General Knowledge — Full Question Paper
Which one of the following elements is used as a timekeeper in atomic clocks?
- (a)Potassium
- (b)Caesium
- (c)Calcium
- (d)Magnesium
Answer: (b) Caesium
Atomic clocks measure time using the extremely stable hyperfine transition frequency of caesium-133 atoms. View this question →
Which one of the following elements is involved in the control of water content of the blood?
- (a)Potassium
- (b)Lithium
- (c)Rubidium
- (d)Caesium
Answer: (a) Potassium
Along with sodium, it helps regulate fluid and electrolyte balance in the blood. View this question →
Which one of the following gases dissolves in water to give acidic solution?
- (a)Carbon dioxide
- (b)Oxygen
- (c)Nitrogen
- (d)Hydrogen
Answer: (a) Carbon dioxide
It reacts with water to form carbonic acid, making the solution mildly acidic. View this question →
Which one of the following elements is essential for the formation of chlorophyll in green plants?
- (a)Calcium
- (b)Iron
- (c)Magnesium
- (d)Potassium
Answer: (c) Magnesium
It sits at the centre of the chlorophyll molecule and is essential for its structure. View this question →
Consider the following chemical reaction : aFe2O3 (s) + bCO (g) → cFe (s) + dCO2. In the balanced chemical equation of the above, which of the following will be the values of the coefficients a, b, c and d respectively?
- (a)3, 2, 3, 1
- (b)1, 3, 2, 3
- (c)2, 3, 3, 1
- (d)3, 3, 2, 1
Answer: (b) 1, 3, 2, 3
Balancing the equation gives Fe2O3 + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO2. View this question →
Why is argon gas used along with tungsten wire in an electric bulb?
- (a)To increase the life of the bulb
- (b)To reduce the consumption of electricity
- (c)To make the emitted light colored
- (d)To reduce the cost of the bulb
Answer: (a) To increase the life of the bulb
The inert argon atmosphere slows the tungsten filament’s evaporation, letting it last longer. View this question →
Which one of the following is the correct relation between the Kelvin temperature (T) and the Celsius temperature (tc)?
- (a)These are two independent temperature scales
- (b)T = tc
- (c)T = tc − 273.15
- (d)T = tc + 273.15
Answer: (d) T = tc + 273.15
Adding 273.15 converts a Celsius reading to the Kelvin absolute temperature scale. View this question →
Sound waves cannot travel through a
- (a)copper wire placed in air
- (b)silver slab placed in air
- (c)glass prism placed in water
- (d)wooden hollow pipe placed in vacuum
Answer: (d) wooden hollow pipe placed in vacuum
Sound needs a material medium to propagate, and the vacuum inside the hollow pipe provides none. View this question →
Which one of the following is the value of one nanometer?
- (a)10⁻⁷ cm
- (b)10⁻⁶ cm
- (c)10⁻⁴ cm
- (d)10⁻³ cm
Answer: (a) 10⁻⁷ cm
One nanometre equals 10⁻⁹ metres, which converts to 10⁻⁷ centimetres. View this question →
Consider the following statements :
1. There is no net moment on a body which is in equilibrium.
2. The momentum of a body is always conserved.
3. The kinetic energy of an object is always conserved.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a)1, 2 and 3
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)1 and 2 only
- (d)1 only
Answer: (d) 1 only
A body in equilibrium indeed has zero net moment, but momentum is only conserved for isolated systems, and kinetic energy is conserved only in elastic collisions, not universally. View this question →
Working of safety fuses depends upon
1. magnetic effect of the current
2. chemical effect of the current
3. magnitude of the current
4. heating effect of the current
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1, 2, 3 and 4
- (b)1, 2 and 3 only
- (c)3 and 4 only
- (d)4 only
Answer: (c) 3 and 4 only
A fuse melts because excess current magnitude generates enough heat, relying purely on the heating effect, not magnetic or chemical effects. View this question →
Statement I : By far the most common topographic form in a Karst terrain is the sinkhole.
Statement II : Topographically, a sinkhole is a depression that varies in depth from less than a meter to few hundred meters.
- (a)Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
- (b)Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
- (c)Statement I is true but Statement II is false
- (d)Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Answer: (b) Both statements individually true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
Statement II just describes a sinkhole’s depth range, which doesn’t account for why sinkholes are the most common Karst landform. View this question →
Statement I : Incised meanders are formed in the mature stage of a river.
Statement II : Incised meanders are characterized by rejuvenation and upliftment of land.
- (a)Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
- (b)Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
- (c)Statement I is true but Statement II is false
- (d)Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Answer: (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Incised meanders actually form when a mature, meandering river is rejuvenated by land uplift and cuts downward, not simply during its mature stage. View this question →
Statement I : Portions of glacial troughs may exhibit remarkably flat floors.
Statement II : The flat floor in a glacial trough is produced by uniform glacial erosion.
- (a)Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
- (b)Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
- (c)Statement I is true but Statement II is false
- (d)Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Answer: (a) Both statements individually true, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
A glacier’s broad ice mass erodes its valley floor more uniformly across its width than a river does, producing the flat floors seen in glacial troughs. View this question →
Statement I : In Tundra climate, biodiversity is comparatively less.
Statement II : Tundra climate has less reproductive warm period.
- (a)Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
- (b)Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
- (c)Statement I is true but Statement II is false
- (d)Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Answer: (a) Both statements individually true, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
The short warm growing season in tundra climates limits reproduction and species diversity. View this question →
Statement I : Tides are the rise and fall of sea levels caused by the combined effects of the gravitational forces exerted by the Moon and the Sun and the rotation of the Earth.
Statement II : The Earth rotates from west to east.
- (a)Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
- (b)Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
- (c)Statement I is true but Statement II is false
- (d)Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Answer: (b) Both statements individually true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
Tides result from gravitational pull creating bulges, while the west-to-east rotation direction alone doesn’t account for why tides occur. View this question →
Statement I : A person may suffer from tuberculosis if she/he frequently visits crowded place.
Statement II : Bacteria of tuberculosis spread through droplets by sneezing or coughing.
- (a)Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
- (b)Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
- (c)Statement I is true but Statement II is false
- (d)Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Answer: (a) Both statements individually true, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
Crowded places raise TB risk precisely because the bacteria spread through airborne droplets from coughing or sneezing. View this question →
Statement I : Bioaccumulation is a process of progressive accumulation of heavy metals and pesticides in an organism.
Statement II : Large fishes of the pond are found to have higher concentration of pesticides than planktons of the same pond.
- (a)Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
- (b)Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
- (c)Statement I is true but Statement II is false
- (d)Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Answer: (b) Both statements individually true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
Both facts are true, but they describe different processes: Statement I defines bioaccumulation (build-up within a single organism over time), while Statement II describes biomagnification (rising concentration moving up trophic levels) — a related but distinct phenomenon. Related: EnvEco0015 — Chemical Threats to Biodiversity.
Which one of the following is a true fish as per the biological system of classification?
- (a)Silverfish
- (b)Jellyfish
- (c)Cuttlefish
- (d)Flying fish
Answer: (d) Flying fish
It’s a genuine bony fish, unlike silverfish (an insect), jellyfish (a cnidarian), or cuttlefish (a mollusc). View this question →
In which one of the following types of connective tissues in animals does fat get stored?
- (a)Adipocyte
- (b)Chondrocyte
- (c)Osteocyte
- (d)Reticulocyte
Answer: (a) Adipocyte
These fat-storing cells make up adipose connective tissue. View this question →
Which one of the following pairs about organ/part that helps in locomotion is not correctly matched?
- (a)Euglena : Flagellum
- (b)Paramecium : Cilia
- (c)Nereis : Pseudopodia
- (d)Starfish : Tubefeet
Answer: (c) Nereis : Pseudopodia
Nereis, an annelid worm, actually moves using parapodia, not pseudopodia. View this question →
Lysosome is formed from which of the following cell organelles?
- (a)Nucleus
- (b)Endoplasmic reticulum
- (c)Golgi bodies
- (d)Ribosomes
Answer: (c) Golgi bodies
They package hydrolytic enzymes into vesicles that become lysosomes. View this question →
A protein is synthesized in the endoplasmic reticulum bound ribosomes and it targets to the inner thylakoid space of chloroplast. How many double-layered membrane layers it has to pass to reach its destination?
- (a)2
- (b)3
- (c)4
- (d)5
Answer: (b) 3
The protein must cross the chloroplast’s outer envelope membrane, its inner envelope membrane, and finally the thylakoid membrane to reach the thylakoid lumen. View this question →
Which of the following causes adiabatic temperature changes in atmosphere?
- (a)Deflection and advection
- (b)Latent heat of condensation
- (c)Expansion and compression of the air
- (d)Partial absorption of solar radiation by the atmosphere
Answer: (c) Expansion and compression of the air
Adiabatic changes happen purely from volume changes as air rises or sinks, without any heat being added or removed. View this question →
Which one of the following is applicable to collision-coalescence process of precipitation?
- (a)Clouds which do not extend beyond the freezing level
- (b)Clouds which extend beyond the freezing level
- (c)All types of clouds
- (d)Cirrocumulus cloud
Answer: (a) Clouds which do not extend beyond the freezing level
This warm-rain process relies purely on liquid droplets colliding and merging, with no ice crystal involvement. View this question →
Which one of the following places of India experiences highest atmospheric pressure during winter?
- (a)Jaisalmer
- (b)Leh
- (c)Chennai
- (d)Guwahati
Answer: (a) Jaisalmer
North-western India’s cold, dry winter air forms a high-pressure cell over the desert region, higher than the reduced pressure seen at high-altitude Leh or the warmer coastal cities. View this question →
| List I | List II |
|---|---|
| A. Planetesimal hypothesis | 1. Kober |
| B. Thermal contraction theory | 2. Chamberlin |
| C. Geosynclinal Orogen theory | 3. Daly |
| D. Hypothesis of sliding continent | 4. Jeffreys |
Code :
| A | B | C | D | |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (a) | 2 | 4 | 1 | 3 |
| (b) | 2 | 1 | 4 | 3 |
| (c) | 3 | 1 | 4 | 2 |
| (d) | 3 | 4 | 1 | 2 |
Answer: (a) A-2 B-4 C-1 D-3
Chamberlin proposed the planetesimal hypothesis, Jeffreys the thermal contraction theory, Kober the geosynclinal orogen theory, and Daly the sliding continent hypothesis. View this question →
Bright light is found to emit from photographer’s flashgun. This brightness is due to the presence of which one of the following noble gases?
- (a)Argon
- (b)Xenon
- (c)Neon
- (d)Helium
Answer: (b) Xenon
Xenon flash lamps produce the brief, intense burst of light used in camera flashguns. View this question →
Which one of the following is not a characteristic of a compound?
- (a)Composition is variable.
- (b)All particles of compound are of only one type.
- (c)Particles of compound have two or more elements.
- (d)Its constituents cannot be separated by simple physical methods.
Answer: (a) Composition is variable.
Compounds actually have a fixed, definite composition by mass, unlike mixtures whose composition can vary. View this question →
Which of the following substances cause temporary hardness in water?
1. Mg(HCO3)2
2. Ca(HCO3)2
3. CaCl2
4. MgSO4
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)3 and 4
- (b)2 and 3
- (c)1 and 4
- (d)1 and 2
Answer: (d) 1 and 2
Dissolved calcium and magnesium bicarbonates cause temporary hardness, which boiling removes; chloride and sulphate salts cause permanent hardness instead. View this question →
Which one of the following elements will be an isobar of calcium if the atomic number of calcium is 20 and its mass number is 40?
- (a)Element with 20 protons and 18 neutrons
- (b)Element with 18 protons and 19 neutrons
- (c)Element with 20 protons and 19 neutrons
- (d)Element with 18 protons and 22 neutrons
Answer: (d) Element with 18 protons and 22 neutrons
Its mass number of 40 matches calcium’s, but its different atomic number of 18 makes it an isobar rather than an isotope. View this question →
Which of the following represents a relation for ‘heat lost = heat gained’?
- (a)Principle of thermal equilibrium
- (b)Principle of colors
- (c)Principle of calorimetry
- (d)Principle of vaporization
Answer: (c) Principle of calorimetry
It states that heat lost by a hotter body equals heat gained by a cooler body in an isolated system. View this question →
Two metallic wires made from copper have same length but the radius of wire 1 is half of that of wire 2. The resistance of wire 1 is R. If both the wires are joined together in series, the total resistance becomes
- (a)2R
- (b)R/2
- (c)5R/4
- (d)3R/4
Answer: (c) 5R/4
Wire 2’s double radius gives it four times the cross-sectional area, so its resistance is R/4; adding it to wire 1’s resistance R in series gives 5R/4. View this question →
When the Sun is near the horizon during the morning or evening, it appears reddish. The phenomenon that is responsible for this observation is
- (a)reflection of light
- (b)refraction of light
- (c)dispersion of light
- (d)scattering of light
Answer: (d) scattering of light
Sunlight travels through more atmosphere at sunrise and sunset, scattering away shorter blue wavelengths and leaving the longer red wavelengths visible. View this question →
| List I | List II |
|---|---|
| A. Cirrus | 1. Rain-giving |
| B. Stratus | 2. Feathery appearance |
| C. Nimbus | 3. Vertically growing |
| D. Cumulus | 4. Horizontally spreading |
Code :
| A | B | C | D | |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (a) | 3 | 1 | 4 | 2 |
| (b) | 2 | 1 | 4 | 3 |
| (c) | 2 | 4 | 1 | 3 |
| (d) | 3 | 4 | 1 | 2 |
Answer: (c) A-2 B-4 C-1 D-3
Cirrus clouds have a feathery look, stratus clouds spread horizontally, nimbus clouds bring rain, and cumulus clouds grow vertically. View this question →
Which one of the following is not an exclusive right of the concerned coastal nations over Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ)?
- (a)Survey and exploitation of mineral resources of ocean deposits
- (b)Exploitation of marine water energy and marine organisms including fishing
- (c)Conservation and management of marine resources
- (d)Navigation of ships and laying down submarine cables
Answer: (d) Navigation of ships and laying down submarine cables
Under UNCLOS, a coastal state has exclusive rights over resources — minerals, energy, fishing, and conservation — within its EEZ. But navigation and laying submarine cables remain freedoms open to all states, even inside another country’s EEZ. Related: IndGeo0044 — India’s Continental Shelf and Exclusive Economic Zone.
In which one of the following groups of States in India is the Integrated Coastal Zone Management (ICZM) Project being implemented as a pilot investment?
- (a)Gujarat, Kerala and Goa
- (b)Kerala, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
- (c)Gujarat, Odisha and West Bengal
- (d)Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu
Answer: (c) Gujarat, Odisha and West Bengal
These three states were chosen for the World Bank-assisted ICZM pilot project. View this question →
Which of the following statements about the National Water Academy (NWA) is/are correct?
1. The primary objective of the NWA is to function as Centre of Excellence in training for in-service engineers from Central and State organizations on various aspects of water resource planning.
2. The NWA is located in New Delhi.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
The National Water Academy does train engineers in water resource planning, but it’s located in Khadakwasla, Pune, not New Delhi. View this question →
A wire of copper having length l and area of cross-section A is taken and a current I is flown through it. The power dissipated in the wire is P. If we take an aluminium wire having same dimensions and pass the same current through it, the power dissipated will be
- (a)P
- (b)< P
- (c)> P
- (d)2P
Answer: (c) > P
Aluminium has higher resistivity than copper, so for the same dimensions and current, it dissipates more power (P = I2R). View this question →
The pressure of a fluid varies with depth h as P = P0 + ρgh, where ρ is the fluid density. This expression is associated with
- (a)Pascal’s law
- (b)Newton’s law
- (c)Bernoulli’s principle
- (d)Archimedes’ principle
Answer: (a) Pascal’s law
This standard hydrostatic pressure formula describes how fluid pressure increases with depth. View this question →
Consider the following constituent gases of the atmosphere :
1. Argon
2. Neon
3. Helium
4. Carbon dioxide
Which one of the following is the correct ascending sequence of the above gases in terms of the volume percentage?
- (a)1-3-2-4
- (b)1-4-2-3
- (c)4-2-3-1
- (d)2-4-1-3
Answer: (b) 1-4-2-3
By volume, Argon (about 0.93%) is the most abundant of these four trace gases, followed by carbon dioxide, then neon, then helium as the least abundant. View this question →
Which one of the following Indian States has the highest percentage of Scheduled Tribe population to its total population?
- (a)Mizoram
- (b)Nagaland
- (c)Meghalaya
- (d)Arunachal Pradesh
Answer: (a) Mizoram
Over 94% of its population is Scheduled Tribe, the highest share of any Indian state. View this question →
Extrusive volcanoes are not found in which one of the following mountains?
- (a)Alaska
- (b)Rocky
- (c)Andes
- (d)Himalayas
Answer: (d) Himalayas
Formed by continental collision rather than subduction, they lack the active extrusive volcanism seen in the Andes, Rockies, and Alaska Range. View this question →
Which one of the following crops is not cultivated in Karewas, the lacustrine deposits of sand, clay, loam, silt and boulders?
- (a)Saffron
- (b)Almond
- (c)Walnut
- (d)Ling nut
Answer: (d) Ling nut
Saffron, almond, and walnut are all genuinely grown on the elevated, well-drained karewa terraces. Ling nut (water chestnut) is an aquatic crop, harvested instead from Kashmir’s lakes and wetlands like Wular and Manasbal, not from karewas. Related: IndGeo0005 — Karewas of Kashmir.
Consider the following tributaries of river Ganga :
1. Gandak
2. Kosi
3. Ghaghara
4. Gomti
Which one of the following is the correct order of the above rivers from east to west?
- (a)3-4-1-2
- (b)2-1-3-4
- (c)2-3-1-4
- (d)1-2-4-3
Answer: (b) 2-1-3-4 (Kosi-Gandak-Ghaghara-Gomti)
Moving west from the Kosi’s confluence near the Bengal-Bihar border, the Gandak, then Ghaghara, then Gomti join the Ganga progressively further upstream. View this question →
Which of the following National Parks of India are declared as World Heritage by UNESCO?
1. Keoladeo National Park
2. Sundarbans National Park
3. Kaziranga National Park
4. Ranthambore National Park
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)1, 2 and 3 only
- (c)3 and 4 only
- (d)1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
Keoladeo National Park (Rajasthan), Sundarbans, and Kaziranga are UNESCO World Heritage Sites, but Ranthambore is not on that list. So the correct answer is 1, 2 and 3 only.
Related: GK0040 – Rajasthan
Also related: EnvEco0012 — Conservation of Natural Resources · IndGeo0037 — The Sundarbans
| List I | List II |
|---|---|
| A. North Central | 1. Secunderabad |
| B. North Eastern | 2. Jabalpur |
| C. West Central | 3. Gorakhpur |
| D. South Central | 4. Allahabad |
Code :
| A | B | C | D | |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (a) | 4 | 3 | 2 | 1 |
| (b) | 4 | 2 | 3 | 1 |
| (c) | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
| (d) | 1 | 3 | 2 | 4 |
Answer: (a) A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1
North Central Railway is headquartered at Allahabad, North Eastern at Gorakhpur, West Central at Jabalpur, and South Central at Secunderabad. View this question →
Which one of the following statements about lymph is correct?
- (a)Lymph is formed due to leakage of blood through capillaries.
- (b)Lymph contains blood cells such as RBC.
- (c)Lymph is also circulated by the blood circulating heart.
- (d)Lymph only transports hormones.
Answer: (a) Lymph is formed due to leakage of blood through capillaries.
Unlike blood, lymph lacks RBCs, isn’t pumped by the heart, and carries more than just hormones. View this question →
Which of the following classes of animals has/have three-chambered heart?
- (a)Pisces and Amphibia
- (b)Amphibia and Reptilia
- (c)Reptilia only
- (d)Amphibia only
Answer: (b) Amphibia and Reptilia
Both groups (except crocodilians) have a three-chambered heart, unlike fish’s two-chambered heart. View this question →
Accumulation of which one of the following in the muscles of sprinters leads to cramp?
- (a)Lactic acid
- (b)Ethanol
- (c)Pyruvic acid
- (d)Glucose
Answer: (a) Lactic acid
During intense sprinting, muscles respire anaerobically, building up lactic acid that causes fatigue and cramping. View this question →
Which one of the following statements about Exchange-Traded Fund (ETF) is not correct?
- (a)It is a marketable security.
- (b)It experiences price changes throughout the day.
- (c)It typically has lower daily liquidity and higher fees than mutual fund shares.
- (d)An ETF does not have its net asset value calculated once at the end of every day.
Answer: (c) It typically has lower daily liquidity and higher fees than mutual fund shares.
ETFs actually tend to have higher daily liquidity, since they trade like stocks throughout the day, and lower fees than typical mutual funds. View this question →
Which one of the following is the maximum age of joining National Pension System (NPS) under the NPS-Private Sector?
- (a)55 years
- (b)60 years
- (c)65 years
- (d)70 years
Answer: (c) 65 years
As of this exam’s period, the NPS-Private Sector allowed enrolment up to age 65. View this question →
The Reserve Bank of India has recently constituted a high-level task force on Public Credit Registry (PCR) to suggest a road map for developing a transparent, comprehensive and near-real-time PCR for India. The task force is headed by
- (a)Sekar Karnam
- (b)Vishakha Mulye
- (c)Sriram Kalyanaraman
- (d)Y. M. Deosthalee
Answer: (d) Y. M. Deosthalee
The RBI-appointed task force on the Public Credit Registry was chaired by this former L&T Finance Holdings chairman. View this question →
In October 2017, India sent its first shipment of wheat to Afghanistan as a part of commitment made by the Government of India to supply 1.1 million tonnes of wheat to that country on grant basis. The shipment was sent through
- (a)Iran
- (b)Pakistan
- (c)Tajikistan
- (d)China
Answer: (a) Iran
India routed the wheat shipment via Iran’s Chabahar port since Pakistan denied direct land transit to Afghanistan. View this question →
Which of the following statements about the India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) is/are correct?
1. It has been incorporated as a Public Limited Company.
2. It started its operation by establishing two pilot branches at Hyderabad and Varanasi.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: IPPB is genuinely incorporated as a Public Limited Company, wholly owned by the Department of Posts. Statement 2 is wrong: IPPB actually launched its two pilot branches at Raipur and Ranchi, on 30 January 2017, not Hyderabad and Varanasi.
Related: IndEco0139 — The Nachiket Mor Committee and Financial Inclusion
Which of the following are the functions of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)?
1. Inquiry at its own initiative on the violation of human rights
2. Inquiry on a petition presented to it by a victim
3. Visit to jails to study the condition of the inmates
4. Undertaking and promoting research in the field of human rights
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)2, 3 and 4 only
- (c)1, 3 and 4 only
- (d)1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
All four are genuine NHRC functions under the Protection of Human Rights Act: suo motu inquiry, petition-based inquiry, jail visits, and research promotion. View this question →
A person is disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a Member of either House of the Parliament if the person
1. holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State other than an office declared by the Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder
2. is an undischarged insolvent
3. is so disqualified under the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution of India
4. is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent Court
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1, 2 and 4 only
- (b)1, 2, 3 and 4
- (c)3 and 4 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3 only
Answer: (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Article 102 lists all four as valid grounds for disqualifying a Member of Parliament. View this question →
According to the Election Commission of India, in order to be recognized as a ‘National Party’, a political party must be treated as a recognized political party in how many States?
- (a)At least two States
- (b)At least three States
- (c)At least four States
- (d)At least five States
Answer: (c) At least four States
This is one of three routes to National Party status: recognition as a State Party in 4 or more states. The other two routes are winning 2% of Lok Sabha seats from 3+ states, or polling 6% of votes in 4+ states while winning 4 Lok Sabha seats. A party needs only one of the three. Source: The Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, official text.
Related: Polity0109 — Political Parties in India: Recognition, Symbols and the Party System
Which one of the following statements with regard to Antrix Corporation Limited is correct?
- (a)It is a commercial arm of the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion.
- (b)It is under the administrative control of the Department of Space.
- (c)It is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
- (d)It is a commercial arm of the Department of Science and Technology.
Answer: (b) It is under the administrative control of the Department of Space.
Antrix Corporation is ISRO’s commercial arm, marketing India’s space products and services. View this question →
Verses ascribed to poet-saint Kabir have been compiled in which of the following traditions?
1. Bijak in Varanasi
2. Kabir Granthavali in Rajasthan
3. Adi Granth Sahib
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)1, 2 and 3
- (c)2 and 3 only
- (d)3 only
Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 3
Kabir’s verses were compiled by three separate traditions, not one: the Bijak by the Kabirpanth of Varanasi, the Kabir Granthavali by the Dadupanth of Rajasthan, and the Adi Granth Sahib, the Sikh scripture. All three compilations survive.
Source: Wikipedia, Bijak. Related: ArtnCulture0036 — The Bhakti Movement.
Around twelfth century, Sufi Silsilas began to crystallize in different parts of the Islamic world to signify
1. continuous link between the master and disciple
2. unbroken spiritual genealogy to the Prophet Muhammad
3. the transmission of spiritual power and blessings to devotees
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)1 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Silsila, Arabic for chain, describes a Sufi order’s spiritual genealogy back to the Prophet Muhammad. It signified a continuous master-disciple link, an unbroken chain to the Prophet, and a channel through which spiritual power (barakah) passed to devotees. All three orders active in medieval India, including the Suhrawardis, organised themselves this way. Related: MedHist0034 — The Suhrawardi Order of Sufism.
Related: WorldHist0049 — Learning and Culture in the Islamic World, covering Sufism’s origins in the wider Islamic world before individual silsilas like this one formed.
In the 10th Mandala of the Rigveda, which one of the following hymns reflects upon the marriage ceremonies?
- (a)Surya Sukta
- (b)Purusha Sukta
- (c)Dana Stutis
- (d)Uma Sutra
Answer: (a) Surya Sukta
The Surya Sukta, Rigveda 10.85, describes the marriage of Surya, the sun god’s daughter, to the moon god Soma. It is one of the earliest references to marriage ceremonies in Vedic literature, and many of its verses are still recited during Hindu weddings today.
Source: Rig Veda 10.85, English translation, Wisdom Library. Related: ArtnCulture0035 — Vedic Literature: From Hymns to Philosophy, AncHist0095 — The Rigveda.
Which of the following statements about the Non-Cooperation Movement is/are correct?
1. It was marked by significant participation of peasants from Karnataka.
2. It was marked by non-Brahmin lower caste participation in Madras and Maharashtra.
3. It was marked by the lack of labour unrest in places like Assam, Bengal and Madras.
4. It was badly shaken by the Chauri Chaura incident in 1922 after which Gandhiji decided to continue with the movement on a much smaller scale.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 only
- (b)1, 2 and 4
- (c)2 and 3
- (d)2 only
Answer: (d) 2 only
Karnataka’s peasant participation was relatively limited compared to the later Civil Disobedience phase. Assam, Bengal, and Madras actually saw intense labour unrest (jute mills, Buckingham and Carnatic Mills, tea plantations), not an absence of it. After Chauri Chaura, Gandhi withdrew the movement entirely, not shrunk it to a smaller scale.
Which one of the following was a focus country of the ‘World Food India’, a mega food event held in November 2017 in New Delhi?
- (a)Germany
- (b)Japan
- (c)Denmark
- (d)Italy
Answer: (d) Italy
Germany, Japan, and Denmark were designated Partner Countries at World Food India 2017, while Italy (along with the Netherlands) held Focus Country status.
Which one of the following States will host the Nobel Prize Series—India 2018 (Science Impacts Life) Exhibition?
- (a)Gujarat
- (b)Rajasthan
- (c)Goa
- (d)Madhya Pradesh
Answer: (c) Goa
The exhibition ‘The Nobel Prize: Ideas Changing the World’ opened in Goa on 1 February 2018, inaugurated at Kala Academy as part of the Nobel Prize Series India 2018.
The Ministry of Communication has recently launched a Pan India scholarship programme for school-children called ‘Deen Dayal SPARSH Yojana’. The objective of the scheme is to increase the reach of
- (a)sports
- (b)philately
- (c)music
- (d)web designing
Answer: (b) philately
SPARSH (Scholarship for Promotion of Aptitude and Research in Stamps as a Hobby) encourages school children to take up stamp collecting. View this question →
Which one of the following temples of India has won the ‘UNESCO Asia Pacific Award of Merit, 2017’ for cultural heritage conservation?
- (a)Kamakhya Temple, Guwahati
- (b)Sri Ranganathaswami Temple, Srirangam
- (c)Meenakshi Temple, Madurai
- (d)Kedarnath Temple, Kedarnath
Answer: (b) Sri Ranganathaswami Temple, Srirangam
It won this award for its restoration work, including reviving traditional building methods and its historic rainwater harvesting and drainage systems.
Which one of the following teams was defeated by India to win the Women’s Hockey Asia Cup title, 2017?
- (a)Japan
- (b)China
- (c)South Korea
- (d)Pakistan
Answer: (b) China
India defeated China in the final to win the Women Hockey Asia Cup title in 2017. It was the second Asia Cup title for India and a landmark for women hockey in the country.
Related: GK0038 – Women’s Sports in India
Which one of the following statements about India is not correct?
- (a)India has 12 major ports and about 200 non-major ports.
- (b)95 percent of India’s trade by volume and 68 percent by value are moved through maritime transport.
- (c)India has a coastline of about 7500 km.
- (d)In the Maritime Agenda, 2010–2020, a target of 300 MT port capacity has been set for the year 2020.
Answer: (d) In the Maritime Agenda, 2010–2020, a target of 300 MT port capacity has been set for the year 2020.
The Maritime Agenda 2010-2020 actually targeted a much higher port capacity, well over 3000 MT, by 2020. View this question →
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
- (a)India joined MTCR in 2016.
- (b)India submitted a formal application for membership of the NSG in 2016.
- (c)India proposed the Comprehensive Convention on International Terrorism in 1996.
- (d)The Commonwealth Heads of Government Meeting (CHOGM) was held in 2016 at Malta.
Answer: (d) The Commonwealth Heads of Government Meeting (CHOGM) was held in 2016 at Malta.
Malta actually hosted the Commonwealth Heads of Government Meeting in November 2015, not 2016. View this question →
Which one of the following Amendments to the Constitution of India has prescribed that the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15 percent of total number of members of the House of the People or Legislative Assembly in the States?
- (a)91st Amendment
- (b)87th Amendment
- (c)97th Amendment
- (d)90th Amendment
Answer: (a) 91st Amendment
It capped Council of Ministers size at 15% of house strength to curb bloated cabinets. View this question →
Which of the following about the role of Indian Coast Guard is/are correct?
1. Indian Coast Guard has been entrusted with the offshore security coordination authority
2. Lead intelligence agency for coastal and sea border
3. Coastal security in territorial waters
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 and 3 only
- (b)1, 2 and 3
- (c)1 and 2 only
- (d)3 only
Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only
The Coast Guard coordinates offshore security and secures territorial waters, but it isn’t the lead intelligence agency for the coastal border, a role shared with other agencies. View this question →
Which one of the following is India’s first indigenously designed and developed long-range subsonic cruise missile which can be deployed from multiple platforms?
- (a)Astra
- (b)Akash
- (c)Nirbhay
- (d)Shankhnaad
Answer: (c) Nirbhay
Nirbhay is India’s indigenously designed, long-range subsonic cruise missile, with a strike range of over 1,000 km. It can be launched from land, sea, or air platforms, and can carry either conventional or nuclear warheads.
The Ministry of Power, Government of India has recently constituted a Committee to investigate the causes of the accident that occurred on 1st November, 2017 at Feroze Gandhi Thermal Power Plant Ltd., Unchahar, in Uttar Pradesh. Who among the following is the Chairman of the Committee?
- (a)Dr. L. D. Papney
- (b)Shri Dhawal Prakash Antapurkar
- (c)Shri Subir Chakraborty
- (d)Shri P. D. Siwal
Answer: (d) Shri P. D. Siwal
Member (Thermal) at the Central Electricity Authority, he chaired the committee. The other three named individuals were committee members, not the chairman.
In November 2017, an Indian short film, The School Bag won the Best Short Film Award at the South Asian Film Festival held at Montreal. Who among the following is the Director of the film?
- (a)Anurag Kashyap
- (b)Dheeraj Jindal
- (c)Sujoy Ghosh
- (d)Samvida Nanda
Answer: (b) Dheeraj Jindal
He co-directed The School Bag with Anshul Agrawal. The film, set in Peshawar, follows a mother and son ahead of the 2014 Peshawar school attack.
In November 2017, India’s MC Mary Kom won the gold medal at the Asian Boxing Championship, 2017 held at Ho Chi Minh City in Vietnam. In which one of the following categories was she declared winner?
- (a)48 kg
- (b)51 kg
- (c)54 kg
- (d)57 kg
Answer: (a) 48 kg
Mary Kom won gold in the light flyweight (48 kg) category at the 2017 Asian Boxing Championships. View this question →
Which one of the following is the theme of the World Soil Day, 2017?
- (a)Soils and pulses, a symbol for life
- (b)Caring for the Planet starts from the Ground
- (c)Soils, a solid ground for life
- (d)Soils, foundation for family farming
Answer: (b) Caring for the Planet starts from the Ground
This was the official theme of World Soil Day 2017. View this question →
Who among the following is the winner of the National Badminton Championship (Men), 2017?
- (a)Kidambi Srikanth
- (b)H. S. Prannoy
- (c)Ajay Jayaram
- (d)Sai Praneeth
Answer: (b) H. S. Prannoy
He beat Kidambi Srikanth 21-15, 16-21, 21-7 in the final at Nagpur, his first win over Srikanth since 2011.
Which of the following statements about the usage of the term ‘barbarian’ is/are correct?
1. It is derived from the Greek word ‘barbaros’ which means a non-Greek.
2. Romans used the term for the Germanic tribes, the Gauls and the Huns.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
The Greek ‘barbaros’ originally meant any non-Greek speaker, and Romans later extended it to describe Germanic tribes, Gauls, and Huns. View this question →
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
- (a)Al-Biruni identifies the Sufi doctrine of divine love as self-annihilation with parallel passages from Bhagavad Gita.
- (b)According to Al-Biruni, Sufi theories of Soul were similar to those in Patanjali’s Yoga Sutra.
- (c)The Hatha Yogic treatise Amrita Kunda had lasting impact on Sufism.
- (d)Hujwiri’s conversation with the Yogis shows that he was impressed with their theory of the division of the human body.
Answer: (c) The Hatha Yogic treatise Amrita Kunda had lasting impact on Sufism
This claim is not correct. Amrita Kunda is not documented as having had a lasting influence on Sufism, unlike the other three genuinely supported comparisons drawn between Sufi and Yogic thought.
Consider the following statement : “So much is wrung from the peasants, that even dry bread is scarcely left to fill their stomachs.” Who among the following European travellers had made the above statement about the condition of peasantry in the Mughal Empire?
- (a)Francisco Pelsaert
- (b)Francois Bernier
- (c)Jean-Baptiste Tavernier
- (d)Niccolao Manucci
Answer: (b) Francois Bernier
This vivid line about peasant exploitation comes from his travel account of Mughal India. View this question →
What is the name of the literary genre developed by the Khojas who are a branch of the Ismaili sect?
- (a)Ginan
- (b)Ziyarat
- (c)Raag
- (d)Shahada
Answer: (a) Ginan
These devotional hymns form the distinctive religious literature of the Nizari Ismaili Khoja community. View this question →
Who was/were the 10th century composer(s) of the Nalayira Divya Prabandham?
- (a)Alvars
- (b)Nayanars
- (c)Appar
- (d)Sambandar
Answer: (a) Alvars
These Vaishnava saint-poets composed the hymns later compiled as the Nalayira Divya Prabandham. View this question →
Which one of the following is not a correct ascending order of commissioned ranks in the defence forces of India?
- (a)Lieutenant, Captain, Major, Lieutenant Colonel, Colonel, Brigadier, Major General, Lieutenant General, General
- (b)Flying Officer, Flight Lieutenant, Squadron Leader, Wing Commander, Group Captain, Air Commodore, Air Vice Marshal, Air Marshal, Air Chief Marshal
- (c)Flying Officer, Flight Lieutenant, Squadron Leader, Group Captain, Wing Commander, Air Commodore, Air Vice Marshal, Air Marshal, Air Chief Marshal
- (d)Sub Lieutenant, Lieutenant, Lieutenant Commander, Commander, Captain, Commodore, Rear Admiral, Vice Admiral, Admiral
Answer: (c) the third option (Flying Officer…Group Captain, Wing Commander…)
It wrongly places Group Captain before Wing Commander; the correct Air Force order has Wing Commander ranking below Group Captain. View this question →
Which of the following statements about Attorney General of India is/are not correct?
1. He is the first Law Officer of the Government of India.
2. He is entitled to the privileges of a Member of the Parliament.
3. He is a whole-time counsel for the Government.
4. He must have the same qualifications as are required to be a judge of the Supreme Court.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1, 2 and 3
- (b)2 and 4
- (c)3 only
- (d)1 only
Answer: (c) 3 only
Unlike the Solicitor General, the Attorney General is not a whole-time government counsel and may maintain a private legal practice alongside the role. View this question →
Under which one of the following Amendment Acts was Sikkim admitted into the Union of India?
- (a)35th
- (b)36th
- (c)37th
- (d)38th
Answer: 36th
The 36th Amendment Act, 1975 made Sikkim a full state of India, repealing the 35th Amendment’s earlier “Associate State” arrangement.
Source: The Constitution (Thirty-sixth Amendment) Act, 1975, full text. Related: ModHist0034 — Sikkim’s 1975 Merger: From Chogyal to India’s 22nd State
Which one of the following became a part of China in 1997 following the principle of ‘one country, two systems’?
- (a)Tibet
- (b)Hong Kong
- (c)Xinjiang
- (d)Inner Mongolia
Answer: (b) Hong Kong
Britain handed it back to China in 1997 under this framework, letting it keep its own economic and legal system. View this question →
Which one of the following statements in respect of the States of India is not correct?
- (a)States in India cannot have their own Constitutions.
- (b)The State of Jammu and Kashmir has its own Constitution.
- (c)States in India do not have the right to secede from the Union of India.
- (d)The maximum number of members in the Council of Ministers of Delhi can be 15 percent of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly.
Answer: (a) States in India cannot have their own Constitutions.
Jammu and Kashmir, as this list itself notes, actually did have its own separate Constitution before its later abrogation. View this question →
Consider the following statements about National Wildlife Action Plan (NWAP) of India for 2017–2031 :
1. This is the Third National Wildlife Action Plan.
2. The NWAP is unique as this is the first time India has recognized the concerns relating to climate change impact on wildlife.
3. The NWAP has ten components.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a)1 only
- (b)1 and 2 only
- (c)2 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only
This is indeed India’s third NWAP, and the first to explicitly address climate change’s impact on wildlife, but it is built around three broad themes, not ten components. View this question →
Growth in production (in percent) of which one of the following core industries in India during the period 2015–2016 was negative?
- (a)Natural gas
- (b)Refinery products
- (c)Fertilizer
- (d)Coal
Answer: (a) Natural gas
Its output kept declining through the mid-2010s due to falling production from ageing KG basin fields. View this question →
eBiz is one of the integrated services projects and part of the 31 Mission Mode Projects (MMPs) under the National e-Governance Plan of the Government of India. eBiz is being implemented under the guidance and aegis of the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion, Ministry of Commerce and Industry by
- (a)Tata Consultancy Services
- (b)Infosys Technologies Limited
- (c)Wipro
- (d)HCL Technologies
Answer: (b) Infosys Technologies Limited
the implementing partner for the eBiz single-window portal for business and investment clearances. View this question →
Which of the following statements about the olive ridley turtles is/are correct?
1. They are the smallest and most abundant of all sea turtles found in the world.
2. They live in warm waters of Pacific, Atlantic and Indian Oceans.
3. The Coromandel Coast in India is the largest mass nesting site for the olive ridley turtles.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1, 2 and 3
- (b)1 and 2 only
- (c)2 and 3 only
- (d)1 only
Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only
Olive ridleys are indeed the smallest and most abundant sea turtles, found across three oceans, but their largest mass nesting site in India is Gahirmatha in Odisha, not the Coromandel Coast. View this question →
Consider the following statement : “A sound body means one which bends itself to the spirit and is always a ready instrument at its service.” The above statement is attributed to
- (a)Sardar Patel
- (b)Winston Churchill
- (c)Mahatma Gandhi
- (d)Baden-Powell
Answer: (c) Mahatma Gandhi
This reflects his view that physical fitness should serve moral and spiritual purpose. View this question →
Who among the following was the founder of Phoenix Settlement?
- (a)Mahatma Gandhi
- (b)B. R. Ambedkar
- (c)Rabindranath Tagore
- (d)Swami Vivekananda
Answer: (a) Mahatma Gandhi
He established the Phoenix Settlement near Durban, South Africa, in 1904 as a communal, self-sufficient living experiment. View this question →
Name the platform used for ritual purposes by the kings of the Vijayanagara Empire.
- (a)Mahanavami Dibba
- (b)Lotus Mahal
- (c)Hazara Rama
- (d)Virupaksha
Answer: (a) Mahanavami Dibba
Also called the Dasara Dibba, this large stone platform at Hampi hosted the Vijayanagara kings’ Mahanavami/Navaratri ceremonies, including worship, a state-horse ritual, and animal sacrifice. Lotus Mahal, Hazara Rama, and Virupaksha are all real Vijayanagara-era structures, just not this ritual platform.
Related: MedHist0007 — Vijayanagara Empire: Founding to Krishnadeva Raya
The idea of ‘Farr-i Izadi’, on which the Mughal kingship was based, was first developed by which one of the following Sufi saints?
- (a)Shihabuddin Suhrawardi
- (b)Nizamuddin Auliya
- (c)Ibn al-Arabi
- (d)Bayazid Bistami
Answer: (c) Ibn al-Arabi
His concept of the ‘Perfect Man’ radiating divine light underpinned the theory of divine illumination that Mughal kingship drew upon. View this question →
Which Buddhist text contains an account of the Mauryan Emperor Ashoka?
- (a)Vinaya Pitaka
- (b)Sutta Pitaka
- (c)Abhidhamma Pitaka
- (d)Mahavamsa
Answer: (d) Mahavamsa
This Sri Lankan Pali chronicle gives a detailed account of Ashoka’s reign and his patronage of Buddhism. View this question →
Which one of the following statements about Buddhist Stupas in India is not correct?
- (a)Ashoka played an important role in popularizing the Stupa cult.
- (b)They were repositories of relics of Buddha and other monks.
- (c)They were located in rural areas.
- (d)They were located close to trade routes.
Answer: (c) They were located in rural areas.
They were typically sited near urban centres and trade routes, where merchants and travellers could patronise them. View this question →
Which one among the following States of India has the largest number of seats in its Legislative Assembly?
- (a)West Bengal
- (b)Bihar
- (c)Madhya Pradesh
- (d)Tamil Nadu
Answer: (a) West Bengal
Its Legislative Assembly has 294 seats, more than Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, or Tamil Nadu. View this question →
Which of the following statements about the Ordinance-making power of the Governor is/are correct?
1. It is a discretionary power.
2. The Governor himself is not competent to withdraw the Ordinance at any time.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
The ordinance power is exercised on ministerial advice, not at the Governor’s own discretion, and the Governor can in fact withdraw an ordinance at any time. View this question →
Which one of the following events is not correctly matched with the year in which it happened?
- (a)Inauguration of the SWIFT system of electronic interbank fund transfers worldwide—1985
- (b)Conclusion of the Uruguay Round of GATT—1994
- (c)Inauguration of the World Trade Organization—1995
- (d)Establishment of the first wholly electronic stock exchange (Nasdaq)—1971
Answer: (a) Inauguration of the SWIFT system of electronic interbank fund transfers worldwide—1985
SWIFT actually began operations in 1977, not 1985. View this question →
Consider the following statements about Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) :
1. ITBP was raised in 1962.
2. ITBP is basically a mountain trained force.
3. ITBP replaced Assam Rifles in Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh in 2004–2005 for border guarding duty.
4. ITBP presently has 52 service battalions.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a)1, 2 and 4 only
- (b)3 and 4 only
- (c)1, 2, 3 and 4
- (d)1, 2 and 3 only
Answer: (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
All four statements were correct at the time of this exam. ITBP was raised on 24 October 1962, right after the India-China war, as a mountain-trained force. It took over from Assam Rifles in Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh in 2004-2005, under a “One Border, One Force” policy adopted after Kargil. Its battalion count has since grown further; it stood at 52 service battalions around this exam’s own year. Source: ITBP, official History & Role page.
Which one of the following is not an International Human Rights Treaty?
- (a)International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights
- (b)Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against Women
- (c)Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities
- (d)Declaration on the Right to Development
Answer: (d) Declaration on the Right to Development
As a UN General Assembly declaration, it lacks the binding treaty status of the ICCPR, CEDAW, or the CRPD. View this question →
In the context of elections in India, which one of the following is the correct full form of VVPAT?
- (a)Voter Verifiable Poll Audit Trail
- (b)Voter Verifying Paper Audit Trail
- (c)Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail
- (d)Voter Verifiable Paper Account Trail
Answer: (c) Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail
The system letting voters confirm their vote was recorded correctly. View this question →
Which one of the following is not an objective of the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY)?
- (a)To achieve convergence of investment in irrigation at the field level
- (b)To expand cultivable area under irrigation
- (c)To improve on-farm water use efficiency to reduce wastage of water
- (d)To protect farmers against crop failure due to natural calamities
Answer: (d) To protect farmers against crop failure due to natural calamities
PMKSY focuses on irrigation: converging investment, expanding irrigated area and improving water-use efficiency. Protecting against crop failure is the job of crop insurance like PMFBY, not PMKSY.
Which one of the following statements about ‘Niryat Bandhu Scheme’ is correct?
- (a)It is a scheme for mentoring first generation entrepreneurs.
- (b)It is a scheme for crop protection.
- (c)It is a scheme for the vulnerable section of the society.
- (d)It is a scheme for monitoring rural poor.
Answer: (a) It is a scheme for mentoring first generation entrepreneurs.
Niryat Bandhu guides new exporters through the process of starting and growing an export business.
Which one of the following statements about the Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY) is not correct?
- (a)It is a placement-linked skill training programme exclusively for rural girls.
- (b)It aims to convert India’s demographic surplus into a demographic dividend.
- (c)The scheme aims to benefit more than 55 million poor rural folk.
- (d)It is a generational poverty alleviation programme.
Answer: (a) It is a placement-linked skill training programme exclusively for rural girls.
DDU-GKY is a placement-linked skilling scheme open to rural youth generally, not restricted to one gender. View this question →
Where is Hambantota Port located?
- (a)Iran
- (b)Sri Lanka
- (c)Japan
- (d)Pakistan
Answer: (b) Sri Lanka
Hambantota Port, on the island’s southern coast, is a significant Chinese-funded infrastructure project. View this question →
The projects under Coastal Berth Scheme of the flagship Sagarmala Programme are distributed over how many States?
- (a)Eight
- (b)Ten
- (c)Twelve
- (d)Fourteen
Answer: (a) Eight
The Coastal Berth Scheme’s projects span Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Gujarat, and West Bengal.
Which one of the following statements about the National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change is not correct?
- (a)The fund is meant to assist national and State level activities to meet the cost of adaptation measures.
- (b)This scheme has been taken as a Central Sector Scheme.
- (c)The Indian Council of Agricultural Research is the national implementing entity for the fund.
- (d)The scheme has been in force since 2015–2016.
Answer: (c) The Indian Council of Agricultural Research is the national implementing entity for the fund.
NABARD, not ICAR, is the actual National Implementing Entity for the NAFCC, handling project appraisal, fund disbursement, and monitoring. Related: EnvEco0002 — Climate Change, EIA and Renewable Energy.
‘SAMPRITI-2017’ is a joint military exercise between armed forces of India and
- (a)Bhutan
- (b)Bangladesh
- (c)Pakistan
- (d)Myanmar
Answer: (b) Bangladesh
Exercise SAMPRITI is a recurring joint military exercise between the Indian and Bangladesh armies. View this question →
The judgement of the Supreme Court of India in the Vishakha Case pertains to
- (a)sexual harassment in the workplace
- (b)Sati
- (c)dowry death
- (d)rape
Answer: (a) sexual harassment in the workplace
The 1997 Vishakha judgment laid down guidelines to protect women from workplace harassment, later codified into law. View this question →
The first BRICS Summit, after the inclusion of South Africa, was held at
- (a)Brasilia
- (b)Sanya
- (c)Yekaterinburg
- (d)Durban
Answer: (b) Sanya
After South Africa joined in December 2010, the third BRICS summit, held at Sanya in April 2011, was the first under the expanded five-nation grouping. View this question →
Who deciphered the Brahmi and Kharoshthi scripts?
- (a)Piyadassi
- (b)Colin Mackenzie
- (c)Alexander Cunningham
- (d)James Prinsep
Answer: (d) James Prinsep
James Prinsep deciphered the Brahmi script in 1837 and used the same method to read Kharoshthi the next year. Alexander Cunningham later became the first Director-General of the Archaeological Survey of India, but the decipherment itself was Prinsep’s work.
Related: AncHist0001 — Sources of Ancient Indian History: Archaeology and Epigraphy
Which of the following is/are the feature(s) of the Brahmadeya Grants during c 600–1200 AD?
1. Their creation meant a renunciation of actual or potential sources of revenue by the State.
2. These grants could vary from a small plot to several villages.
3. Most grants were made in unsettled areas.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)1 and 2 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only
Creating a Brahmadeya meant the state gave up actual or potential revenue from that land, and grants ranged from a single plot to whole villages, so statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is false: most Brahmadeya grants were made on already settled, fertile, cultivated land, not unsettled wasteland, since that land was more valuable and productive.
Related: MedHist0100 — Eripatti, Ghatikas, and Taniyurs: Chola-Era Land Terms
Who is the author of Manimekalai?
- (a)Kovalan
- (b)Sathanar
- (c)Ilango Adigal
- (d)Tirutakkatevar
Answer: (b) Sathanar
Manimekalai was composed by Sathanar (Seethalai Sathanar). Ilango Adigal instead wrote the companion epic Silappatikaram; Kovalan is a character within it, not an author.
Related: AncHist0025 — The Sangam Age: Literature and Society
Which one of the following statements about the Elephanta Island is correct?
- (a)It was given its name by the British after a large elephant structure located there.
- (b)It contains one large cave.
- (c)It is well-known for a spectacular carving of Vishnu described in the Vishnudharmottara Purana.
- (d)It is associated with the Pashupata sect.
Answer: (d) It is associated with the Pashupata sect
The Elephanta Caves were built under Pashupata Shaiva patronage, likely by the Kalachuri king Krishnaraja, a known Pashupata supporter. The island was named by Portuguese sailors, not the British; it holds several caves, not one; and its famous sculpture is the Sadashiva Trimurti, not a Vishnu carving.
Source: Elephanta Caves: Patronage and Religious Affiliations, Sahapedia. Related: AncHist0111 — Elephanta Caves.
Which of the following statements about Sir Syed Ahmad Khan is/are correct?
1. He argued that India was a federation of ethnic communities based on common descent.
2. His philosophy was very similar to that of the Indian National Congress.
3. He imagined India as a Nation State based on individual citizen’s rights.
4. The curriculum at the Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental College blended Muslim theology and European empiricism.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 and 3
- (c)3 only
- (d)1 and 4
Answer: (d) 1 and 4
Statements 1 and 4 are correct. Sir Syed’s later political thought described Hindus and Muslims as separate communities, or ‘nations,’ based on shared descent — the root of what later became the Two-Nation Theory. The Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental College’s own curriculum did blend Muslim theology with Western, empirical subjects.
Statements 2 and 3 are wrong. Sir Syed grew openly critical of the Indian National Congress, not aligned with it, and he never argued for an individual-citizen nation-state — his framework was communal, not individual.
Related: ModHist0011 — Deoband and Aligarh: Two Paths for Muslim Education · Sir Syed Ahmad Khan
Consider the following statements about impact of tax :
1. A tax is shifted forward to consumers if the demand is inelastic relative to supply.
2. A tax is shifted backward to producers if the supply is relatively more inelastic than demand.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Standard tax incidence theory holds that the less elastic side of the market bears more of the tax burden, whether that’s consumers facing inelastic demand or producers facing inelastic supply. View this question →
According to the law of diminishing marginal utility, as the amount of a good consumed increases, the marginal utility of that good tends to
- (a)improve
- (b)diminish
- (c)remain constant
- (d)first diminish and then improve
Answer: (b) diminish
Each extra unit of a good consumed yields less additional satisfaction than the unit before it, so marginal utility falls as consumption rises. View this question →
Related: Economy0006 — Basic Economic Concepts: Microeconomics
Questions transcribed from the official Combined Defence Services Examination (I), 2018 question booklet (SPSS-D-XHI/49A), General Knowledge paper. Hindi text omitted. Answer key not included.
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