Solar energy is a renewable, non-conventional source, unlike the finite fossil fuels petroleum and coal.

View this question →

107.
General Science

Which one of the following statements about phloem is correct?

  • (a)Phloem transports water and minerals
  • (b)Phloem transports photosynthetic products
  • (c)Phloem is a simple tissue
  • (d)Phloem gives support to the plant

Answer: (b)

Phloem transports photosynthetic products; xylem instead carries water and minerals.

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108.
General Science

Mature sclerenchyma cells have

  • (a)cellulose wall and are living
  • (b)lignified wall and are living
  • (c)suberized wall and are dead
  • (d)lignified wall and are dead

Answer: (d)

Sclerenchyma cells have a lignified wall and are dead at maturity, giving tissues rigidity and strength.

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109.
General Science

In human beings, the chromosomes that determine birth of a normal female child are

  • (a)one X chromosome from mother and one X chromosome from father
  • (b)one X chromosome from mother and one Y chromosome from father
  • (c)two X chromosomes from mother and one X chromosome from father
  • (d)one X chromosome and one Y chromosome from father and one X chromosome from mother

Answer: (a)

One X chromosome from each parent (XX) results in a female child; XY results in a male.

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110.
General Science

Antibiotic such as penicillin blocks

  • (a)cell wall formation in bacteria
  • (b)RNA synthesis in bacteria
  • (c)DNA synthesis in bacteria
  • (d)division in bacteria

Answer: (a)

Penicillin interferes with the enzymes bacteria use to build their cell walls, causing them to rupture.

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Questions 111–120
111.
General Science

The radioactive isotope of hydrogen is

  • (a)protium
  • (b)deuterium
  • (c)tritium
  • (d)hydronium

Answer: (c)

Tritium’s extra neutron makes its nucleus radioactive, unlike stable protium and deuterium.

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112.
General Science

Which one of the following is used for storing biological tissues?

  • (a)Liquid nitrogen
  • (b)Liquid helium
  • (c)Liquid argon
  • (d)Liquid bromine

Answer: (a)

Liquid nitrogen’s extremely low temperature preserves cells and tissues for long-term storage.

View this question →

113.
General Science

Which one of the following does not form oxide on reaction with oxygen?

  • (a)Magnesium
  • (b)Lead
  • (c)Tin
  • (d)Silver

Answer: (d)

Silver resists oxidation under normal conditions, unlike magnesium, lead, and tin.

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114.
General Science

The valency of phosphorus is

  • (a)2, 3
  • (b)3, 4
  • (c)4, 5
  • (d)3, 5

Answer: (d)

Phosphorus commonly shows valencies of 3 and 5 in its compounds.

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115.
General Science

Lead nitrate on heating gives

  • (a)PbO2 and NO2
  • (b)PbO and NO2
  • (c)PbO and NO
  • (d)PbO2 and NO

Answer: (b)

Heating lead nitrate decomposes it into lead oxide, brown nitrogen dioxide gas, and oxygen.

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116.
Sports & Current Affairs

Which one of the following is a decommissioned aircraft carrier?

  • (a)INS Rajput
  • (b)INS Chakra
  • (c)INS Khanderi
  • (d)INS Viraat

Answer: (d)

The Indian Navy decommissioned INS Viraat in March 2017 after nearly 30 years of service.

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117.
Sports & Current Affairs

Who among the following has won the Singles Title in Wimbledon Tennis Championship (Women) in the year 2019?

  • (a)Karolina Pliskova
  • (b)Simona Halep
  • (c)Serena Williams
  • (d)Naomi Osaka

Answer: (b)

Simona Halep beat Serena Williams in the 2019 Wimbledon women’s singles final.

View this question →

118.
Sports & Current Affairs

Recently islands of Andaman and Nicobar were connected with mainland by Submarine Optical Fibre Cable. Which one of the following islands was not connected initially?

  • (a)Shaheed Island
  • (b)Swaraj Island
  • (c)Little Andaman
  • (d)Port Blair

Answer: (a) Shaheed Island

The Chennai-Andaman-Nicobar submarine cable’s initial rollout connected Port Blair, Swaraj Island and Little Andaman (and several other islands), per PIB’s own coverage of the project. Shaheed Island (also called Neil Island) was not among the initially connected islands.

Related: IndEco0041 — Infrastructure: Services, Connectivity and Investment · IndGeo0031 — Andaman and Nicobar Islands (Physical Geography)

119.
Int'l Relations & Defence

In August 2020, who among the following was administered the oath as the Prime Minister of Sri Lanka for the fourth time?

  • (a)Gotabaya Rajapaksa
  • (b)Basil Rajapaksa
  • (c)Mahinda Rajapaksa
  • (d)Namal Rajapaksa

Answer: (c)

Mahinda Rajapaksa was sworn in as Sri Lanka’s Prime Minister again on 9 August 2020.

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120.
Int'l Relations & Defence

Which one of the following Indian Ocean island nations has recently declared a state of environmental emergency due to oil spill from a grounded ship?

  • (a)Maldives
  • (b)Mauritius
  • (c)Madagascar
  • (d)Sri Lanka

Answer: (b)

The Japanese-owned MV Wakashio ran aground and spilled oil off Mauritius in July 2020, prompting the emergency declaration.

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Questions transcribed from the official UPSC Combined Defence Services Examination (II), 2019 question booklet (SDHY-B-GKN), General Knowledge paper. Hindi text omitted. Answer key not included.

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