NDA & NA (I) 2018 — General Ability Test (Full Question Paper)

History & CultureGeographyEnvironment & EcologyScience & TechGeneral SciencePolity & GovernanceEconomyInt'l Relations & DefenceSports & Current Affairs

Questions 1–10

1.Synonyms

I do not want you to lead a life of sycophancy as you did during the foreign rule.

(a)admiration
(b)love
(c)appreciation
(d)flattery

Answer: (d) flattery

“Sycophancy” means excessive, insincere praise aimed at gaining favour, which is exactly what “flattery” means.

2.Synonyms

In India, it has become easy to attack cultural artefacts these days.

(a)beckon
(b)assault
(c)belch
(d)appreciate

Answer: (b) assault

“Attack” in this sense means to violently harm or damage something, matching “assault” most closely.

3.Synonyms

A local court granted bail to the criminal on Thursday.

(a)confessed
(b)donated
(c)allowed
(d)yielded

Answer: (c) allowed

To “grant” bail means to permit or allow it, which is what “allowed” captures.

4.Synonyms

The judge told that he would analyze the evidence and then deliver the verdict.

(a)liberate
(b)surrender
(c)transfer
(d)pronounce

Answer: (d) pronounce

To “deliver” a verdict means to formally announce or state it, matching “pronounce”.

5.Synonyms

The growth and development of the peasant movement was indissolubly linked with the national struggle for freedom.

(a)firmly
(b)vaguely
(c)individually
(d)steadily

Answer: (a) firmly

“Indissolubly” means in a way that cannot be broken or dissolved, matching “firmly” linked.

6.Synonyms

Weather conditions have been improving over the past few days.

(a)mending
(b)amending
(c)becoming better
(d)advancing

Answer: (c) becoming better

“Improving” simply means getting better over time, which “becoming better” states directly.

7.Synonyms

The confusion on the interlocutor’s face was gratifying.

(a)government officer
(b)party worker
(c)dialogist
(d)revolutionary

Answer: (c) dialogist

An “interlocutor” is a person taking part in a conversation or dialogue, matching “dialogist”.

8.Synonyms

He spends his money lavishly.

(a)hesitatingly
(b)generously
(c)foolishly
(d)carefully

Answer: (b) generously

To spend money “lavishly” means to spend it freely and generously, without restraint.

9.Synonyms

The government’s new policies will come into force from the next fiscal year.

(a)calendar
(b)academic
(c)financial
(d)leap

Answer: (c) financial

A “fiscal year” is a financial year used for budgeting and accounting purposes.

10.Synonyms

Abundant food was available for the soldiers in the mess.

(a)little
(b)plentiful
(c)delicious
(d)wholesome

Answer: (b) plentiful

“Abundant” means present in large quantity. “Plentiful” has the same meaning. “Little” is the opposite, and the other two options do not describe quantity.

Questions 11–20

11.Antonyms

The country’s economy must be geared to wartime requirements.

(a)subordinated to
(b)related to
(c)adjusted to
(d)unlinked to

Answer: (d) unlinked to

“Geared to” means adjusted or adapted to something. Its opposite is being disconnected or “unlinked to” that thing.

12.Antonyms

Why does fire attract insects?

(a)discharge
(b)destroy
(c)repel
(d)remove

Answer: (c) repel

“Attract” means to draw something closer. Its opposite, “repel”, means to drive something away.

13.Antonyms

The party was excellent, and I would like to thank all the people concerned.

(a)cared
(b)attentive
(c)dependable
(d)uninvolved

Answer: (d) uninvolved

“Concerned” here means involved or caring about something. Its opposite is being “uninvolved”.

14.Antonyms

He is very serious by temperament.

(a)grave
(b)trivial
(c)sober
(d)stupid

Answer: (b) trivial

“Serious” means significant or grave in nature. Its opposite is “trivial”, meaning unimportant.

15.Antonyms

There are a few miscellaneous items to discuss in this meeting.

(a)pure
(b)mixed
(c)homogenous
(d)discordant

Answer: (c) homogenous

“Miscellaneous” means made up of mixed, varied items. Its opposite is “homogenous”, meaning uniform in kind.

16.Antonyms

Due to the postal strike, the outgoing mail got delayed.

(a)urgent
(b)incoming
(c)ordinary
(d)speedy

Answer: (b) incoming

“Outgoing” mail is mail being sent out. Its direct opposite is “incoming” mail, being received.

17.Antonyms

He had a fine ear for music.

(a)small
(b)close
(c)coarse
(d)smooth

Answer: (c) coarse

A “fine” ear for music means a refined, sensitive one. Its opposite is “coarse”, meaning crude or unrefined.

18.Antonyms

There is no likeness between him and his brother.

(a)unlikeliness
(b)unlikelihood
(c)dissimilarity
(d)disaffinity

Answer: (c) dissimilarity

“Likeness” means similarity between two things. Its opposite is “dissimilarity”, meaning difference.

19.Antonyms

Cultural diversity in the working place is good for business.

(a)uniformity
(b)conformity
(c)identity
(d)similarity

Answer: (a) uniformity

“Diversity” means variety among different things. Its opposite is “uniformity”, meaning sameness.

20.Antonyms

The company was liquidated within five years.

(a)bankrupt
(b)closed down
(c)flourishing
(d)privatised

Answer: (c) flourishing

A “liquidated” company has been shut down and its assets sold off. Its opposite is a “flourishing” company, one that is thriving.

Questions 21–30

21.Spotting Errors

The politician lost face in his constituency (a) | when he broke the pre-election promises (b) | he made to his people. (c) | No error. (d)

(a)The politician lost face in his constituency
(b)when he broke the pre-election promises
(c)he made to his people.
(d)No error.

Answer: (c) he made to his people.

The promises were made before the politician broke them. The earlier action needs the past perfect, “he had made”. So the error is in part (c).

22.Spotting Errors

At the request of the Defence Attorney, (a) | the jury were called (b) | and their individual verdicts were recorded. (c) | No error. (d)

(a)At the request of the Defence Attorney,
(b)the jury were called
(c)and their individual verdicts were recorded.
(d)No error.

Answer: (d) No error.

“Jury” is a collective noun. British usage allows a plural verb when the members act as individuals. Here “their individual verdicts” shows that. So “were called” is fine, and there is no error.

23.Spotting Errors

Frank Lloyd Wright has been acclaimed (a) | by colleagues (b) | as the greater of all modern architects. (c) | No error. (d)

(a)Frank Lloyd Wright has been acclaimed
(b)by colleagues
(c)as the greater of all modern architects.
(d)No error.

Answer: (c) as the greater of all modern architects.

The comparison covers all modern architects, which is more than two. So the superlative “greatest” is needed. “Greater” compares only two things. The error is in part (c).

24.Spotting Errors

In my younger days (a) | I could run four miles (b) | at a stretch. (c) | No error. (d)

(a)In my younger days
(b)I could run four miles
(c)at a stretch.
(d)No error.

Answer: (d) No error.

Each part is correct. “At a stretch” means without a break. The sentence needs no change.

25.Spotting Errors

The owner (a) | as well as his servants (b) | is honest. (c) | No error. (d)

(a)The owner
(b)as well as his servants
(c)is honest.
(d)No error.

Answer: (d) No error.

“As well as” does not make the subject plural. The verb still agrees with the main subject, “The owner”, so the singular “is honest” is correct.

26.Idioms and Phrases

Cry over spilt milk

(a)Complaining about a loss in the past
(b)Too much inquisitive about something
(c)When something is done badly to save money
(d)Dealing with a problem only in an emergency situation

Answer: (a) Complaining about a loss in the past

“Cry over spilt milk” means to complain uselessly about something that has already happened and cannot be undone.

27.Idioms and Phrases

Cut the mustard

(a)Prepare spices out of mustard seeds
(b)To come up to expectations
(c)Making absurd expectations
(d)Very enthusiastic

Answer: (b) To come up to expectations

“Cut the mustard” means to meet the required standard or succeed at something.

28.Idioms and Phrases

Devil’s advocate

(a)A dangerous person
(b)To present a counter argument
(c)Very argumentative person
(d)Creating an unpleasant situation

Answer: (b) To present a counter argument

A “devil’s advocate” deliberately argues the opposing side of a debate, even if they don’t personally believe it, to test an idea.

29.Idioms and Phrases

Don’t count your chickens before the eggs have hatched

(a)If you are not good at something, better to avoid that
(b)Don’t make plans for something that might not happen
(c)Not to come up to expectations
(d)Don’t put all your resources in one possibility

Answer: (b) Don’t make plans for something that might not happen

This idiom warns against relying on an uncertain future outcome before it has actually happened.

30.Idioms and Phrases

Give the benefit of doubt

(a)To be partial to someone
(b)To be judgmental
(c)Regard someone as innocent until proven otherwise
(d)Say something exactly right

Answer: (c) Regard someone as innocent until proven otherwise

“Give the benefit of the doubt” means to assume someone is telling the truth or is innocent, absent clear evidence otherwise.

Questions 31–40

31.Ordering of Sentences

S1: The Subsidiary Alliance system was extremely advantageous to the British. S6: They controlled the defence and the foreign relations of the protected ally. P: They could now maintain a large army at the cost of Indian states Q: if any war occurred in the territories R: either of the British ally or of the Britishers S: This enabled them to fight wars far away from their own territories. The proper sequence should be

(a)P Q R S
(b)P S Q R
(c)Q R P S
(d)S R P Q

Answer: (b) P S Q R

S1 and S6 give the frame. P says the British could keep a large army at the cost of the states. S says this let them fight far from home. Q and R then name the wars. The order is P S Q R.

32.Ordering of Sentences

S1: In reality, by signing a Subsidiary Alliance, an Indian state virtually signed away its independence. S6: In fact, the Indian ruler lost all vestiges of sovereignty in external matters. P: of maintaining diplomatic relations Q: It lost the right of self defence R: with its neighbours S: and of settling its disputes. The proper sequence should be

(a)P Q R S
(b)R S P Q
(c)Q P S R
(d)Q S R P

Answer: (c) Q P S R

Q opens with the loss of the right of self-defence. P adds diplomatic relations. S adds settling disputes. R completes the thought with “with its neighbours”. The order is Q P S R.

33.Ordering of Sentences

S1: A mighty popular Revolt broke out in Northern and Central India in 1857. S6: Millions of peasants, artisans and soldiers fought heroically and wrote a glorious chapter. P: Sepoys, or the Indian soldiers of the Company’s army Q: but soon engulfed wide regions and involved the masses R: and nearly swept away the British rule S: It began with a mutiny of the. The proper sequence should be

(a)P Q R S
(b)Q R S P
(c)R S Q P
(d)S P R Q

Answer not given

The official key marks this question as dropped or accepts more than one answer, or the key looks doubtful, so no answer is shown here.

34.Ordering of Sentences

S1: The Indian Civil Service gradually developed into one of the most efficient and powerful civil services in the world. S6: though these qualities obviously served British, and not Indian interests. P: and often participated in the making of policy Q: independence, integrity and hard work R: They developed certain traditions of S: Its members exercised vast power. The proper sequence should be

(a)P Q R S
(b)Q R S P
(c)R S Q P
(d)S P R Q

Answer: (d) S P R Q

S says the members held vast power. P adds that they often shaped policy. R begins the traditions they developed. Q names them: independence, integrity and hard work. The order is S P R Q.

35.Ordering of Sentences

S1: The ruin of Indian handicrafts was reflected in the ruin of the towns and cities which were famous for their manufactures. S6: Centres were developed and laid waste. P: Dacca, Surat, Murshidabad and many other rising industrial Q: ravages of war and plunder, failed to R: survive British conquest S: Cities which had withstood the. The proper sequence should be

(a)P Q R S
(b)S Q R P
(c)S R P Q
(d)Q R S P

Answer: (b) S Q R P

S starts the idea: cities that had withstood war and plunder. Q continues with “failed to”. R completes it: survive British conquest. P then names the centres, Dacca, Surat and Murshidabad. The order is S Q R P.

36.Comprehension

Passage: The rule of the road means that in order that the liberties of all may be preserved, the liberties of everybody must be curtailed. When the policeman, say, at a road-crossing steps into the middle of the road and puts out his hand, he is the symbol not of tyranny but of liberty. You have submitted to a curtailment of private liberty in order that you may enjoy a social order which makes your liberty a reality. We have both liberties to preserve – our individual liberty and our social liberty. That is, we must have a judicious mixture of both. I shall not permit any authority to say that my child must go to this school or that, shall specialize in science or arts. These things are personal. But if I say that my child shall have no education at all, then society will firmly tell me that my child must have education whether I like it or not. According to the author, the ‘rule of the road’ implies

(a)the rule regulating the traffic on the road
(b)the principle on which a road is constructed to ensure safe traffic
(c)unrestricted freedom for all to lead a happy life
(d)restricted individual freedom to ensure freedom for all

Answer: (d) restricted individual freedom to ensure freedom for all

The author says the policeman at a crossing stands for liberty, not tyranny. Everyone gives up a little freedom so that all can enjoy freedom. So the rule means limited personal freedom to secure freedom for all.

37.Comprehension

The author thinks that when a policeman signals you to stop on a road-crossing, he is

(a)behaving in a whimsical manner
(b)interfering with your freedom to use the road
(c)protecting the liberty of all to use the road
(d)mischievously creating hurdles in your way from some personal motive

Answer: (c) protecting the liberty of all to use the road

The passage says the policeman is “a symbol not of tyranny but of liberty”, since his signal keeps the road safe and usable for everyone.

38.Comprehension

The author is of the view that we should

(a)have absolute individual liberty without any restrictions imposed by the society
(b)have everything controlled by the society without any kind of individual liberty
(c)try to strike a sensible balance between our individual liberty and our social liberty
(d)have more of social liberty than individual liberty

Answer: (c) try to strike a sensible balance between our individual liberty and our social liberty

The passage explicitly says “we must have a judicious mixture of both” individual and social liberty.

39.Comprehension

The author holds that

(a)educating or not educating his child is a matter of personal liberty
(b)educating or not educating his child is also a matter of social liberty
(c)choosing the school for his child is a matter of social liberty
(d)choosing the subject of study for his child is a matter of social liberty

Answer: (b) educating or not educating his child is also a matter of social liberty

The passage says society will insist a child be educated even if the parent objects, while choosing which school or subject remains a personal matter.

40.Comprehension

The most suitable title of the passage would be

(a)The Policeman at a Road Crossing
(b)The Laws of the Road
(c)Importance of Liberty
(d)Education of Children

Answer: (c) Importance of Liberty

The passage’s central theme is the relationship between individual and social liberty, which this title captures better than any narrower option.

Questions 41–50

41.Comprehension

Passage: My most interesting visitor comes at night, when the lights are still burning – a tiny bat who prefers to fly in through the open door, and will use the window only if there is no alternative. His object in entering the house is to snap up the moths that cluster around the lamps. All the bats I have seen fly fairly high, keeping near the ceiling; but this particular bat flies in low, like a dive-bomber, zooming in and out of chair legs and under tables. Once, he passed straight between my legs. Has his radar gone wrong, I wondered, or is he just plain crazy? Consider the following statements: 1. The tiny bat flew in low like a dive-bomber. 2. The tiny bat like all bats keeps near the ceiling. 3. It has lost direction because its radar has gone wrong. 4. It wants to entertain the author with its skill in flying. Which of the above statements may be assumed to be true from the information given in the passage?

(a)1 only
(b)1 and 3
(c)2 and 4
(d)3 and 4

Answer: (a) 1 only

Only statement 1 is stated in the passage: the bat flew in low like a dive-bomber. Statement 2 is wrong, because this bat does not keep near the ceiling. Statements 3 and 4 are only the author’s guesses.

42.Comprehension

The bat entered the room

(a)because there was no alternative
(b)to eat the moths round the lamps
(c)as it had gone mad
(d)as it preferred to fly in through the open door

Answer: (b) to eat the moths round the lamps

The passage states the bat’s object in entering is “to snap up the moths that cluster around the lamps.”

43.Comprehension

After comparing the habits of the tiny bat with those of other bats, the author was

(a)sure that this bat had lost its direction
(b)not sure of its preferences
(c)surprised to find that it was an expert flier
(d)unable to give the correct explanation for its behaviour

Answer: (d) unable to give the correct explanation for its behaviour

The author compares this bat with others. He still asks whether its radar has gone wrong or whether it is just crazy. He gives no firm explanation. So he is unable to explain its behaviour.

44.Comprehension

The author calls the tiny bat an “interesting visitor”. This means

(a)the bat visits him at night
(b)the bat is interested in the moths
(c)this bat has peculiar qualities
(d)this bat surprises him by zooming in and out like a dive-bomber

Answer: (c) this bat has peculiar qualities

The bat is called “interesting” because its low, erratic flight pattern is unusual compared to how other bats normally fly.

45.Comprehension

What, according to you, can be the most suitable title for the passage?

(a)Someone visits me
(b)Night of Mysteries
(c)My Nocturnal Visitor
(d)A Funny Visitor

Answer: (c) My Nocturnal Visitor

The passage is a personal account of a bat that visits the author at night, making this the most fitting title.

46.Fill in the Blank

The tired traveller ______ on in the hope of finding some resting place.

(a)strolled
(b)scurried
(c)paraded
(d)plodded

Answer: (d) plodded

“Plodded” describes walking slowly and heavily, fitting a tired traveller pushing on.

47.Fill in the Blank

The car was damaged beyond repair in the ______ accident.

(a)outrageous
(b)ghastly
(c)nasty
(d)heinous

Answer: (c) nasty

“Nasty accident” is the usual phrase for a bad, serious accident. “Outrageous” and “heinous” suit shocking acts or crimes. They do not fit an accident.

48.Fill in the Blank

They gave a ______ dinner to celebrate the occasion, which impressed every guest.

(a)austere
(b)public
(c)sumptuous
(d)summary

Answer: (c) sumptuous

“Sumptuous” describes a lavish, impressive spread, fitting a dinner that impressed every guest.

49.Fill in the Blank

Once the ______ manuscript is received by the publishers, it is typed in double space.

(a)total
(b)full
(c)complete
(d)filled

Answer: (c) complete

“Complete manuscript” is the standard phrase for a finished, whole manuscript ready for publishing.

50.Fill in the Blank

I am used to ______ in queues.

(a)stand
(b)standing
(c)stand up
(d)standing still

Answer: (b) standing

“Used to” meaning “accustomed to” is followed by a gerund (-ing form), giving “used to standing”.

Questions 51–60

51.General Science

Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a)Any energy transfer that does not involve temperature difference in some way is not heat
(b)Any energy transfer always requires a temperature difference
(c)On heating the length and volume of the object remain exactly the same
(d)Whenever there is a temperature difference, heat is the only way of energy transfer

Answer: (a) Any energy transfer that does not involve temperature difference in some way is not heat

Heat is specifically defined as energy transferred between two systems because of a temperature difference between them. Energy transfer can also happen through work, which does not need a temperature difference, so option (b) is wrong. Heating an object usually expands it, so option (c) is wrong. Temperature differences can also drive other processes besides heat, so option (d) is wrong. (Self-derived: standard thermodynamics definition of heat as temperature-difference-driven energy transfer)

52.General Science

If T is the time period of an oscillating pendulum, which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

(a)The motion repeats after time T only once
(b)T is the least time after which motion repeats itself
(c)The motion repeats itself after nT, where n is a positive integer
(d)T remains the same only for small angular displacements

Answer: (a) The motion repeats after time T only once

A pendulum’s motion repeats not just once after time T, but again and again, after every multiple of T. T is the least time for one repeat, and the motion also repeats after 2T, 3T, and so on, so option (a) understates this. The pendulum’s period stays constant only for small swing angles, which is why simple pendulum formulas assume small oscillations. (Self-derived: standard simple harmonic motion definition of periodic time)

53.General Science

If an object moves with constant velocity then which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

(a)Its motion is along a straight line
(b)Its speed changes with time
(c)Its acceleration is zero
(d)Its displacement increases linearly with time

Answer: (b) Its speed changes with time

Velocity has both magnitude and direction, so constant velocity means both stay fixed, including speed. Constant velocity implies straight-line motion, zero acceleration, and displacement that grows linearly with time. Speed staying constant is the opposite of what option (b) claims, which is why it is the incorrect statement. (Self-derived: standard kinematics definition of constant velocity)

54.General Science

An object is moving with uniform acceleration a. Its initial velocity is u and after time t its velocity is v. The equation of its motion is v = u + at. The velocity (along y-axis) time (along x-axis) graph shall be a straight line

(a)passing through origin
(b)with x-intercept u
(c)with y-intercept u
(d)with slope u

Answer: (c) with y-intercept u

The equation v = u + at is a straight line on a v–t graph. At t = 0, v equals u, so the line cuts the y-axis at u. The slope is a. The line does not pass through the origin unless u is zero.

55.General Science

What is the net force experienced by a bar magnet placed in a uniform magnetic field?

(a)Zero
(b)Depends upon length of the magnet
(c)Never zero
(d)Depends upon temperature

Answer: (a) Zero

A bar magnet has a north and a south pole, which act like two opposite magnetic charges of equal strength. In a uniform field, the force on each pole is equal in size but opposite in direction, so the net force cancels out to zero. The magnet may still feel a turning effect, a torque, that tries to align it with the field, but the net force stays zero. (Self-derived: standard magnetic dipole behavior in a uniform field)

56.General Science

Which one of the following has maximum inertia?

(a)An atom
(b)A molecule
(c)A one-rupee coin
(d)A cricket ball

Answer: (d) A cricket ball

Inertia depends only on mass. A cricket ball has far more mass than an atom, a molecule or a one-rupee coin. So it has the greatest inertia.

57.General Science

Which one of the following is the value of 1 kWh of energy converted into joules?

(a)1.8 x 10^6 J
(b)3.6 x 10^6 J
(c)6.0 x 10^6 J
(d)7.2 x 10^6 J

Answer: (b) 3.6 x 10^6 J

One kilowatt-hour equals 1000 watts running for 3600 seconds, giving 3.6 million joules.

Answer: (b) 3.6 x 10^6 J

One kilowatt-hour means 1,000 watts of power used for one hour, or 3,600 seconds.

Multiplying 1,000 watts by 3,600 seconds gives 3,600,000 joules, which is 3.6 x 10^6 J.

(Self-derived: unit conversion from kilowatt-hour to joules)

Test yourself on this question

58.General Science

Which one of the following statements about gravitational force is NOT correct?

(a)It is experienced by all bodies in the universe
(b)It is a dominant force between celestial bodies
(c)It is a negligible force for atoms
(d)It is same for all pairs of bodies in our universe

Answer: (d) It is same for all pairs of bodies in our universe

Gravitational force equals G times m1 times m2, divided by the square of the distance. The masses and distances differ for each pair of bodies. So the force is not the same for all pairs. The other three statements are correct.

59.General Science

Whether an object will float or sink in a liquid, depends on

(a)mass of the object only
(b)mass of the object and density of liquid only
(c)difference in the densities of the object and liquid
(d)mass and shape of the object only

Answer: (c) difference in the densities of the object and liquid

An object floats if it’s less dense than the liquid, and sinks if it’s denser.

60.General Science

Which one of the following devices is non-ohmic?

(a)Conducting copper coil
(b)Electric heating coil
(c)Semi conductor diode
(d)Rheostat

Answer: (c) Semi conductor diode

Its current-voltage relationship is nonlinear, unlike the other options which behave ohmically.

Questions 61–70

61.General Science

Which one of the following is the natural phenomenon based on which a simple periscope works?

(a)Reflection of light
(b)Refraction of light
(c)Dispersion of light
(d)Total internal reflection of light

Answer: (a) Reflection of light

A simple periscope has two plane mirrors set at 45 degrees. Light reflects from each mirror in turn. This lets you see over or around an obstacle.

62.General Science

Which one of the following frequency ranges is sensitive to human ears?

(a)0-200 Hz
(b)20-20,000 Hz
(c)200-20,000 Hz only
(d)2,000-20,000 Hz only

Answer: (b) 20-20,000 Hz

This is the standard range of audible frequencies for the human ear.

63.General Science

The accidental touch of Nettle leaves creates a burning sensation, which is due to inject of

(a)Hydrochloric acid
(b)Methanoic acid
(c)Citric acid
(d)Sulphuric acid

Answer: (b) Methanoic acid

The stinging hairs of the nettle inject methanoic acid, also called formic acid. This causes the burning feeling. Citric acid is found in lemons, and the other two acids are not found in nettles.

64.General Science

Which of the following properties is true for a tooth paste?

(a)It is acidic
(b)It is neutral
(c)It is basic
(d)It is made up of Calcium phosphate, the material of tooth enamel

Answer: (c) It is basic

Toothpaste is basic. It neutralises the acids made by bacteria in the mouth. This protects the teeth from decay.

65.General Science

Which one of the following gives the highest amount of hydrogen ions (H+)?

(a)Sodium hydroxide solution
(b)Milk of magnesia
(c)Lemon juice
(d)Gastric juice

Answer: (d) Gastric juice

This is more strongly acidic (and thus has a higher H+ concentration) than lemon juice, while the other two options are bases.

66.General Science

Brine is an aqueous solution of

(a)NaCl
(b)NaOH
(c)NaHCO3
(d)Na2CO3

Answer: (a) NaCl

Brine is a solution of NaCl (sodium chloride), the common salt, dissolved in water.

67.General Science

Which one of the following is the chemical formula of Washing Soda?

(a)NaHCO3
(b)Na2CO3.10H2O
(c)Na2CO3.5H2O
(d)NaOH

Answer: (b) Na2CO3.10H2O

Washing soda is sodium carbonate decahydrate, sodium carbonate crystallized with ten water molecules. NaHCO3 is baking soda, and NaOH is caustic soda, both different compounds entirely. (Self-derived: standard chemistry fact about common sodium compounds)

68.General Science

Which one of the following is NOT true for bleaching powder?

(a)It is used as a reducing agent in chemical industries
(b)It is used for bleaching wood pulp in paper factories
(c)It is used for disinfecting drinking water
(d)It is used for bleaching linen in textile industry

Answer: (a) It is used as a reducing agent in chemical industries

Bleaching powder, calcium oxychloride, works by releasing chlorine and acting as an oxidizing agent, not a reducing agent. It genuinely is used to bleach paper pulp and textiles, and to disinfect drinking water, all as an oxidizer. (Self-derived: standard chemistry fact about bleaching powder’s oxidizing action)

69.General Science

AIDS is caused by a virus whose genetic material is

(a)single stranded circular DNA
(b)double stranded DNA
(c)single stranded RNA
(d)double stranded RNA

Answer: (c) single stranded RNA

HIV is a retrovirus that carries its genome as single-stranded RNA.

70.General Science

Which one of the following is an organelle that is NOT found in prokaryotic cells?

(a)Cell wall
(b)Mitochondria
(c)Plasma membrane
(d)Ribosome

Answer: (b) Mitochondria

Prokaryotic cells lack membrane-bound organelles, though they do have a cell wall, plasma membrane, and ribosomes.

Questions 71–80

71.General Science

Which one of the following parts of body does NOT take part in the process of breathing?

(a)Bronchi
(b)Bowman’s capsule
(c)Diaphragm
(d)Trachea

Answer: (b) Bowman’s capsule

Bowman’s capsule is part of the kidney. It filters blood and has no role in breathing. The bronchi, the diaphragm and the trachea all take part in breathing.

72.General Science

Which one of the following statements about classification of plants is correct?

(a)Thallophytes have well differentiated body design
(b)Funaria is a fungus
(c)All Pteridophytes are Phanerogams
(d)Vascular system is not found among Bryophytes

Answer: (d) Vascular system is not found among Bryophytes

Thallophytes actually have undifferentiated bodies, Funaria is a moss (not a fungus), and Pteridophytes are cryptogams, not seed-bearing phanerogams.

73.General Science

Which one of the following is the correct sequence of levels of hierarchy of classification of organisms from higher to lower?

(a)Phylum – Class – Order – Family – Genus
(b)Phylum – Class – Family – Order – Genus
(c)Family – Order – Class – Species – Genus
(d)Class – Family – Order – Species – Genus

Answer: (a) Phylum – Class – Order – Family – Genus

The ranks run from higher to lower as Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus and Species. So Phylum, Class, Order is the correct sequence.

74.General Science

Which one of the following statements about meristematic tissues in plants is correct?

(a)These are dead tissues and form wood
(b)They provide flexibility to plant due to their thickened walls
(c)These are present in the bark of a tree only
(d)Growth occurs in plants due to division of cells of these tissues

Answer: (d) Growth occurs in plants due to division of cells of these tissues

Plant growth results from the division of meristematic cells, found at growing points like root and shoot tips.

75.Polity & Governance

Which one of the following Union Territories has the highest female literacy rate?

(a)Chandigarh
(b)Lakshadweep
(c)Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(d)Puducherry

Answer: (b) Lakshadweep

This UT has recorded one of the highest female literacy rates among India’s Union Territories.

76.Geography

Consider the following statements about Roaring Forties : 1. They are strong Westerly winds found in the oceans of Southern Hemisphere. 2. The strong east to west air currents are caused by the combination of air being displaced from the Equator towards the South Pole and the earth’s rotation and abundance of landmasses to serve as wind breaks.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

The Roaring Forties are strong westerly winds in the Southern Hemisphere. They are strong because there is very little land to slow them. Statement 2 says landmasses are abundant, which is wrong. So only statement 1 is correct.

77.Geography

Consider the following statements : 1. The doldrums is a low pressure area around Equator where the prevailing winds are calm. 2. Chinook is a hot and dry wind that blows in winter and therefore raises the temperature in a short time.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

The doldrums are a calm equatorial low-pressure belt, and the Chinook is indeed a warm, dry winter wind known for rapidly raising temperatures.

78.Geography

Which one of the following is the driest desert of the world?

(a)Atacama
(b)Gobi
(c)Sahara
(d)Kalahari

Answer: (a) Atacama

The Atacama Desert in Chile is widely recognised as the driest non-polar desert on Earth.

79.General Science

Which of the following statements about latent heat for a given substance is/are correct?

1. It is fixed at a given temperature.

2. It depends upon the temperature and volume.

3. It is independent of temperature and volume.

4. It depends on the temperature but independent of volume.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a)2
(b)1 and 3
(c)4 only
(d)1 and 4

Answer: (d) 1 and 4

Latent heat is fixed for a substance at a given temperature. It changes with temperature but does not depend on volume. So statements 1 and 4 are correct.

80.General Science

Which one of the following statements about the mass of a body is correct?

(a)It changes from one place to another
(b)It is same everywhere
(c)It depends on its shape
(d)It does not depend on its temperature

Answer: (b) It is same everywhere

Mass is the same everywhere, unlike weight, which varies with local gravitational acceleration.

Questions 81–90

81.General Science

A ball balanced on a vertical rod is an example of

(a)stable equilibrium
(b)unstable equilibrium
(c)neutral equilibrium
(d)perfect equilibrium

Answer: (b) unstable equilibrium

Any small disturbance causes the ball to fall away rather than return to its balanced position.

82.General Science

Which of the following statements about a fluid at rest in a cup is/are correct? 1. Pressure is same at all the points in the fluid. 2. Pressure is exerted on the walls. 3. Pressure exists everywhere in the fluid.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Pressure in a liquid at rest increases with depth, so it is not the same everywhere. Statement 1 is wrong. Pressure acts on the walls and exists at every point. So statements 2 and 3 are correct.

83.General Science

Which one of the following devices is used to measure atmospheric pressure?

(a)Ammeter
(b)Barometer
(c)Potentiometer
(d)Lactometer

Answer: (b) Barometer

A barometer measures atmospheric pressure. An ammeter measures current, a potentiometer measures voltage, and a lactometer checks milk purity — none relate to air pressure.

84.General Science

Which one of the following is the number of water molecules that share with two formula unit CaSO4 in plaster of Paris?

(a)One
(b)Two
(c)Five
(d)Ten

Answer: (a) One

Plaster of Paris has the formula 2CaSO4.H2O, so one water molecule is shared between two CaSO4 units.

85.General Science

How is carbon black obtained?

(a)By heating wood at high temperature in absence of air
(b)By heating coal at high temperature in absence of air
(c)By burning hydrocarbons in a limited supply of air
(d)By heating coal at high temperature in presence of air

Answer: (c) By burning hydrocarbons in a limited supply of air

Carbon black is the fine soot left when hydrocarbons burn in a limited supply of air. It is used in tyres and inks.

86.General Science

Which one of the following properties is NOT true for graphite?

(a)Hybridisation of each carbon atom is sp3
(b)Hybridisation of each carbon atom is sp2
(c)Electrons are delocalized over the whole sheet of atoms
(d)Each layer is composed of hexagonal rings

Answer: (a) Hybridisation of each carbon atom is sp3

Graphite’s carbon atoms are actually sp2 hybridised, forming flat hexagonal sheets, unlike diamond’s sp3 carbons.

87.General Science

Which one of the following is the purest form of Carbon?

(a)Charcoal
(b)Coke
(c)Fullerene
(d)Carbon black

Answer: (c) Fullerene

This is a well-defined molecular allotrope of pure carbon, unlike the impure amorphous forms charcoal, coke, and carbon black.

88.General Science

The Poisonous nature of Carbon monoxide (CO) is due to its

(a)insolubility in water
(b)ability to form a complex with haemoglobin
(c)ability to reduce some metal oxides
(d)property of having one sigma bond

Answer: (b) ability to form a complex with haemoglobin

CO binds haemoglobin roughly 200-250 times more strongly than oxygen, forming carboxyhaemoglobin. That complex can no longer carry oxygen, which is the direct cause of CO’s toxicity.

89.General Science

Which one of the following elements is needed in the human body to transfer electrical signals by nerve cells?

(a)Lithium
(b)Sodium
(c)Rubidium
(d)Caesium

Answer: (b) Sodium

The movement of sodium (and potassium) ions across nerve cell membranes generates the electrical signals of nerve impulses.

90.General Science

Who among the following first discovered cell?

(a)Robert Brown
(b)Robert Hooke
(c)Leeuwenhoek
(d)Rudolf Virchow

Answer: (b) Robert Hooke

He first observed and named cells while examining cork under a microscope in 1665.

Questions 91–100

91.Environment & Ecology

Which one of the following group of organisms forms a food chain?

(a)Grass, human and fish
(b)Grass, goat and human
(c)Tree, tree cutter and tiger
(d)Goat, cow and human

Answer: (b) Grass, goat and human

This is a real feeding sequence: grass is eaten by the goat, and the goat is eaten by the human. The other options pair organisms that don’t actually eat each other in that order.

92.General Science

Which one of the following types of tissues will have contractile proteins?

(a)Nervous tissue
(b)Muscle tissue
(c)Bone tissue
(d)Blood tissue

Answer: (b) Muscle tissue

This contains the contractile proteins actin and myosin responsible for movement.

93.General Science

If by an unknown accident the acid secreting cells of the stomach wall of an individual are damaged, digestion of which one of the following biomolecule will be affected to a greater extent?

(a)Protein only
(b)Lipid
(c)Carbohydrate only
(d)Protein and Carbohydrate

Answer: (a) Protein only

Stomach acid activates pepsin, which digests proteins. If the acid cells are damaged, protein digestion suffers most. Fats and carbohydrates are mostly digested by enzymes in the intestine and the mouth.

94.Geography

In which one of the following places, Headquarters of a Railway Zone is located?

(a)Kanpur
(b)Lucknow
(c)Hajipur
(d)New Jalpaiguri

Answer: (c) Hajipur

Hajipur, in Bihar, is the headquarters of East Central Railway, one of Indian Railways’ 18 zones.

95.Polity & Governance

Which of the following statements about Indian Academy of Highway Engineers is/are correct? 1. It is a registered society. 2. It is a collaborative body of both Central Government and State Governments.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

The Indian Academy of Highway Engineers is a registered society. It is a joint body of the Centre and the State Governments. It trains highway engineers. So both statements are correct.

96.Geography

Which one of the following is NOT a tributary of Indus River?

(a)Beas
(b)Ravi
(c)Chenab
(d)Tawi

Answer: (d) Tawi

This river is actually a tributary of the Chenab rather than a direct tributary of the Indus itself.

97.Environment & Ecology

Which one among the following is the largest tiger reserve of India in terms of area of the core/critical tiger habitat?

(a)Manas
(b)Pakke
(c)Nagarjunasagar Srisailam
(d)Periyar

Answer: (c) Nagarjunasagar Srisailam

The Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve, set in the Nallamala Hills, has the largest critical tiger habitat of any Indian reserve, at roughly 2,595 sq km.

98.Geography

Which one of the following is NOT a coastal depositional feature?

(a)Tombolo
(b)Sand bar
(c)Stack
(d)Spit

Answer: (c) Stack

This is an erosional feature formed when a sea arch collapses, unlike tombolos, sand bars, and spits, which are all depositional.

99.Geography

Which of the following is/are coastal erosional feature(s)? 1. Notch 2. Sea Arch 3. Cliff 4. Hook

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a)1, 2 and 3
(b)2, 3 and 4
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1 only

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3

Notches, sea arches, and cliffs all form through wave erosion, while a hook is actually a depositional feature (a curved spit).

100.Geography

Chemical weathering of rocks is much greater in a place with

(a)cold and dry climate
(b)hot and humid climate
(c)hot and dry climate
(d)cold and humid climate

Answer: (b) hot and humid climate

Heat and moisture together accelerate the chemical reactions that break down rock.

Questions 101–110

101.General Science

Which of the following statements about specific heat of a body is/are correct? 1. It depends upon mass and shape of the body 2. It is independent of mass and shape of the body 3. It depends only upon the temperature of the body

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a)1 only
(b)2 and 3
(c)1 and 3
(d)2 only

Answer: (d) 2 only

Specific heat is a property of the material. It does not depend on the mass or shape of the body. Statement 3 is wrong, because the value is not set by temperature alone. So only statement 2 is correct.

102.General Science

Which one of the following is an example of the force of gravity of the earth acting on a vibrating pendulum bob?

(a)Applied force
(b)Frictional force
(c)Restoring force
(d)Virtual force

Answer: (c) Restoring force

Gravity’s component along the pendulum’s arc pulls the bob back toward its equilibrium position.

103.General Science

Which one of the following statements about the refractive index of a material medium with respect to air is correct?

(a)It can be either positive or negative
(b)It can have zero value
(c)It is unity for all materials
(d)It is always greater than one

Answer: (d) It is always greater than one

Ordinary materials are optically denser than air, so their refractive index relative to air always exceeds one.

104.General Science

Which one of the following statements about magnetic field lines is NOT correct?

(a)They can emanate from a point
(b)They do not cross each other
(c)Field lines between two poles cannot be precisely straight lines at the ends
(d)There are no field lines within a bar magnet

Answer: (d) There are no field lines within a bar magnet

Magnetic field lines actually form closed loops, running from south to north pole INSIDE the magnet to complete the circuit.

105.General Science

Two convex lenses with power 2 dioptre are kept in contact with each other. The focal length of the combined lens system is

(a)0.10 m
(b)2 m
(c)4 m
(d)0.25 m

Answer: (d) 0.25 m

Combined power equals the sum of individual powers (2D + 2D = 4D), and focal length is the reciprocal of power (1/4 = 0.25 m).

106.General Science

Which one of the following alkali metals has lowest melting point?

(a)Sodium
(b)Potassium
(c)Rubidium
(d)Caesium

Answer: (d) Caesium

Its melting point (around 28°C) is the lowest among common alkali metals as atomic size increases down the group.

107.General Science

Which one of the following metals is alloyed with sodium to transfer heat in a nuclear reactor?

(a)Potassium
(b)Calcium
(c)Magnesium
(d)Strontium

Answer: (a) Potassium

The sodium-potassium (NaK) alloy is a classic liquid-metal coolant used to transfer heat in nuclear reactors.

108.General Science

Which one of the following metals is used in the filaments of photo-electric cells that convert light energy into electric energy?

(a)Tungsten
(b)Copper
(c)Rubidium
(d)Aluminium

Answer: (c) Rubidium

Its low work function makes it well suited for the photoelectric effect used in photocells.

109.Environment & Ecology

Which of the following statements about Ring of Fire is/are correct? 1. It is a zone of convergence plate boundaries 2. It is an active seismic and volcanic zone 3. It is associated with deep trench

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

The Ring of Fire lies along convergent (subduction) plate boundaries, is highly seismically and volcanically active, and is lined with deep ocean trenches.

110.Environment & Ecology

Which one of the following Himalayan vegetation species is found between the altitudes of 1800 to 2600 metres?

(a)Saal
(b)Chir
(c)Spruce
(d)Deodar

Answer: (d) Deodar

This Himalayan cedar is characteristic of the temperate coniferous forest belt roughly in this elevation range.

Questions 111–120

111.Geography

Which one of the following rivers is NOT a tributary of river Cauvery?

(a)Hemavati
(b)Arkavati
(c)Indravati
(d)Amravati

Answer: (c) Indravati

This river is actually a tributary of the Godavari, not the Cauvery.

112.Economy

Which of the following conditions is/are essential for tea cultivation? 1. Tropical and sub-tropical climate 2. Heavy rainfall ranging from 150 cm to 250 cm 3. Soil should contain good amount of lime

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a)1, 2 and 3
(b)1 and 2 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1 only

Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only

Tea needs a tropical/subtropical climate with heavy rainfall, but it actually thrives in acidic soil, not lime-rich alkaline soil.

113.Economy

Bharatmala Project is related to

(a)Improving road connectivity
(b)Interlinking ports and railways
(c)Interlinking of rivers
(d)Interlinking major cities with gas pipelines

Answer: (a) Improving road connectivity

Bharatmala was launched in 2017 by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways. It plans about 34,800 km of roads. These include economic corridors, border roads and coastal roads. So it is about road connectivity.

114.Geography

Which one of the following is a local wind that blows out from Siberia?

(a)Bora
(b)Purga
(c)Mistral
(d)Blizzard

Answer: (b) Purga

“Purga” is a strong, blizzard-like local wind that blows out of Siberia. Bora and Mistral are winds of Europe, and blizzard is a general term, not tied to Siberia specifically.

115.Economy

Which one of the following centres is NOT known for iron and steel industry?

(a)Bhadravati
(b)Salem
(c)Vishakhapatnam
(d)Renukoot

Answer: (d) Renukoot

Renukoot in Uttar Pradesh is known for its aluminium industry (Hindalco), not iron and steel. Bhadravati, Salem, and Vishakhapatnam all host well-known steel plants.

116.Economy

Which of the following are essential pre-requisites for establishment of a thermal power station? 1. Availability of fossil fuels 2. Proximity to a river, lake or sea 3. Good transport network 4. Proximity to an urban centre

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a)1, 2 and 3
(b)2 and 4
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1 and 3 only

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3

A thermal station needs fuel, water for cooling, and good transport to bring the fuel in. It does not need to be near a city. So statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

117.Sports & Current Affairs

Which of the following statements about ‘Aadi Mahotsav’ held recently in New Delhi is/are correct? 1. The theme of the festival was ‘A Celebration of the Spirit of Tribal Culture, Cuisine and Commerce’ 2. The festival was organized by the Ministry of Tourism, Government of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a)1, 2 and 3
(b)2 and 4
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1 only

Answer not given

The official key marks this question as dropped or accepts more than one answer, or the key looks doubtful, so no answer is shown here.

118.General Science

Light year is a unit for measurement of

(a)age of universe
(b)very small time intervals
(c)very high temperature
(d)very large distance

Answer: (d) very large distance

A light year is the distance light travels in one year, used to measure vast astronomical distances.

119.General Science

Which of the following statements about electromagnetic waves, sound waves and water waves is/are correct? 1. They exhibit reflection 2. They carry energy 3. They exert pressure 4. They can travel in vacuum

(a)1, 2 and 3
(b)2 and 4
(c)1, 2, 3 and 4
(d)1 and 3 only

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3

All three kinds of waves reflect, carry energy and exert pressure. Only electromagnetic waves can travel in a vacuum. Sound and water waves need a medium. So statement 4 is wrong.

120.General Science

Thermal capacity of a body depends on the

(a)mass of the body only
(b)mass and shape of the body only
(c)density of the body
(d)mass, shape and temperature of the body

Answer: (a) mass of the body only

Thermal capacity is mass times specific heat. For a given material, it depends on mass alone. Shape and temperature do not change it.

Questions 121–130

121.History & Culture

Who among the following first used the term ‘Industrial Revolution’ in English to describe the changes that occurred in British industrial development between 1760 and 1820?

(a)Karl Marx
(b)Georges Michelet
(c)Arnold Toynbee
(d)Friedrich Engels

Answer: (c) Arnold Toynbee

British economic historian Arnold Toynbee popularised the English term “Industrial Revolution” in lectures given in the 1880s, describing Britain’s industrial development between 1760 and 1820.

122.History & Culture

Which one of the following statements about the Olympe de Gouges (1748-1793) is correct?

(a)She declared that although citizens should have equal rights, they are not entitled to the same honours by the State
(b)She was a supporter of the Jacobin government
(c)She was jailed for treason by the National Assembly
(d)She declared that the nation is the union of woman and man

Answer: (d) She declared that the nation is the union of woman and man

Olympe de Gouges wrote the Declaration of the Rights of Woman. She said the nation is the union of woman and man. She opposed the Jacobins, and they had her executed in 1793.

123.Science & Tech

Who among the following built a model steam engine in 1698 called “Miner’s Friend” to drain mines?

(a)Thomas Savery
(b)Thomas Newcomen
(c)James Watt
(d)Richard Arkwright

Answer: (a) Thomas Savery

Savery patented his “Miner’s Friend” steam pump in 1698, decades before Newcomen’s 1712 engine and Watt’s 1769 improvement. It had no piston, and used vacuum suction to draw water out of mines.

124.History & Culture

Which one of the following statements about Renaissance Humanist culture is NOT true?

(a)It slackened the control of religion over human life
(b)It believed that human nature was many-sided
(c)It was concerned with good manners
(d)It criticized material wealth, power and glory

Answer: (d) It criticized material wealth, power and glory

Renaissance humanism did the opposite: it celebrated worldly achievement, wealth, and glory as signs of human potential, rather than criticizing them. It did loosen religion’s grip on daily life, embrace a many-sided view of human nature, and value refined manners.

125.History & Culture

Who gifted the Badshah Nama to King George in 1799?

(a)Abul Fazl
(b)Abdul Hamid Lahori
(c)Nawab of Awadh
(d)William Jones

Answer: (c) Nawab of Awadh

The Nawab of Awadh presented this illustrated Mughal chronicle to King George III in 1799.

126.History & Culture

What is the name of the award given to meritorious men in the Mughal Court in the form of a robe of honour that was once worn by the Emperor?

(a)Sarapa
(b)Patka
(c)Padma murassa
(d)Khilat

Answer: (d) Khilat

Khilat was the ceremonial robe of honour Mughal emperors bestowed on distinguished courtiers.

127.History & Culture

Who among the following social reformer started a society for the encouragement of widow remarriage in 1866 in Maharashtra?

(a)Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(b)Jyotirao Phule
(c)Vishnushastri Pandit
(d)Pandita Ramabai

Answer: (c) Vishnushastri Pandit

Vishnushastri Pandit founded a society for widow remarriage in 1866 in Maharashtra. Phule’s Satyashodhak Samaj came in 1873. Ramabai’s work began in the 1880s. Tilak was a political leader.

128.History & Culture

Name the first major voluntary association representing primarily Indian landlord interests that was set up in Calcutta in 1851?

(a)British Indian Association
(b)Landholder’s Society
(c)Madras Native Association
(d)Bombay Association

Answer: (a) British Indian Association

It was formed in 1851 by merging earlier landholder bodies to represent zamindari interests.

129.History & Culture

Who among the following introduced the Permanent Settlement of Bengal in 1793?

(a)Lord Cornwallis
(b)Lord Ripon
(c)Robert Clive
(d)John Adam

Answer: (a) Lord Cornwallis

Lord Cornwallis, Governor-General of Bengal (1786-93), introduced the Permanent Settlement of Bengal in 1793, fixing the land revenue with the zamindars in perpetuity. Ripon, Clive and John Adam are different figures.

130.History & Culture

Name the rebel who fought against the British in the battle of Chinhat in the course of the 1857 Revolt?

(a)Ahmadullah Shah
(b)Shah Mal
(c)Mangal Pandey
(d)Kunwar Singh

Answer: (a) Ahmadullah Shah

Known as the ‘Maulvi of Faizabad’, he led rebel forces against the British at the Battle of Chinhat near Lucknow.

Questions 131–140

131.Polity & Governance

Who among the following are the two civil servants who assisted the Constituent Assembly in framing the Constitution of India?

(a)B. N. Rau and K. M. Munshi
(b)S. N. Mukherjee and Alladi Krishnaswamy Aiyar
(c)B. N. Rau and S. N. Mukherjee
(d)K. M. Munshi and Alladi Krishnaswamy Aiyar

Answer: (c) B. N. Rau and S. N. Mukherjee

B.N. Rau, the Constitutional Adviser, and S.N. Mukherjee, the Chief Draftsman, were the two civil servants who assisted the Constituent Assembly technically. Munshi and Alladi Krishnaswamy Ayyar were Drafting Committee members instead — a different role entirely.

132.Polity & Governance

Which member of the Constituent Assembly proposed the resolution that the National Flag of India be a “horizontal tricolour of saffron, white and dark green in equal proportion”, with a wheel in navy blue at the centre?

(a)Jawaharlal Nehru
(b)B. R. Ambedkar
(c)Rajendra Prasad
(d)Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Answer: (a) Jawaharlal Nehru

Nehru moved this resolution adopting the tricolour as India’s national flag in July 1947.

133.History & Culture

Which of the following is/are NOT historical biography/biographies? 1. Dipavamsa 2. Harshacharita 3. Vikramankadevacharita 4. Prithvirajavijaya

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

(a)1 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)2, 3 and 4 only
(d)1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (a) 1 only

The Dipavamsa is a Pali chronicle of Sri Lankan history, not a biography of a person. Harshacharita, Vikramankadevacharita and Prithvirajavijaya are all biographical works about specific kings.

134.Geography

Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? Traveller – Country from : 1. Marco Polo – Italy 2. Ibn Battuta – Morocco 3. Nikitin – Russia 4. Seydi Ali Reis – Turkey

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a)1, 2 and 3 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1, 2, 3 and 4
(d)1 and 4 only

Answer: (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Marco Polo was Italian. Ibn Battuta was from Morocco. Nikitin was a Russian merchant. Seydi Ali Reis was a Turkish admiral. So all four pairs are correct.

135.History & Culture

Which of the following clans are included in the Agnikula Rajputs? 1. Pratiharas 2. Chaulukyas 3. Paramaras 4. Chahamanas

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

(a)1 and 3 only
(b)1, 3 and 4 only
(c)1, 2, 3 and 4
(d)2 and 4 only

Answer: (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4

The Agnikula legend says four Rajput clans rose from a fire sacrifice on Mount Abu. They are the Pratiharas, Chaulukyas, Paramaras and Chahamanas. So all four are included.

136.History & Culture

Who among the following was the author of Humayun Nama?

(a)Roshanara Begum
(b)Ruquaiya Sultan Begum
(c)Gulbadan Begum
(d)Gauhara Begum

Answer: (c) Gulbadan Begum

Gulbadan Begum, Babur’s daughter and Humayun’s half-sister, wrote the Humayun-nama at Akbar’s request, giving a rare womans-eye account of the early Mughal court.

137.Polity & Governance

Which one of the following about the Parliament of India is NOT correct?

(a)The Parliament consists of the President, the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha
(b)There are no nominated members in the Lok Sabha
(c)The Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved
(d)Some members of the Rajya Sabha are nominated by the President

Answer: (b) There are no nominated members in the Lok Sabha

In 2018 the President could still nominate two Anglo-Indian members to the Lok Sabha under Article 331. The 104th Amendment ended this in 2020. So the claim that there are no nominated members is not correct.

138.Polity & Governance

Which one of the following statements with regard to the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is NOT correct?

(a)He is appointed by the President of India
(b)He can be removed from office in the same way as the judge of the Supreme Court of India
(c)The CAG is eligible for further office under the Government of India after he has ceased to hold his office
(d)The salary of the CAG is charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India

Answer: (c) The CAG is eligible for further office under the Government of India after he has ceased to hold his office

A former CAG cannot hold any other office under the Government of India. This keeps the audit independent. The other three statements are correct. So statement (c) is not correct.

139.Polity & Governance

The Superintendence, direction and control of elections in India is vested in

(a)The Supreme Court of India
(b)The Parliament of India
(c)The Election Commission of India
(d)The Chief Election Commissioner

Answer: (c) The Election Commission of India

Article 324 gives the control of elections to the Election Commission. It acts as a body. The Supreme Court, Parliament and the Chief Election Commissioner alone do not hold this power.

140.Polity & Governance

Which of the following provision(s) of the Constitution of India became effective from 26th November 1949? 1. Elections 2. Citizenship 3. Emergency provisions 4. Appointment of the Judges

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a)1 only
(b)1 and 2 only
(c)1, 2 and 3
(d)2 and 4

Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only

Some provisions took effect on 26 November 1949. These covered citizenship, elections and the provisional Parliament. The rest of the Constitution began on 26 January 1950. So statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Questions 141–150

141.Science & Tech

Which of the following statements regarding construction of Rohtang tunnel is NOT correct?

(a)It is located at an altitude of 5,000 feet
(b)It will provide all-year connectivity to Lahaul and Spiti Valley
(c)The tunnel is being built by the Border Roads Organization
(d)It will reduce the length of the Leh-Manali highway by approximately 50 km

Answer: (a) It is located at an altitude of 5,000 feet

The Rohtang tunnel, now called the Atal Tunnel, is at about 10,000 feet. It is not at 5,000 feet. The other statements are correct. The BRO built it, and it gives all-weather access to Lahaul and Spiti.

142.Sports & Current Affairs

Who among the following recently became the first woman pilot in Indian Navy?

(a)Astha Segal
(b)Roopa A
(c)Sakthi Maya S
(d)Shubhangi Swaroop

Answer: (d) Shubhangi Swaroop

Shubhangi Swaroop became the first woman pilot of the Indian Navy. She joined in 2018 and flies maritime reconnaissance aircraft.

143.Sports & Current Affairs

Who among the following Indians did NOT hold the title of Miss World?

(a)Reita Faria
(b)Sushmita Sen
(c)Diana Hayden
(d)Yukta Mookhey

Answer: (b) Sushmita Sen

She actually won Miss Universe (1994), not Miss World, unlike Reita Faria, Diana Hayden, and Yukta Mookhey.

144.Sports & Current Affairs

Which one of the following countries has failed to qualify for the first time in 60 years for the FIFA World Cup to be held in Russia in the year 2018?

(a)Mexico
(b)Iran
(c)Saudi Arabia
(d)Italy

Answer: (d) Italy

Italy failed to qualify for the 2018 World Cup for the first time since 1958.

145.Int'l Relations & Defence

The Defence Technology and Trade Initiative (DTTI) is a forum for dialogue on defence partnership between India and

(a)Russia
(b)United States of America
(c)Israel
(d)France

Answer: (b) United States of America

India established the DTTI with the USA to boost defence technology cooperation.

146.Economy

As per the policy applicable in 2017, how much Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) is permitted in the defence sector in India?

(a)49 per cent through the automatic route
(b)26 per cent through the government route
(c)26 per cent through the automatic route and beyond that up to 49 per cent through the government route
(d)75 per cent through the automatic route

Answer: (a) 49 per cent through the automatic route

This was the defence FDI limit set after the 2016 policy liberalisation, with higher stakes possible via government approval.

147.Int'l Relations & Defence

Which one of the following countries did NOT participate in the 21st edition of Exercise Malabar?

(a)United States of America
(b)Japan
(c)India
(d)Australia

Answer: (d) Australia

Malabar 2017 was held with India, Japan and the USA. Australia did not take part. It returned to the exercise only in 2020. So Australia is the answer.

148.Int'l Relations & Defence

Justice Dalveer Bhandari of India was recently re-elected to the International Court of Justice after Christopher Greenwood pulled out before 12th round of voting. Christopher Greenwood was a nominee of

(a)Canada
(b)Russia
(c)Britain
(d)USA

Answer: (c) Britain

Christopher Greenwood was the United Kingdom’s nominee. He withdrew before the twelfth round of voting. Dalveer Bhandari was then re-elected to the International Court of Justice. So Greenwood was a nominee of Britain.

149.Economy

In order to review the Income Tax Act, 1961 and to draft a new Direct Tax Law in consonance with economic needs of the country, the Government of India in November 2017 has constituted a Task Force. Who among the following is made the convenor of it?

(a)Shri Arvind Subramanian
(b)Shri Arbind Modi
(c)Shri Amitabh Kant
(d)Dr. Bibek Debroy

Answer: (b) Shri Arbind Modi

A CBDT Member, he was named convenor of the task force to draft a new Direct Tax Law.

150.Science & Tech

The 5th Global Conference on Cyber Space (GCCS) was held in New Delhi in November, 2017. Which of the following statements about GCCS is/are correct? 1. The 4th version of GCCS was held in London. 2. The main theme of GCCS 2017 is ‘Cyber4All: A Secure and Inclusive Cyberspace for Sustainable Development’. 3. ‘Bindu’ is the logo of GCCS 2017.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only

The fourth GCCS was held in The Hague, not London. London hosted the first one. The 2017 theme was “Cyber4All”. The logo was “Bindu”. So only statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Questions transcribed from the official NDA & NA Examination (I), 2018 question booklet (SRCY-U-ADN), General Ability Test paper. Hindi text omitted. Answers follow the official UPSC answer key (Series A). Two questions are marked because the key does not match the printed question.

NDA & NA (I) 2018 — General Ability Test (Full Question Paper)

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