General Ability Test
I do not want you to lead a life of sycophancy as you did during the foreign rule.
- (a)admiration
- (b)love
- (c)appreciation
- (d)flattery
Answer: (d) flattery
“Sycophancy” means excessive, insincere praise aimed at gaining favour, which is exactly what “flattery” means.
In India, it has become easy to attack cultural artefacts these days.
- (a)beckon
- (b)assault
- (c)belch
- (d)appreciate
Answer: (b) assault
“Attack” in this sense means to violently harm or damage something, matching “assault” most closely.
A local court granted bail to the criminal on Thursday.
- (a)confessed
- (b)donated
- (c)allowed
- (d)yielded
Answer: (c) allowed
To “grant” bail means to permit or allow it, which is what “allowed” captures.
The judge told that he would analyze the evidence and then deliver the verdict.
- (a)liberate
- (b)surrender
- (c)transfer
- (d)pronounce
Answer: (d) pronounce
To “deliver” a verdict means to formally announce or state it, matching “pronounce”.
The growth and development of the peasant movement was indissolubly linked with the national struggle for freedom.
- (a)firmly
- (b)vaguely
- (c)individually
- (d)steadily
Answer: (a) firmly
“Indissolubly” means in a way that cannot be broken or dissolved, matching “firmly” linked.
Weather conditions have been improving over the past few days.
- (a)mending
- (b)amending
- (c)becoming better
- (d)advancing
Answer: (c) becoming better
“Improving” simply means getting better over time, which “becoming better” states directly.
The confusion on the interlocutor’s face was gratifying.
- (a)government officer
- (b)party worker
- (c)dialogist
- (d)revolutionary
Answer: (c) dialogist
An “interlocutor” is a person taking part in a conversation or dialogue, matching “dialogist”.
He spends his money lavishly.
- (a)hesitatingly
- (b)generously
- (c)foolishly
- (d)carefully
Answer: (b) generously
To spend money “lavishly” means to spend it freely and generously, without restraint.
The government’s new policies will come into force from the next fiscal year.
- (a)calendar
- (b)academic
- (c)financial
- (d)leap
Answer: (c) financial
A “fiscal year” is a financial year used for budgeting and accounting purposes.
Abundant food was available for the soldiers in the mess.
- (a)little
- (b)plentiful
- (c)delicious
- (d)wholesome
Answer: (b) plentiful
“Abundant” means existing in large quantities, matching “plentiful”.
The country’s economy must be geared to wartime requirements.
- (a)subordinated to
- (b)related to
- (c)adjusted to
- (d)unlinked to
Answer: (d) unlinked to
“Geared to” means adjusted or adapted to something. Its opposite is being disconnected or “unlinked to” that thing.
Why does fire attract insects?
- (a)discharge
- (b)destroy
- (c)repel
- (d)remove
Answer: (c) repel
“Attract” means to draw something closer. Its opposite, “repel”, means to drive something away.
The party was excellent, and I would like to thank all the people concerned.
- (a)cared
- (b)attentive
- (c)dependable
- (d)uninvolved
Answer: (d) uninvolved
“Concerned” here means involved or caring about something. Its opposite is being “uninvolved”.
He is very serious by temperament.
- (a)grave
- (b)trivial
- (c)sober
- (d)stupid
Answer: (b) trivial
“Serious” means significant or grave in nature. Its opposite is “trivial”, meaning unimportant.
There are a few miscellaneous items to discuss in this meeting.
- (a)pure
- (b)mixed
- (c)homogenous
- (d)discordant
Answer: (c) homogenous
“Miscellaneous” means made up of mixed, varied items. Its opposite is “homogenous”, meaning uniform in kind.
Due to the postal strike, the outgoing mail got delayed.
- (a)urgent
- (b)incoming
- (c)ordinary
- (d)speedy
Answer: (b) incoming
“Outgoing” mail is mail being sent out. Its direct opposite is “incoming” mail, being received.
He had a fine ear for music.
- (a)small
- (b)close
- (c)coarse
- (d)smooth
Answer: (c) coarse
A “fine” ear for music means a refined, sensitive one. Its opposite is “coarse”, meaning crude or unrefined.
There is no likeness between him and his brother.
- (a)unlikeliness
- (b)unlikelihood
- (c)dissimilarity
- (d)disaffinity
Answer: (c) dissimilarity
“Likeness” means similarity between two things. Its opposite is “dissimilarity”, meaning difference.
Cultural diversity in the working place is good for business.
- (a)uniformity
- (b)conformity
- (c)identity
- (d)similarity
Answer: (a) uniformity
“Diversity” means variety among different things. Its opposite is “uniformity”, meaning sameness.
The company was liquidated within five years.
- (a)bankrupt
- (b)closed down
- (c)flourishing
- (d)privatised
Answer: (c) flourishing
A “liquidated” company has been shut down and its assets sold off. Its opposite is a “flourishing” company, one that is thriving.
The politician lost face in his constituency (a) | when he broke the pre-election promises (b) | he made to his people. (c) | No error. (d)
- (a)(a)
- (b)(b)
- (c)(c)
- (d)(d)
Answer: (d) No error
Each part of this sentence is grammatically correct as written — there is no error to spot here.
At the request of the Defence Attorney, (a) | the jury were called (b) | and their individual verdicts were recorded. (c) | No error. (d)
- (a)(a)
- (b)(b)
- (c)(c)
- (d)(d)
Answer: (b) (b)
A jury acts and is summoned as one single body, so it takes the singular verb “was called”, not the plural “were called”.
Frank Lloyd Wright has been acclaimed (a) | by colleagues (b) | as the greater of all modern architects. (c) | No error. (d)
- (a)(a)
- (b)(b)
- (c)(c)
- (d)(d)
Answer: (c) (c)
When comparing among more than two things (“all modern architects”), the superlative “greatest” is needed, not the comparative “greater”, which is only used to compare two things.
In my younger days (a) | I could run four miles (b) | at a stretch. (c) | No error. (d)
- (a)(a)
- (b)(b)
- (c)(c)
- (d)(d)
Answer: (d) No error
This sentence is grammatically correct throughout, with no error to identify.
The owner (a) | as well as his servants (b) | is honest. (c) | No error. (d)
- (a)(a)
- (b)(b)
- (c)(c)
- (d)(d)
Answer: (d) No error
“As well as” does not make the subject plural. The verb still agrees with the main subject, “The owner”, so the singular “is honest” is correct.
Cry over spilt milk
- (a)Complaining about a loss in the past
- (b)Too much inquisitive about something
- (c)When something is done badly to save money
- (d)Dealing with a problem only in an emergency situation
Answer: (a) Complaining about a loss in the past
“Cry over spilt milk” means to complain uselessly about something that has already happened and cannot be undone.
Cut the mustard
- (a)Prepare spices out of mustard seeds
- (b)To come up to expectations
- (c)Making absurd expectations
- (d)Very enthusiastic
Answer: (b) To come up to expectations
“Cut the mustard” means to meet the required standard or succeed at something.
Devil’s advocate
- (a)A dangerous person
- (b)To present a counter argument
- (c)Very argumentative person
- (d)Creating an unpleasant situation
Answer: (b) To present a counter argument
A “devil’s advocate” deliberately argues the opposing side of a debate, even if they don’t personally believe it, to test an idea.
Don’t count your chickens before the eggs have hatched
- (a)If you are not good at something, better to avoid that
- (b)Don’t make plans for something that might not happen
- (c)Not to come up to expectations
- (d)Don’t put all your resources in one possibility
Answer: (b) Don’t make plans for something that might not happen
This idiom warns against relying on an uncertain future outcome before it has actually happened.
Give the benefit of doubt
- (a)To be partial to someone
- (b)To be judgmental
- (c)Regard someone as innocent until proven otherwise
- (d)Say something exactly right
Answer: (c) Regard someone as innocent until proven otherwise
“Give the benefit of the doubt” means to assume someone is telling the truth or is innocent, absent clear evidence otherwise.
S1: The Subsidiary Alliance system was extremely advantageous to the British. S6: They controlled the defence and the foreign relations of the protected ally. P: They could now maintain a large army at the cost of Indian states Q: if any war occurred in the territories R: either of the British ally or of the Britishers S: This enabled them to fight wars far away from their own territories. The proper sequence should be
- (a)P Q R S
- (b)P S Q R
- (c)Q R P S
- (d)S R P Q
Answer: (b) P S Q R
The passage reads: the British could maintain a large army at the cost of Indian states, which let them fight wars far from their own territory, if war occurred either with their ally or the British themselves — and this way they controlled defence and foreign relations.
S1: In reality, by signing a Subsidiary Alliance, an Indian state virtually signed away its independence. S6: In fact, the Indian ruler lost all vestiges of sovereignty in external matters. P: of maintaining diplomatic relations Q: It lost the right of self defence R: with its neighbours S: and of settling its disputes. The proper sequence should be
- (a)P Q R S
- (b)R S P Q
- (c)Q P S R
- (d)Q S R P
Answer: (c) Q P S R
The passage reads: the state lost the right of self-defence, of maintaining diplomatic relations, and of settling its disputes with its neighbours — leading to a total loss of sovereignty in external matters.
S1: A mighty popular Revolt broke out in Northern and Central India in 1857. S6: Millions of peasants, artisans and soldiers fought heroically and wrote a glorious chapter. P: Sepoys, or the Indian soldiers of the Company’s army Q: but soon engulfed wide regions and involved the masses R: and nearly swept away the British rule S: It began with a mutiny of the. The proper sequence should be
- (a)P Q R S
- (b)Q R S P
- (c)R S Q P
- (d)S P R Q
Answer: (d) S P R Q
The passage reads: the revolt began with a mutiny of the sepoys, nearly swept away British rule, but soon engulfed wide regions and involved the masses — who then fought heroically.
S1: The Indian Civil Service gradually developed into one of the most efficient and powerful civil services in the world. S6: though these qualities obviously served British, and not Indian interests. P: and often participated in the making of policy Q: independence, integrity and hard work R: They developed certain traditions of S: Its members exercised vast power. The proper sequence should be
- (a)P Q R S
- (b)Q R S P
- (c)R S Q P
- (d)S P R Q
Answer: (d) S P R Q
The passage reads: its members exercised vast power and often took part in policymaking, and they developed traditions of independence, integrity, and hard work, even though these served British rather than Indian interests.
S1: The ruin of Indian handicrafts was reflected in the ruin of the towns and cities which were famous for their manufactures. S6: Centres were developed and laid waste. P: Dacca, Surat, Murshidabad and many other rising industrial Q: ravages of war and plunder, failed to R: survive British conquest S: Cities which had withstood the. The proper sequence should be
- (a)P Q R S
- (b)S Q R P
- (c)S R P Q
- (d)Q R S P
Answer: (b) S Q R P
The passage reads: cities that had withstood the ravages of war and plunder failed to survive British conquest — Dacca, Surat, Murshidabad and other rising industrial centres were developed and then laid waste.
Passage: The rule of the road means that in order that the liberties of all may be preserved, the liberties of everybody must be curtailed. When the policeman, say, at a road-crossing steps into the middle of the road and puts out his hand, he is the symbol not of tyranny but of liberty. You have submitted to a curtailment of private liberty in order that you may enjoy a social order which makes your liberty a reality. We have both liberties to preserve – our individual liberty and our social liberty. That is, we must have a judicious mixture of both. I shall not permit any authority to say that my child must go to this school or that, shall specialize in science or arts. These things are personal. But if I say that my child shall have no education at all, then society will firmly tell me that my child must have education whether I like it or not. According to the author, the ‘rule of the road’ implies
- (a)the rule regulating the traffic on the road
- (b)the principle on which a road is constructed to ensure safe traffic
- (c)unrestricted freedom for all to lead a happy life
- (d)restricted individual freedom to ensure freedom for all
Answer: (d) restricted individual freedom to ensure freedom for all
The passage explains that everyone must accept some limits on personal liberty so that a fair social order, and everyone’s freedom within it, can actually exist.
The author thinks that when a policeman signals you to stop on a road-crossing, he is
- (a)behaving in a whimsical manner
- (b)interfering with your freedom to use the road
- (c)protecting the liberty of all to use the road
- (d)mischievously creating hurdles in your way from some personal motive
Answer: (c) protecting the liberty of all to use the road
The passage says the policeman is “a symbol not of tyranny but of liberty”, since his signal keeps the road safe and usable for everyone.
The author is of the view that we should
- (a)have absolute individual liberty without any restrictions imposed by the society
- (b)have everything controlled by the society without any kind of individual liberty
- (c)try to strike a sensible balance between our individual liberty and our social liberty
- (d)have more of social liberty than individual liberty
Answer: (c) try to strike a sensible balance between our individual liberty and our social liberty
The passage explicitly says “we must have a judicious mixture of both” individual and social liberty.
The author holds that
- (a)educating or not educating his child is a matter of personal liberty
- (b)educating or not educating his child is also a matter of social liberty
- (c)choosing the school for his child is a matter of social liberty
- (d)choosing the subject of study for his child is a matter of social liberty
Answer: (b) educating or not educating his child is also a matter of social liberty
The passage says society will insist a child be educated even if the parent objects, while choosing which school or subject remains a personal matter.
The most suitable title of the passage would be
- (a)The Policeman at a Road Crossing
- (b)The Laws of the Road
- (c)Importance of Liberty
- (d)Education of Children
Answer: (c) Importance of Liberty
The passage’s central theme is the relationship between individual and social liberty, which this title captures better than any narrower option.
Passage: My most interesting visitor comes at night, when the lights are still burning – a tiny bat who prefers to fly in through the open door, and will use the window only if there is no alternative. His object in entering the house is to snap up the moths that cluster around the lamps. All the bats I have seen fly fairly high, keeping near the ceiling; but this particular bat flies in low, like a dive-bomber, zooming in and out of chair legs and under tables. Once, he passed straight between my legs. Has his radar gone wrong, I wondered, or is he just plain crazy? Consider the following statements: 1. The tiny bat flew in low like a dive-bomber. 2. The tiny bat like all bats keeps near the ceiling. 3. It has lost direction because its radar has gone wrong. 4. It wants to entertain the author with its skill in flying. Which of the above statements may be assumed to be true from the information given in the passage?
- (a)1 only
- (b)1 and 3
- (c)2 and 4
- (d)3 and 4
Answer: (a) 1 only
The passage states directly that the bat flew in low like a dive-bomber. It explicitly says this bat, unlike others, does NOT keep near the ceiling, and the radar and entertainment ideas are only the author’s own uncertain speculation, not established facts.
The bat entered the room
- (a)because there was no alternative
- (b)to eat the moths round the lamps
- (c)as it had gone mad
- (d)as it preferred to fly in through the open door
Answer: (b) to eat the moths round the lamps
The passage states the bat’s object in entering is “to snap up the moths that cluster around the lamps.”
After comparing the habits of the tiny bat with those of other bats, the author was
- (a)sure that this bat had lost its direction
- (b)not sure of its preferences
- (c)surprised to find that it was an expert flier
- (d)unable to give the correct explanation for its behaviour
Answer: (b) not sure of its preferences
The author only wonders aloud whether the bat’s radar had gone wrong or if it was simply behaving oddly, showing genuine uncertainty rather than a firm conclusion.
The author calls the tiny bat an “interesting visitor”. This means
- (a)the bat visits him at night
- (b)the bat is interested in the moths
- (c)this bat has peculiar qualities
- (d)this bat surprises him by zooming in and out like a dive-bomber
Answer: (c) this bat has peculiar qualities
The bat is called “interesting” because its low, erratic flight pattern is unusual compared to how other bats normally fly.
What, according to you, can be the most suitable title for the passage?
- (a)Someone visits me
- (b)Night of Mysteries
- (c)My Nocturnal Visitor
- (d)A Funny Visitor
Answer: (c) My Nocturnal Visitor
The passage is a personal account of a bat that visits the author at night, making this the most fitting title.
The tired traveller ______ on in the hope of finding some resting place.
- (a)strolled
- (b)scurried
- (c)paraded
- (d)plodded
Answer: (d) plodded
“Plodded” describes walking slowly and heavily, fitting a tired traveller pushing on.
The car was damaged beyond repair in the ______ accident.
- (a)outrageous
- (b)ghastly
- (c)nasty
- (d)heinous
Answer: (b) ghastly
“Ghastly” conveys a shocking, severe accident, matching a car being “damaged beyond repair.”
They gave a ______ dinner to celebrate the occasion, which impressed every guest.
- (a)austere
- (b)public
- (c)sumptuous
- (d)summary
Answer: (c) sumptuous
“Sumptuous” describes a lavish, impressive spread, fitting a dinner that impressed every guest.
Once the ______ manuscript is received by the publishers, it is typed in double space.
- (a)total
- (b)full
- (c)complete
- (d)filled
Answer: (c) complete
“Complete manuscript” is the standard phrase for a finished, whole manuscript ready for publishing.
I am used to ______ in queues.
- (a)stand
- (b)standing
- (c)stand up
- (d)standing still
Answer: (b) standing
“Used to” meaning “accustomed to” is followed by a gerund (-ing form), giving “used to standing”.
Which one of the following statements is correct?
- (a)Any energy transfer that does not involve temperature difference in some way is not heat
- (b)Any energy transfer always requires a temperature difference
- (c)On heating the length and volume of the object remain exactly the same
- (d)Whenever there is a temperature difference, heat is the only way of energy transfer
Answer: (a) Any energy transfer that does not involve temperature difference in some way is not heat
Heat is specifically defined as energy transferred between two systems because of a temperature difference between them.
Energy transfer can also happen through work, which does not need a temperature difference, so option (b) is wrong.
Heating an object usually expands it, so option (c) is wrong. Temperature differences can also drive other processes besides heat, so option (d) is wrong.
(Self-derived: standard thermodynamics definition of heat as temperature-difference-driven energy transfer)
If T is the time period of an oscillating pendulum, which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
- (a)The motion repeats after time T only once
- (b)T is the least time after which motion repeats itself
- (c)The motion repeats itself after nT, where n is a positive integer
- (d)T remains the same only for small angular displacements
Answer: (a) The motion repeats after time T only once
A pendulum’s motion repeats not just once after time T, but again and again, after every multiple of T.
T is the least time for one repeat, and the motion also repeats after 2T, 3T, and so on, so option (a) understates this.
The pendulum’s period stays constant only for small swing angles, which is why simple pendulum formulas assume small oscillations.
(Self-derived: standard simple harmonic motion definition of periodic time)
If an object moves with constant velocity then which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
- (a)Its motion is along a straight line
- (b)Its speed changes with time
- (c)Its acceleration is zero
- (d)Its displacement increases linearly with time
Answer: (b) Its speed changes with time
Velocity has both magnitude and direction, so constant velocity means both stay fixed, including speed.
Constant velocity implies straight-line motion, zero acceleration, and displacement that grows linearly with time.
Speed staying constant is the opposite of what option (b) claims, which is why it is the incorrect statement.
(Self-derived: standard kinematics definition of constant velocity)
An object is moving with uniform acceleration a. Its initial velocity is u and after time t its velocity is v. The equation of its motion is v = u + at. The velocity (along y-axis) time (along x-axis) graph shall be a straight line
- (a)passing through origin
- (b)with x-intercept u
- (c)with y-intercept u
- (d)with slope u
Answer: (c) with y-intercept u
The equation v = u + at has the same form as the straight-line equation y = c + mx, where v matches y and t matches x.
At t = 0, the graph’s v-value is u, so u is the y-intercept, not the slope.
The slope of this line is a, the acceleration, and the line does not pass through the origin unless u happens to be zero.
(Self-derived: standard v-t graph analysis for uniformly accelerated motion)
What is the net force experienced by a bar magnet placed in a uniform magnetic field?
- (a)Zero
- (b)Depends upon length of the magnet
- (c)Never zero
- (d)Depends upon temperature
Answer: (a) Zero
A bar magnet has a north and a south pole, which act like two opposite magnetic charges of equal strength.
In a uniform field, the force on each pole is equal in size but opposite in direction, so the net force cancels out to zero.
The magnet may still feel a turning effect, a torque, that tries to align it with the field, but the net force stays zero.
(Self-derived: standard magnetic dipole behavior in a uniform field)
Which one of the following has maximum inertia?
- (a)An atom
- (b)A molecule
- (c)A one-rupee coin
- (d)A cricket ball
Answer: (d) A cricket ball
Inertia depends only on mass, not size or speed. Of an atom, a molecule, a coin, and a cricket ball, the cricket ball has by far the greatest mass, so it has the greatest resistance to a change in motion.
Which one of the following is the value of 1 kWh of energy converted into joules?
- (a)1.8 x 10^6 J
- (b)3.6 x 10^6 J
- (c)6.0 x 10^6 J
- (d)7.2 x 10^6 J
Answer: (b) 3.6 x 10^6 J
One kilowatt-hour equals 1000 watts running for 3600 seconds, giving 3.6 million joules. View this question →
Answer: (b) 3.6 x 10^6 J
One kilowatt-hour means 1,000 watts of power used for one hour, or 3,600 seconds.
Multiplying 1,000 watts by 3,600 seconds gives 3,600,000 joules, which is 3.6 x 10^6 J.
(Self-derived: unit conversion from kilowatt-hour to joules)
Which one of the following statements about gravitational force is NOT correct?
- (a)It is experienced by all bodies in the universe
- (b)It is a dominant force between celestial bodies
- (c)It is a negligible force for atoms
- (d)It is same for all pairs of bodies in our universe
Answer: (d) It is same for all pairs of bodies in our universe
Newton’s law of gravitation gives the force between two bodies as G times the product of their masses, divided by the square of the distance between them.
Since mass and distance vary between different pairs of bodies, the force is different for each pair, not the same for all.
Gravity does act on every body, dominates at the scale of stars and planets, and is negligible next to other forces inside an atom.
(Self-derived: Newton’s law of universal gravitation)
Whether an object will float or sink in a liquid, depends on
- (a)mass of the object only
- (b)mass of the object and density of liquid only
- (c)difference in the densities of the object and liquid
- (d)mass and shape of the object only
Answer: (c) difference in the densities of the object and liquid
An object floats if it's less dense than the liquid, and sinks if it's denser. View this question →
Which one of the following devices is non-ohmic?
- (a)Conducting copper coil
- (b)Electric heating coil
- (c)Semi conductor diode
- (d)Rheostat
Answer: (c) Semi conductor diode
Its current-voltage relationship is nonlinear, unlike the other options which behave ohmically. View this question →
Which one of the following is the natural phenomenon based on which a simple periscope works?
- (a)Reflection of light
- (b)Refraction of light
- (c)Dispersion of light
- (d)Total internal reflection of light
Answer: (a) Reflection of light
A simple periscope uses plane mirrors to reflect light around obstacles. View this question →
Which one of the following frequency ranges is sensitive to human ears?
- (a)0-200 Hz
- (b)20-20,000 Hz
- (c)200-20,000 Hz only
- (d)2,000-20,000 Hz only
Answer: (b) 20-20,000 Hz
This is the standard range of audible frequencies for the human ear. View this question →
The accidental touch of Nettle leaves creates a burning sensation, which is due to inject of
- (a)Hydrochloric acid
- (b)Methanoic acid
- (c)Citric acid
- (d)Sulphuric acid
Answer: (b) Methanoic acid
This is formic acid, injected by the stinging hairs of the nettle plant. View this question →
Which of the following properties is true for a tooth paste?
- (a)It is acidic
- (b)It is neutral
- (c)It is basic
- (d)It is made up of Calcium phosphate, the material of tooth enamel
Answer: (c) It is basic
Toothpaste is alkaline, helping neutralise the acids that cause tooth decay. View this question →
Which one of the following gives the highest amount of hydrogen ions (H+)?
- (a)Sodium hydroxide solution
- (b)Milk of magnesia
- (c)Lemon juice
- (d)Gastric juice
Answer: (d) Gastric juice
This is more strongly acidic (and thus has a higher H+ concentration) than lemon juice, while the other two options are bases. View this question →
Brine is an aqueous solution of
- (a)NaCl
- (b)NaOH
- (c)NaHCO3
- (d)Na2CO3
Answer: (a) NaCl
Brine is a solution of NaCl (sodium chloride), the common salt, dissolved in water. View this question →
Which one of the following is the chemical formula of Washing Soda?
- (a)NaHCO3
- (b)Na2CO3.10H2O
- (c)Na2CO3.5H2O
- (d)NaOH
Answer: (b) Na2CO3.10H2O
Washing soda is sodium carbonate decahydrate, sodium carbonate crystallized with ten water molecules.
NaHCO3 is baking soda, and NaOH is caustic soda, both different compounds entirely.
(Self-derived: standard chemistry fact about common sodium compounds)
Which one of the following is NOT true for bleaching powder?
- (a)It is used as a reducing agent in chemical industries
- (b)It is used for bleaching wood pulp in paper factories
- (c)It is used for disinfecting drinking water
- (d)It is used for bleaching linen in textile industry
Answer: (a) It is used as a reducing agent in chemical industries
Bleaching powder, calcium oxychloride, works by releasing chlorine and acting as an oxidizing agent, not a reducing agent.
It genuinely is used to bleach paper pulp and textiles, and to disinfect drinking water, all as an oxidizer.
(Self-derived: standard chemistry fact about bleaching powder’s oxidizing action)
AIDS is caused by a virus whose genetic material is
- (a)single stranded circular DNA
- (b)double stranded DNA
- (c)single stranded RNA
- (d)double stranded RNA
Answer: (c) single stranded RNA
HIV is a retrovirus that carries its genome as single-stranded RNA. View this question →
Which one of the following is an organelle that is NOT found in prokaryotic cells?
- (a)Cell wall
- (b)Mitochondria
- (c)Plasma membrane
- (d)Ribosome
Answer: (b) Mitochondria
Prokaryotic cells lack membrane-bound organelles, though they do have a cell wall, plasma membrane, and ribosomes. View this question →
Which one of the following parts of body does NOT take part in the process of breathing?
- (a)Bronchi
- (b)Bowman’s capsule
- (c)Diaphragm
- (d)Trachea
Answer: (b) Bowman’s capsule
This is part of the kidney's nephron, unrelated to the respiratory system. View this question →
Which one of the following statements about classification of plants is correct?
- (a)Thallophytes have well differentiated body design
- (b)Funaria is a fungus
- (c)All Pteridophytes are Phanerogams
- (d)Vascular system is not found among Bryophytes
Answer: (d) Vascular system is not found among Bryophytes
Thallophytes actually have undifferentiated bodies, Funaria is a moss (not a fungus), and Pteridophytes are cryptogams, not seed-bearing phanerogams. View this question →
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of levels of hierarchy of classification of organisms from higher to lower?
- (a)Phylum – Class – Order – Family – Genus
- (b)Phylum – Class – Family – Order – Genus
- (c)Family – Order – Class – Species – Genus
- (d)Class – Family – Order – Species – Genus
Answer: (a) Phylum – Class – Order – Family – Genus
This is the standard descending order of taxonomic ranks. View this question →
Which one of the following statements about meristematic tissues in plants is correct?
- (a)These are dead tissues and form wood
- (b)They provide flexibility to plant due to their thickened walls
- (c)These are present in the bark of a tree only
- (d)Growth occurs in plants due to division of cells of these tissues
Answer: (d) Growth occurs in plants due to division of cells of these tissues
Plant growth results from the division of meristematic cells, found at growing points like root and shoot tips. View this question →
Which one of the following Union Territories has the highest female literacy rate?
- (a)Chandigarh
- (b)Lakshadweep
- (c)Andaman and Nicobar Islands
- (d)Puducherry
Answer: (b) Lakshadweep
This UT has recorded one of the highest female literacy rates among India's Union Territories. View this question →
Consider the following statements about Roaring Forties : 1. They are strong Westerly winds found in the oceans of Southern Hemisphere. 2. The strong east to west air currents are caused by the combination of air being displaced from the Equator towards the South Pole and the earth’s rotation and abundance of landmasses to serve as wind breaks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
The Roaring Forties are indeed strong westerlies, but they get their strength from the ABSENCE of landmasses in the Southern Hemisphere at that latitude, which lets wind build up unobstructed, not from an abundance of landmasses. View this question →
Consider the following statements : 1. The doldrums is a low pressure area around Equator where the prevailing winds are calm. 2. Chinook is a hot and dry wind that blows in winter and therefore raises the temperature in a short time.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
The doldrums are a calm equatorial low-pressure belt, and the Chinook is indeed a warm, dry winter wind known for rapidly raising temperatures. View this question →
Which one of the following is the driest desert of the world?
- (a)Atacama
- (b)Gobi
- (c)Sahara
- (d)Kalahari
Answer: (a) Atacama
The Atacama Desert in Chile is widely recognised as the driest non-polar desert on Earth. View this question →
Which of the following statements about latent heat for a given substance is/are correct?
1. It is fixed at a given temperature.
2. It depends upon the temperature and volume.
3. It is independent of temperature and volume.
4. It depends on the temperature but independent of volume.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
- (a)2
- (b)1 and 3
- (c)4 only
- (d)1 and 4
Answer: (d) 1 and 4
Specific latent heat is a fixed value at a given transition temperature, and it depends on temperature/pressure conditions but not on the volume or amount of substance. View this question →
Which one of the following statements about the mass of a body is correct?
- (a)It changes from one place to another
- (b)It is same everywhere
- (c)It depends on its shape
- (d)It does not depend on its temperature
Answer: (b) It is same everywhere
Mass is the same everywhere, unlike weight, which varies with local gravitational acceleration. View this question →
A ball balanced on a vertical rod is an example of
- (a)stable equilibrium
- (b)unstable equilibrium
- (c)neutral equilibrium
- (d)perfect equilibrium
Answer: (b) unstable equilibrium
Any small disturbance causes the ball to fall away rather than return to its balanced position. View this question →
Which of the following statements about a fluid at rest in a cup is/are correct? 1. Pressure is same at all the points in the fluid. 2. Pressure is exerted on the walls. 3. Pressure exists everywhere in the fluid.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)1 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Fluid pressure actually increases with depth, so it isn't uniform throughout, but it does act on the container walls and exists at every point in the fluid. View this question →
Which one of the following devices is used to measure atmospheric pressure?
- (a)Ammeter
- (b)Barometer
- (c)Potentiometer
- (d)Lactometer
Answer: (b) Barometer
A barometer measures atmospheric pressure. An ammeter measures current, a potentiometer measures voltage, and a lactometer checks milk purity — none relate to air pressure.
Related: GenSci0019 — Pressure and Fluid Statics
(Source: tec-science, Why Water Boils Faster at High Altitudes)
Which one of the following is the number of water molecules that share with two formula unit CaSO4 in plaster of Paris?
- (a)One
- (b)Two
- (c)Five
- (d)Ten
Answer: (a) One
Plaster of Paris has the formula 2CaSO4.H2O, so one water molecule is shared between two CaSO4 units. View this question →
How is carbon black obtained?
- (a)By heating wood at high temperature in absence of air
- (b)By heating coal at high temperature in absence of air
- (c)By burning hydrocarbons in a limited supply of air
- (d)By heating coal at high temperature in presence of air
Answer: (c) By burning hydrocarbons in a limited supply of air
This produces the soot known as carbon black through incomplete combustion. View this question →
Which one of the following properties is NOT true for graphite?
- (a)Hybridisation of each carbon atom is sp3
- (b)Hybridisation of each carbon atom is sp2
- (c)Electrons are delocalized over the whole sheet of atoms
- (d)Each layer is composed of hexagonal rings
Answer: (a) Hybridisation of each carbon atom is sp3
Graphite's carbon atoms are actually sp2 hybridised, forming flat hexagonal sheets, unlike diamond's sp3 carbons. View this question →
Which one of the following is the purest form of Carbon?
- (a)Charcoal
- (b)Coke
- (c)Fullerene
- (d)Carbon black
Answer: (c) Fullerene
This is a well-defined molecular allotrope of pure carbon, unlike the impure amorphous forms charcoal, coke, and carbon black. View this question →
The Poisonous nature of Carbon monoxide (CO) is due to its
- (a)insolubility in water
- (b)ability to form a complex with haemoglobin
- (c)ability to reduce some metal oxides
- (d)property of having one sigma bond
Answer: (b) ability to form a complex with haemoglobin
CO binds haemoglobin roughly 200-250 times more strongly than oxygen, forming carboxyhaemoglobin. That complex can no longer carry oxygen, which is the direct cause of CO’s toxicity.
Related: GenSci0022 — Carbon Monoxide: Properties, Toxicity and Industrial Uses
Which one of the following elements is needed in the human body to transfer electrical signals by nerve cells?
- (a)Lithium
- (b)Sodium
- (c)Rubidium
- (d)Caesium
Answer: (b) Sodium
The movement of sodium (and potassium) ions across nerve cell membranes generates the electrical signals of nerve impulses. View this question →
Who among the following first discovered cell?
- (a)Robert Brown
- (b)Robert Hooke
- (c)Leeuwenhoek
- (d)Rudolf Virchow
Answer: (b) Robert Hooke
He first observed and named cells while examining cork under a microscope in 1665. View this question →
Which one of the following group of organisms forms a food chain?
- (a)Grass, human and fish
- (b)Grass, goat and human
- (c)Tree, tree cutter and tiger
- (d)Goat, cow and human
Answer: (b) Grass, goat and human
This is a real feeding sequence: grass is eaten by the goat, and the goat is eaten by the human. The other options pair organisms that don’t actually eat each other in that order.
Related: GenSci0005 — Ecology Fundamentals: Ecosystems and Food Chains
Which one of the following types of tissues will have contractile proteins?
- (a)Nervous tissue
- (b)Muscle tissue
- (c)Bone tissue
- (d)Blood tissue
Answer: (b) Muscle tissue
This contains the contractile proteins actin and myosin responsible for movement. View this question →
If by an unknown accident the acid secreting cells of the stomach wall of an individual are damaged, digestion of which one of the following biomolecule will be affected to a greater extent?
- (a)Protein only
- (b)Lipid
- (c)Carbohydrate only
- (d)Protein and Carbohydrate
Answer: (a) Protein only
Stomach acid activates pepsin and creates the acidic environment protein digestion needs, while lipid and carbohydrate digestion depend mainly on other enzymes elsewhere in the digestive tract. View this question →
In which one of the following places, Headquarters of a Railway Zone is located?
- (a)Kanpur
- (b)Lucknow
- (c)Hajipur
- (d)New Jalpaiguri
Answer: (c) Hajipur
Hajipur, in Bihar, is the headquarters of East Central Railway, one of Indian Railways’ 18 zones. Related: IndGeo0087 — Indian Railways.
Which of the following statements about Indian Academy of Highway Engineers is/are correct? 1. It is a registered society. 2. It is a collaborative body of both Central Government and State Governments.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
The Indian Academy of Highway Engineers is a registered society, set up as a collaborative body between the Central Government and State Governments to train highway engineers.
Which one of the following is NOT a tributary of Indus River?
- (a)Beas
- (b)Ravi
- (c)Chenab
- (d)Tawi
Answer: (d) Tawi
This river is actually a tributary of the Chenab rather than a direct tributary of the Indus itself. View this question →
Which one among the following is the largest tiger reserve of India in terms of area of the core/critical tiger habitat?
- (a)Manas
- (b)Pakke
- (c)Nagarjunasagar Srisailam
- (d)Periyar
Answer: (c) Nagarjunasagar Srisailam
The Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve, set in the Nallamala Hills, has the largest critical tiger habitat of any Indian reserve, at roughly 2,595 sq km. Related: IndGeo0085 — The Nallamala Hills: Home to India’s Largest Tiger Reserve.
Which one of the following is NOT a coastal depositional feature?
- (a)Tombolo
- (b)Sand bar
- (c)Stack
- (d)Spit
Answer: (c) Stack
This is an erosional feature formed when a sea arch collapses, unlike tombolos, sand bars, and spits, which are all depositional. View this question →
Which of the following is/are coastal erosional feature(s)? 1. Notch 2. Sea Arch 3. Cliff 4. Hook
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
- (a)1, 2 and 3
- (b)2, 3 and 4
- (c)2 and 3 only
- (d)1 only
Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3
Notches, sea arches, and cliffs all form through wave erosion, while a hook is actually a depositional feature (a curved spit). View this question →
Chemical weathering of rocks is much greater in a place with
- (a)cold and dry climate
- (b)hot and humid climate
- (c)hot and dry climate
- (d)cold and humid climate
Answer: (b) hot and humid climate
Heat and moisture together accelerate the chemical reactions that break down rock. View this question →
Which of the following statements about specific heat of a body is/are correct? 1. It depends upon mass and shape of the body 2. It is independent of mass and shape of the body 3. It depends only upon the temperature of the body
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 and 3
- (c)1 and 3
- (d)2 only
Answer: (b) 2 and 3
Specific heat is an intrinsic property of the material, independent of the body's mass or shape, though it can vary somewhat with temperature. View this question →
Which one of the following is an example of the force of gravity of the earth acting on a vibrating pendulum bob?
- (a)Applied force
- (b)Frictional force
- (c)Restoring force
- (d)Virtual force
Answer: (c) Restoring force
Gravity's component along the pendulum's arc pulls the bob back toward its equilibrium position. View this question →
Which one of the following statements about the refractive index of a material medium with respect to air is correct?
- (a)It can be either positive or negative
- (b)It can have zero value
- (c)It is unity for all materials
- (d)It is always greater than one
Answer: (d) It is always greater than one
Ordinary materials are optically denser than air, so their refractive index relative to air always exceeds one. View this question →
Which one of the following statements about magnetic field lines is NOT correct?
- (a)They can emanate from a point
- (b)They do not cross each other
- (c)Field lines between two poles cannot be precisely straight lines at the ends
- (d)There are no field lines within a bar magnet
Answer: (d) There are no field lines within a bar magnet
Magnetic field lines actually form closed loops, running from south to north pole INSIDE the magnet to complete the circuit. View this question →
Two convex lenses with power 2 dioptre are kept in contact with each other. The focal length of the combined lens system is
- (a)0.10 m
- (b)2 m
- (c)4 m
- (d)0.25 m
Answer: (d) 0.25 m
Combined power equals the sum of individual powers (2D + 2D = 4D), and focal length is the reciprocal of power (1/4 = 0.25 m). View this question →
Which one of the following alkali metals has lowest melting point?
- (a)Sodium
- (b)Potassium
- (c)Rubidium
- (d)Caesium
Answer: (d) Caesium
Its melting point (around 28°C) is the lowest among common alkali metals as atomic size increases down the group. View this question →
Which one of the following metals is alloyed with sodium to transfer heat in a nuclear reactor?
- (a)Potassium
- (b)Calcium
- (c)Magnesium
- (d)Strontium
Answer: (a) Potassium
The sodium-potassium (NaK) alloy is a classic liquid-metal coolant used to transfer heat in nuclear reactors. View this question →
Which one of the following metals is used in the filaments of photo-electric cells that convert light energy into electric energy?
- (a)Tungsten
- (b)Copper
- (c)Rubidium
- (d)Aluminium
Answer: (c) Rubidium
Its low work function makes it well suited for the photoelectric effect used in photocells. View this question →
Which of the following statements about Ring of Fire is/are correct? 1. It is a zone of convergence plate boundaries 2. It is an active seismic and volcanic zone 3. It is associated with deep trench
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)1 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
The Ring of Fire lies along convergent (subduction) plate boundaries, is highly seismically and volcanically active, and is lined with deep ocean trenches. View this question →
Which one of the following Himalayan vegetation species is found between the altitudes of 1800 to 2600 metres?
- (a)Saal
- (b)Chir
- (c)Spruce
- (d)Deodar
Answer: (d) Deodar
This Himalayan cedar is characteristic of the temperate coniferous forest belt roughly in this elevation range. View this question →
Which one of the following rivers is NOT a tributary of river Cauvery?
- (a)Hemavati
- (b)Arkavati
- (c)Indravati
- (d)Amravati
Answer: (c) Indravati
This river is actually a tributary of the Godavari, not the Cauvery. View this question →
Which of the following conditions is/are essential for tea cultivation? 1. Tropical and sub-tropical climate 2. Heavy rainfall ranging from 150 cm to 250 cm 3. Soil should contain good amount of lime
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
- (a)1, 2 and 3
- (b)1 and 2 only
- (c)2 and 3 only
- (d)1 only
Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only
Tea needs a tropical/subtropical climate with heavy rainfall, but it actually thrives in acidic soil, not lime-rich alkaline soil. View this question →
Bharatmala Project is related to
- (a)Improving road connectivity
- (b)Interlinking ports and railways
- (c)Interlinking of rivers
- (d)Interlinking major cities with gas pipelines
Answer: (a) Improving road connectivity
Bharatmala Pariyojana, launched in 2017 under the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways, is a highway-development programme aiming to build about 34,800 km of roads — economic corridors, border and coastal roads, and expressways — to improve freight and passenger connectivity.
Source: PIB — Bharatmala Pariyojana overview.
Related: SciTech0002 — Science and Technology in Energy, Defence and Infrastructure
Which one of the following is a local wind that blows out from Siberia?
- (a)Bora
- (b)Purga
- (c)Mistral
- (d)Blizzard
Answer: (b) Purga
“Purga” is a strong, blizzard-like local wind that blows out of Siberia. Bora and Mistral are winds of Europe, and blizzard is a general term, not tied to Siberia specifically.
Which one of the following centres is NOT known for iron and steel industry?
- (a)Bhadravati
- (b)Salem
- (c)Vishakhapatnam
- (d)Renukoot
Answer: (d) Renukoot
Renukoot in Uttar Pradesh is known for its aluminium industry (Hindalco), not iron and steel. Bhadravati, Salem, and Vishakhapatnam all host well-known steel plants.
Which of the following are essential pre-requisites for establishment of a thermal power station? 1. Availability of fossil fuels 2. Proximity to a river, lake or sea 3. Good transport network 4. Proximity to an urban centre
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
- (a)1, 2 and 3
- (b)2 and 4
- (c)2 and 3 only
- (d)1 and 3 only
Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3
A thermal power station needs a steady fuel supply, water from a nearby river, lake or sea for cooling, and good transport links to move fuel in — but it does not need to sit near an urban centre.
Which of the following statements about ‘Aadi Mahotsav’ held recently in New Delhi is/are correct? 1. The theme of the festival was ‘A Celebration of the Spirit of Tribal Culture, Cuisine and Commerce’ 2. The festival was organized by the Ministry of Tourism, Government of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
- (a)1, 2 and 3
- (b)2 and 4
- (c)1 and 3 only
- (d)1 only
Answer: (d) 1 only
Aadi Mahotsav is organised by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs (through TRIFED), not the Ministry of Tourism, but its theme was indeed built around celebrating tribal culture, cuisine and commerce.
Light year is a unit for measurement of
- (a)age of universe
- (b)very small time intervals
- (c)very high temperature
- (d)very large distance
Answer: d very large distance
A light year is the distance light travels in one year, used to measure vast astronomical distances. View this question →
Which of the following statements about electromagnetic waves, sound waves and water waves is/are correct? 1. They exhibit reflection 2. They carry energy 3. They exert pressure 4. They can travel in vacuum
- (a)1, 2 and 3
- (b)2 and 4
- (c)1, 2, 3 and 4
- (d)1 and 3 only
Answer: a 1, 2 and 3
All three wave types reflect, carry energy, and exert pressure, but only electromagnetic waves can travel through a vacuum — sound and water waves need a medium. View this question →
Thermal capacity of a body depends on the
- (a)mass of the body only
- (b)mass and shape of the body only
- (c)density of the body
- (d)mass, shape and temperature of the body
Answer: (a) mass of the body only
Thermal capacity equals mass multiplied by specific heat, so it scales with mass alone — it does not depend on a body’s shape or its current temperature.
Who among the following first used the term ‘Industrial Revolution’ in English to describe the changes that occurred in British industrial development between 1760 and 1820?
- (a)Karl Marx
- (b)Georges Michelet
- (c)Arnold Toynbee
- (d)Friedrich Engels
Answer: (c) Arnold Toynbee
British economic historian Arnold Toynbee popularised the English term “Industrial Revolution” in lectures given in the 1880s, describing Britain’s industrial development between 1760 and 1820.
Related: WorldHist0013 — From Watermills to Railways: The Tools Before the Factories
Which one of the following statements about the Olympe de Gouges (1748-1793) is correct?
- (a)She declared that although citizens should have equal rights, they are not entitled to the same honours by the State
- (b)She was a supporter of the Jacobin government
- (c)She was jailed for treason by the National Assembly
- (d)She declared that the nation is the union of woman and man
Answer: d She declared that the nation is the union of woman and man
This is a core idea from her Declaration of the Rights of Woman; she was actually executed by the Jacobin government she opposed, not one she supported. View this question →
Who among the following built a model steam engine in 1698 called “Miner’s Friend” to drain mines?
- (a)Thomas Savery
- (b)Thomas Newcomen
- (c)James Watt
- (d)Richard Arkwright
Answer: (a) Thomas Savery
Savery patented his “Miner’s Friend” steam pump in 1698, decades before Newcomen’s 1712 engine and Watt’s 1769 improvement. It had no piston, and used vacuum suction to draw water out of mines.
Related: WorldHist0013 — From Watermills to Railways: The Tools Before the Factories
Which one of the following statements about Renaissance Humanist culture is NOT true?
- (a)It slackened the control of religion over human life
- (b)It believed that human nature was many-sided
- (c)It was concerned with good manners
- (d)It criticized material wealth, power and glory
Answer: (d) It criticized material wealth, power and glory
Renaissance humanism did the opposite: it celebrated worldly achievement, wealth, and glory as signs of human potential, rather than criticizing them. It did loosen religion’s grip on daily life, embrace a many-sided view of human nature, and value refined manners.
Related: WorldHist0026 — The Renaissance, Reformation and the Age of Reason
Who gifted the Badshah Nama to King George in 1799?
- (a)Abul Fazl
- (b)Abdul Hamid Lahori
- (c)Nawab of Awadh
- (d)William Jones
Answer: c Nawab of Awadh
The Nawab of Awadh presented this illustrated Mughal chronicle to King George III in 1799. View this question →
What is the name of the award given to meritorious men in the Mughal Court in the form of a robe of honour that was once worn by the Emperor?
- (a)Sarapa
- (b)Patka
- (c)Padma murassa
- (d)Khilat
Answer: d Khilat
Khilat was the ceremonial robe of honour Mughal emperors bestowed on distinguished courtiers. View this question →
Who among the following social reformer started a society for the encouragement of widow remarriage in 1866 in Maharashtra?
- (a)Bal Gangadhar Tilak
- (b)Jyotirao Phule
- (c)Vishnushastri Pandit
- (d)Pandita Ramabai
Answer: (c) Vishnushastri Pandit
Vishnushastri Pandit founded the Punar Vivahottajak Mandali (Society for the Encouragement of Widow Remarriage) in 1866 in Maharashtra. Jyotirao Phule’s Satyashodhak Samaj came in 1873, Pandita Ramabai’s welfare work in the 1880s, and Tilak was a political leader – so only Pandit fits the 1866 date.
Related: ModHist0001 — The Age of Indian Renaissance: Dayananda Saraswati and Pandita Ramabai · View this question →
Name the first major voluntary association representing primarily Indian landlord interests that was set up in Calcutta in 1851?
- (a)British Indian Association
- (b)Landholder’s Society
- (c)Madras Native Association
- (d)Bombay Association
Answer: a British Indian Association
It was formed in 1851 by merging earlier landholder bodies to represent zamindari interests. View this question →
Who among the following introduced the Permanent Settlement of Bengal in 1793?
- (a)Lord Cornwallis
- (b)Lord Ripon
- (c)Robert Clive
- (d)John Adam
Answer: (a) Lord Cornwallis
Lord Cornwallis, Governor-General of Bengal (1786-93), introduced the Permanent Settlement of Bengal in 1793, fixing the land revenue with the zamindars in perpetuity. Ripon, Clive and John Adam are different figures.
Related: ModHist0354 — Lord Cornwallis: The Permanent Settlement and the Cornwallis Code · ModHist0079 — British Land Revenue Systems · View this question →
Name the rebel who fought against the British in the battle of Chinhat in the course of the 1857 Revolt?
- (a)Ahmadullah Shah
- (b)Shah Mal
- (c)Mangal Pandey
- (d)Kunwar Singh
Answer: a Ahmadullah Shah
Known as the ‘Maulvi of Faizabad’, he led rebel forces against the British at the Battle of Chinhat near Lucknow. View this question →
Who among the following are the two civil servants who assisted the Constituent Assembly in framing the Constitution of India?
- (a)B. N. Rau and K. M. Munshi
- (b)S. N. Mukherjee and Alladi Krishnaswamy Aiyar
- (c)B. N. Rau and S. N. Mukherjee
- (d)K. M. Munshi and Alladi Krishnaswamy Aiyar
Answer: (c) B. N. Rau and S. N. Mukherjee
B.N. Rau, the Constitutional Adviser, and S.N. Mukherjee, the Chief Draftsman, were the two civil servants who assisted the Constituent Assembly technically. Munshi and Alladi Krishnaswamy Ayyar were Drafting Committee members instead — a different role entirely. Source: Draft Constitution of India, 1948, constitutionofindia.net. Related: Polity0064 — The Constituent Assembly’s Drafting Committee.
Which member of the Constituent Assembly proposed the resolution that the National Flag of India be a “horizontal tricolour of saffron, white and dark green in equal proportion”, with a wheel in navy blue at the centre?
- (a)Jawaharlal Nehru
- (b)B. R. Ambedkar
- (c)Rajendra Prasad
- (d)Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Answer: a Jawaharlal Nehru
Nehru moved this resolution adopting the tricolour as India’s national flag in July 1947. View this question →
Which of the following is/are NOT historical biography/biographies? 1. Dipavamsa 2. Harshacharita 3. Vikramankadevacharita 4. Prithvirajavijaya
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)2, 3 and 4 only
- (d)1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (a) 1 only
The Dipavamsa is a Pali chronicle of Sri Lankan history, not a biography of a person. Harshacharita, Vikramankadevacharita and Prithvirajavijaya are all biographical works about specific kings.
Related: AncHist0020 — Harshavardhana and the Post-Gupta Age
Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? Traveller – Country from : 1. Marco Polo – Italy 2. Ibn Battuta – Morocco 3. Nikitin – Russia 4. Seydi Ali Reis – Turkey
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
- (a)1, 2 and 3 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)1, 2, 3 and 4
- (d)1 and 4 only
Answer: (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
All four pairs are correctly matched. Marco Polo was Italian, Ibn Battuta was Moroccan, Athanasius Nikitin was Russian, and Seydi Ali Reis was an Ottoman Turkish admiral whose own overland return journey through India produced the travelogue Mirat ul Memalik.
Source: Seydi Ali Reis, Wikipedia.
Related: MedHist0022 — Foreign Travelers and Chroniclers of Medieval India
Which of the following clans are included in the Agnikula Rajputs? 1. Pratiharas 2. Chaulukyas 3. Paramaras 4. Chahamanas
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
- (a)1 and 3 only
- (b)1, 3 and 4 only
- (c)1, 2, 3 and 4
- (d)2 and 4 only
Answer: (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Legend holds that four Rajput clans, the Pratiharas, Chaulukyas (Solankis), Paramaras, and Chahamanas (Chauhans), emerged from a fire sacrifice performed by sage Vashishtha at Mount Abu. All four claim this Agnikula, fire-lineage, origin. Related: MedHist0049 — Prithviraj Chauhan, a ruler of the Chahamana (Chauhan) dynasty.
Who among the following was the author of Humayun Nama?
- (a)Roshanara Begum
- (b)Ruquaiya Sultan Begum
- (c)Gulbadan Begum
- (d)Gauhara Begum
Answer: (c) Gulbadan Begum
Gulbadan Begum, Babur’s daughter and Humayun’s half-sister, wrote the Humayun-nama at Akbar’s request, giving a rare womans-eye account of the early Mughal court.
Which one of the following about the Parliament of India is NOT correct?
- (a)The Parliament consists of the President, the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha
- (b)There are no nominated members in the Lok Sabha
- (c)The Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved
- (d)Some members of the Rajya Sabha are nominated by the President
Answer: b There are no nominated members in the Lok Sabha
At the time, Article 331 still allowed the President to nominate up to two Anglo-Indian members to the Lok Sabha, a provision only removed later by the 104th Amendment. View this question →
Which one of the following statements with regard to the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is NOT correct?
- (a)He is appointed by the President of India
- (b)He can be removed from office in the same way as the judge of the Supreme Court of India
- (c)The CAG is eligible for further office under the Government of India after he has ceased to hold his office
- (d)The salary of the CAG is charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India
Answer: (c) The CAG is eligible for further office under the Government of India after he has ceased to hold his office
This is the false statement. A former CAG is barred from any further office under the Government of India after leaving the post, precisely to keep the audit function free of any future-job incentive. The other three statements are correct. Source: Article 148, Constitution of India. Related: Polity0058 — The CAG and Finance Commission.
The Superintendence, direction and control of elections in India is vested in
- (a)The Supreme Court of India
- (b)The Parliament of India
- (c)The Election Commission of India
- (d)The Chief Election Commissioner
Answer: (c) The Election Commission of India
Article 324 vests the ‘superintendence, direction and control’ of elections in the Election Commission as a body — not in the Supreme Court, the Parliament, or the Chief Election Commissioner individually. Source: Article 324, Constitution of India. Related: Polity0377 — Article 324: Election Commission’s Powers of Superintendence.
Which of the following provision(s) of the Constitution of India became effective from 26th November 1949? 1. Elections 2. Citizenship 3. Emergency provisions 4. Appointment of the Judges
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
- (a)1 only
- (b)1 and 2 only
- (c)1, 2 and 3
- (d)2 and 4
Answer: b 1 and 2 only
Provisions on elections and citizenship took effect on 26 November 1949, while emergency provisions and the rest of the Constitution came into force only on 26 January 1950. View this question →
Which of the following statements regarding construction of Rohtang tunnel is NOT correct?
- (a)It is located at an altitude of 5,000 feet
- (b)It will provide all-year connectivity to Lahaul and Spiti Valley
- (c)The tunnel is being built by the Border Roads Organization
- (d)It will reduce the length of the Leh-Manali highway by approximately 50 km
Answer: (a) It is located at an altitude of 5,000 feet
The tunnel, now named the Atal Tunnel, sits at about 10,000 feet (3,100 metres), not 5,000. The other three statements are correct: the Border Roads Organisation built it, it gives Lahaul and Spiti all-weather access, and it cuts the Leh-Manali highway by roughly 46 km. · IndGeo0046 — Himalayan Mountain Passes
Who among the following recently became the first woman pilot in Indian Navy?
- (a)Astha Segal
- (b)Roopa A
- (c)Sakthi Maya S
- (d)Shubhangi Swaroop
Answer: d Shubhangi Swaroop
She became the Indian Navy’s first woman pilot in 2018. View this question →
Who among the following Indians did NOT hold the title of Miss World?
- (a)Reita Faria
- (b)Sushmita Sen
- (c)Diana Hayden
- (d)Yukta Mookhey
Answer: b Sushmita Sen
She actually won Miss Universe (1994), not Miss World, unlike Reita Faria, Diana Hayden, and Yukta Mookhey. View this question →
Which one of the following countries has failed to qualify for the first time in 60 years for the FIFA World Cup to be held in Russia in the year 2018?
- (a)Mexico
- (b)Iran
- (c)Saudi Arabia
- (d)Italy
Answer: d Italy
Italy failed to qualify for the 2018 World Cup for the first time since 1958. View this question →
The Defence Technology and Trade Initiative (DTTI) is a forum for dialogue on defence partnership between India and
- (a)Russia
- (b)United States of America
- (c)Israel
- (d)France
Answer: b United States of America
India established the DTTI with the USA to boost defence technology cooperation. View this question →
As per the policy applicable in 2017, how much Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) is permitted in the defence sector in India?
- (a)49 per cent through the automatic route
- (b)26 per cent through the government route
- (c)26 per cent through the automatic route and beyond that up to 49 per cent through the government route
- (d)75 per cent through the automatic route
Answer: a 49 per cent through the automatic route
This was the defence FDI limit set after the 2016 policy liberalisation, with higher stakes possible via government approval. View this question →
Which one of the following countries did NOT participate in the 21st edition of Exercise Malabar?
- (a)United States of America
- (b)Japan
- (c)India
- (d)Australia
Answer: (d) Australia
The 21st edition, Malabar 2017, was conducted by only India, Japan, and the USA in the Bay of Bengal off Chennai. Australia had taken part once before, in 2007, but did not return until Malabar 2020, when all four QUAD members exercised together for the first time since 2007.
Related: IntlRel0039 — QUAD (Quadrilateral Security Dialogue)
Justice Dalveer Bhandari of India was recently re-elected to the International Court of Justice after Christopher Greenwood pulled out before 12th round of voting. Christopher Greenwood was a nominee of
- (a)Canada
- (b)Russia
- (c)Britain
- (d)USA
Answer: (c) Britain
Bhandari and Greenwood were locked in a rare deadlock across 11 rounds of voting in 2017. Greenwood, the UK’s nominee, withdrew before a 12th round, and Bhandari won the General Assembly’s support decisively, leaving the UK without a judge on the ICJ for the first time in the court’s history.
Related: IntlRel0009 — The United Nations: Principal Organs and Related Bodies
In order to review the Income Tax Act, 1961 and to draft a new Direct Tax Law in consonance with economic needs of the country, the Government of India in November 2017 has constituted a Task Force. Who among the following is made the convenor of it?
- (a)Shri Arvind Subramanian
- (b)Shri Arbind Modi
- (c)Shri Amitabh Kant
- (d)Dr. Bibek Debroy
Answer: b Shri Arbind Modi
A CBDT Member, he was named convenor of the task force to draft a new Direct Tax Law. View this question →
The 5th Global Conference on Cyber Space (GCCS) was held in New Delhi in November, 2017. Which of the following statements about GCCS is/are correct? 1. The 4th version of GCCS was held in London. 2. The main theme of GCCS 2017 is ‘Cyber4All: A Secure and Inclusive Cyberspace for Sustainable Development’. 3. ‘Bindu’ is the logo of GCCS 2017.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)2 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: c 2 and 3 only
GCCS 2017’s theme was indeed ‘Cyber4All’, and its logo was named ‘Bindu’; the 4th GCCS was actually held in The Hague, not London, which hosted the very first edition. View this question →
Questions transcribed from the official NDA & NA Examination (I), 2017 question booklet (SRCY-U-ADN), General Ability Test paper. Hindi text omitted. Answer key not included.
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