General Knowledge — Full Question Paper
Which one among the following is not a micronutrient for plants?
- (a)Iron
- (b)Manganese
- (c)Magnesium
- (d)Chlorine
Answer: (c) Magnesium
Iron, manganese, and chlorine are needed by plants only in tiny amounts, so they are micronutrients. Magnesium is needed in much larger amounts, making it a macronutrient instead.
Xylem in the plants are responsible for the transport of:
- (a)Water
- (b)Water and dissolved minerals
- (c)Gases
- (d)Food
Answer: (b) Water and dissolved minerals
Xylem tissue carries water absorbed by the roots upward through the plant. It also carries the minerals that are dissolved in that water.
Which one among the following hormones inhibits the growth activity in plants?
- (a)Auxins
- (b)Cytokinins
- (c)Abscisic acid
- (d)Gibberellins
Answer: (c) Abscisic acid
Abscisic acid is known as the stress hormone because it inhibits growth and induces dormancy. Auxins, cytokinins, and gibberellins all promote growth instead.
Which of the following category of biomolecules does Starch belong to?
- (a)Protein
- (b)Carbohydrate
- (c)Lipid
- (d)Nucleic acid
Answer: (b) Carbohydrate
Starch is a polysaccharide, a large molecule built from many glucose units. This places it firmly in the carbohydrate category of biomolecules.
Which one among the following is not a feature of Xerophytes?
- (a)Smaller leaves
- (b)Large number of stomata
- (c)Waxy cuticle
- (d)Stomata in pits
Answer: (b) Large number of stomata
Xerophytes are desert plants adapted to save water, so they actually have fewer stomata, not more. Smaller leaves, waxy cuticles, and sunken stomata all genuinely help reduce water loss.
Halophytes are the plants that grow on which one, among the following categories of soil?
- (a)Acidic soil
- (b)Saline soil
- (c)Black soil
- (d)Sandy soil
Answer: (b) Saline soil
Halophytes are salt-tolerant plants that grow naturally in salty, saline soils. Mangroves are a well-known example of halophytes.
Which one among the following is not a part of vascular bundle in plants?
- (a)Phloem
- (b)Xylem
- (c)Cambium
- (d)Endodermis
Answer: (d) Endodermis
A vascular bundle is made up of xylem, phloem, and the cambium between them. The endodermis is a separate surrounding layer, not part of the bundle itself.
In which one among the following mediums would the speed of sound be maximum?
- (a)Distilled water
- (b)Sea water
- (c)Drinking water
- (d)Methanol
Answer: (b) Sea water
Sound travels faster through denser, more incompressible liquids. Sea water’s dissolved salts make it denser than distilled or drinking water, so sound moves fastest through it among these options.
Which organelle in animal cells can digest foreign materials?
- (a)Endoplasmic reticulum
- (b)Lysosome
- (c)Golgi body
- (d)Mitochondria
Answer: (b) Lysosome
Lysosomes contain digestive enzymes that break down foreign material and cellular waste. This is why they are sometimes called the cell’s suicide bags or digestive system.
Photosynthesis that converts light energy into chemical energy by the plants, involves the use of green pigments of leaves called chlorophyll. The only structure in a leaf that hosts chlorophyll is:
- (a)Nucleus
- (b)Ribosome
- (c)Chloroplast
- (d)Chromosome
Answer: (c) Chloroplast
Chlorophyll, the green pigment used in photosynthesis, is held inside the chloroplast. No other structure in a plant cell hosts this pigment.
In which of the following colloids is the dispersing medium a liquid?
- (a)Mist
- (b)Foam
- (c)Jelly
- (d)Shaving cream
Answer: (b) Foam
Foam is a colloid where gas bubbles are dispersed through a liquid, so the liquid is the dispersing medium. In mist, the dispersing medium is gas, and in jelly, it is a solid.
The two isotopes of elemental chlorine are (isotope notation: mass number superscript, atomic number subscript):
- (a)Chlorine-35 and Chlorine-36 (atomic number 17)
- (b)Chlorine-40 and Chlorine-54 (atomic number 17)
- (c)Chlorine-50 and Chlorine-52 (atomic number 17)
- (d)Chlorine-35 and Chlorine-37 (atomic number 17)
Answer: (d) Chlorine-35 and Chlorine-37 (atomic number 17)
Chlorine’s two naturally occurring isotopes have mass numbers 35 and 37, while both share the same atomic number, 17. Chlorine-35 is the more abundant of the two.
Which one among the following metals is not stored under oil?
- (a)Sodium
- (b)Rubidium
- (c)Potassium
- (d)Lithium
Answer: (d) Lithium
Lithium is less dense than kerosene oil, so it floats instead of staying submerged and protected. For this reason, lithium is usually kept under paraffin wax instead of oil, unlike sodium, potassium, and rubidium.
Potassium nitrate is not used:
- (a)as a fertilizer
- (b)in medicine
- (c)in making gunpowder
- (d)as a preservative of meat products
Answer: (d) as a preservative of meat products
Potassium nitrate is genuinely used as a fertilizer, in some medicines, and in making gunpowder. Meat preservation today mainly uses sodium nitrate or sodium nitrite instead.
The surface of the concrete structure of a new construction is covered with straw/gunny bags by wetting. This is done to:
- (a)prevent fast evaporation, until hydration has proceeded well
- (b)protect the concrete structure from contamination by dust particles
- (c)prevent development of any fungus on the surface
- (d)give smoother and cleaner surface over cement structure
Answer: (a) prevent fast evaporation, until hydration has proceeded well
Covering fresh concrete with wet gunny bags is a curing technique. It keeps the surface moist so the cement can properly hydrate and gain strength, instead of drying out too fast.
Which one among the following statements for the gases mentioned below is not correct?
- (a)Hydrogen has 3 isotopes.
- (b)Helium is a commonly used gas in electric bulbs.
- (c)Oxygen is used to burn fuel in rocket engines in spacecraft.
- (d)Nitrogen can be used in gaseous form to replace air in food packaging.
Answer: (b) Helium is a commonly used gas in electric bulbs.
Electric bulbs are commonly filled with argon or nitrogen gas, not helium. Hydrogen genuinely has 3 isotopes, oxygen is genuinely used to burn rocket fuel, and nitrogen is genuinely used in food packaging.
Match List-I (Trade Name) with List-II (Chemical Name) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I: A. Bleaching powder; B. Baking soda; C. Washing soda; D. Plaster of Paris. List-II: 1. Sodium bicarbonate; 2. Sodium carbonate, 10 water; 3. Calcium oxychloride; 4. Calcium sulphate, 1/2 water.
Code:
- (a)A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
- (b)A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
- (c)A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
- (d)A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
Answer: (a) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
Bleaching powder is calcium oxychloride, and baking soda is sodium bicarbonate. Washing soda is sodium carbonate with ten water molecules, and Plaster of Paris is calcium sulphate with half a water molecule.
Which one among the following statements is not true for glass?
- (a)Sodium silicate is known as water glass.
- (b)Glass is also called super cooled liquid.
- (c)Crystallinity develops on cooling of the molten mass of the glass.
- (d)Coloured glasses can be made by adding different colouring materials.
Answer: (c) Crystallinity develops on cooling of the molten mass of the glass.
Glass stays amorphous, without a regular crystal structure, even after its molten form cools down. This lack of crystallinity is exactly what makes glass different from a true crystalline solid.
Which one among the following is responsible for determining the chemical properties of an element?
- (a)Protons
- (b)Electrons
- (c)Neutrons
- (d)Nucleus
Answer: (b) Electrons
An element’s chemical behaviour depends on its electrons, especially the outermost valence electrons. Protons and neutrons affect the atom’s identity and mass, not its chemical reactions.
Which one among the following is used in bleaching of paper?
- (a)Chloride
- (b)Chlorobenzene
- (c)Ammonium chloride
- (d)Hydrochloric acid
Answer: (a) Chloride
Chlorine and its compounds, referred to here as ‘Chloride’, are the classic bleaching agents used in the paper industry. Chlorobenzene, ammonium chloride, and hydrochloric acid are not used for this purpose.
X-rays can be used to: 1. inspect welded joints between two metal parts of a machine; 2. study structure of crystals.
Select the answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
X-ray radiography is genuinely used to inspect welded metal joints for hidden flaws. X-ray diffraction is also genuinely used to study the structure of crystals.
Which one of the following heat transfers is an example of convection?
- (a)Heating of food in a microwave oven
- (b)Boiling water in a pot on a gas stove
- (c)Feeling the warmth in sun
- (d)Heating a brass rod at one end and observing the temperature rise at the other end
Answer: (b) Boiling water in a pot on a gas stove
Convection is heat transfer through the movement of a fluid itself. Water heated in a pot forms circulating currents, carrying heat through the liquid by convection.
The phenomenon of rainbow formation by water droplets involves:
- (a)single refraction of sunlight
- (b)one internal reflection of sunlight
- (c)two internal reflections of sunlight
- (d)both refraction and internal reflection of sunlight
Answer: (d) both refraction and internal reflection of sunlight
A rainbow forms as sunlight enters a water droplet and refracts, reflects once internally off the droplet’s back surface, and then refracts again on exit. This combination of refraction and internal reflection splits light into its colours.
Ozone hole is a region over:
- (a)the Antarctic caused mainly by CFC gases.
- (b)the Antarctic caused mainly by carbon dioxide gas.
- (c)the Arctic caused mainly by CFC gases.
- (d)the Arctic caused mainly by carbon dioxide gas.
Answer: (a) the Antarctic caused mainly by CFC gases.
The ozone hole forms mainly over Antarctica, where chlorofluorocarbon gases break down ozone molecules in the stratosphere. It is not primarily caused by carbon dioxide, and it is not over the Arctic.
Which of the following are the major missions of Indian Space Research Organization in 2023? 1. Chandrayaan-3; 2. Solar Mission Aditya-L1; 3. Liquid fuel powered rockets; 4. Solar powered rockets.
Select the answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)1, 2 and 3
- (c)3 and 4 only
- (d)1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Chandrayaan-3 (launched July 2023, landed near the Moon’s south pole in August 2023) and Aditya-L1 (India’s first solar observatory, launched September 2023) were genuine 2023 ISRO missions. Liquid-fuel propulsion is a technology ISRO uses across many rockets, not a mission itself, and solar-powered rockets do not exist — solar power runs satellite systems, not rocket propulsion.
Which one of the following is the most appropriate reason for aircraft being equipped with conducting tyres?
- (a)They can transfer the charge accumulated on their surfaces during lightning
- (b)They can transfer the charge accumulated on their surfaces being rubbed by air particles
- (c)They can transfer the charge accumulated on their surfaces due to inflight operation of several gadgets
- (d)For preventing sparks while they land on the ground
Answer: (d) For preventing sparks while they land on the ground
Aircraft build up static charge from friction with air during flight. Conducting tyres safely discharge this static electricity to the ground on landing, preventing dangerous sparks near fuel.
Which of the following statements for persons suffering from presbyopia is/are correct? 1. They cannot distinguish colours. 2. It usually develops with ageing. 3. They wear either bi-focal lenses consisting of both concave and convex lenses or progressive lenses.
Select the answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)1 and 3
- (d)2 and 3
Answer: (d) 2 and 3
Presbyopia is an age-related loss of near-focusing ability, so it genuinely develops with ageing and is often corrected with bifocal lenses combining concave and convex parts. It has nothing to do with distinguishing colours, so statement 1 is wrong.
A sound wave having frequency of 300 Hz is travelling in an unknown medium. Its wavelength is not known. It travels a distance equal to 150 times its wavelength in time t. The value of t is:
- (a)0.5 s
- (b)1 s
- (c)1.5 s
- (d)2 s
Answer: (a) 0.5 s
Speed equals frequency times wavelength, so distance divided by speed gives time. Since the distance is 150 wavelengths, the wavelength cancels out, leaving time equal to 150 divided by 300 Hz, which is 0.5 seconds.
Mission Shakti (DRDO) of India is related to which one among the following?
- (a)Launch of multiple satellites using a single rocket
- (b)Launch of heavy satellites
- (c)Use of high power rockets in launching of satellites
- (d)Use of rocket to destroy an orbiting satellite
Answer: (d) Use of rocket to destroy an orbiting satellite
Mission Shakti was India’s March 2019 anti-satellite (ASAT) missile test, in which DRDO destroyed a live Indian satellite in low Earth orbit, making India the fourth country to demonstrate this capability.
Related: SciTech0011 — DRDO
In Sun-Earth system, the Sun, the Earth and the Lagrange point L4 form:
- (a)an isosceles triangle
- (b)an equilateral triangle
- (c)a straight line
- (d)a scalene triangle
Answer: (b) an equilateral triangle
The L4 and L5 Lagrange points sit at the two corners of an equilateral triangle formed with the Sun and Earth. This special geometry lets an object at L4 stay in stable orbital balance.
Match List-I (Training Institute) with List-II (Location) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I: A. National Academy of Customs, Indirect Taxes and Narcotics; B. LBS National Academy of Administration; C. National Academy of Audit and Accounts; D. All India Institute of Local Self Government. List-II: 1. Mussoorie; 2. Shimla; 3. Mumbai; 4. Palasamudram.
Code:
- (a)A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
- (b)A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
- (c)A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
- (d)A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
Answer: (c) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
The National Academy of Customs, Indirect Taxes and Narcotics has a campus at Palasamudram, and the LBS National Academy of Administration is at Mussoorie. The National Academy of Audit and Accounts is at Shimla, and the All India Institute of Local Self Government is at Mumbai.
Consider the following statements: 1. The Flag Code of India superseded the ‘Flag Code-India’. 2. The state emblem of India is an adaptation of the Lion Capital of Ashoka at Sarnath.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
The Flag Code of India, 2002 genuinely replaced the earlier ‘Flag Code-India’. The state emblem of India is genuinely adapted from the Lion Capital of Ashoka at Sarnath.
Which one of the following is not among the thematic areas of National Mission on Sustainable Habitat?
- (a)Energy and Green Building
- (b)Mobility and Air Quality
- (c)Waste Management
- (d)Rural Planning, Green cover and Biodiversity
Answer: (d) Rural Planning, Green cover and Biodiversity
The National Mission on Sustainable Habitat’s real thematic areas cover urban planning, not rural planning, alongside green cover and biodiversity. Energy and Green Building, Mobility and Air Quality, and Waste Management are all genuine thematic areas.
Which of the following are the components of the Indian Legal System? 1. Basic values and principles enshrined in the Constitution; 2. Rights and obligations conferred by ordinary statutes; 3. Organizational set-up to enforce rights and obligations within the constitutional norms; 4. Legal and judicial persons.
Select the answer using the code given below.
- (a)1, 2, 3 and 4
- (b)1, 2 and 4 only
- (c)1, 2 and 3 only
- (d)3 and 4 only
Answer: (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
The Indian legal system genuinely rests on constitutional values, statutory rights and obligations, an enforcement organisation, and recognised legal and judicial persons. All four are real, standard components.
Which one among the following statements about the objectives of Vibrant Village Programme is correct?
- (a)It is a Centrally sponsored scheme.
- (b)This programme was launched in 2021.
- (c)Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim and Manipur are the states selected under this scheme.
- (d)Villages of Uttar Pradesh along the Nepal border are selected as flagship villages under this scheme.
Answer: (a) It is a Centrally sponsored scheme.
VVP-I, the original Vibrant Villages Programme, is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme run with the states. It launched in 2023, not 2021, starting in Arunachal Pradesh. It covers Arunachal Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Uttarakhand and Ladakh, not Manipur. Its flagship villages sit on the northern border, not along the Nepal border in Uttar Pradesh.
Which one of the following UN organizations has not been awarded the Nobel Prize?
- (a)WFP
- (b)ILO
- (c)UNESCO
- (d)UNHCR
Answer: (c) UNESCO
The World Food Programme, the ILO, and the UNHCR have all won the Nobel Peace Prize. UNESCO, despite its global cultural and educational work, has not received this award.
Which of the following areas has been exempted from the purview of the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019?
- (a)Ladakh
- (b)Jammu and Kashmir
- (c)The Sixth Schedule Areas
- (d)The Fifth Schedule Areas
Answer: (c) The Sixth Schedule Areas
The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 exempts tribal areas under the Constitution’s Sixth Schedule from its provisions. These areas cover parts of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
Who among the following stated that ‘A just society is that society in which ascending sense of reverence and descending sense of contempt is dissolved into the creation of a compassionate society’?
- (a)Vinoba Bhave
- (b)Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar
- (c)Rammanohar Lohia
- (d)Jayaprakash Narayan
Answer: (b) Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar
This quote about dissolving an ‘ascending sense of reverence and descending sense of contempt’ reflects Ambedkar’s critique of India’s caste hierarchy. He envisioned a just, compassionate society free of that graded inequality.
Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Criminal law is exclusively a subject under the State List of the Constitution of India. 2. Code of Civil Procedure falls under the Concurrent List of the Constitution of India.
Select the answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Criminal law actually sits in the Concurrent List, not exclusively the State List, so both the Centre and states can legislate on it. The Code of Civil Procedure genuinely falls under the Concurrent List, as stated.
Arrange the following agreements between India and Pakistan in chronological order: 1. Tashkent Declaration; 2. Indus Water Treaty; 3. Agreement on the Prohibition of Attack Against Each Other's Nuclear Installations and Facilities; 4. Agreement on Reducing the Risk from Accidents Relating to Nuclear Weapons.
Select the answer using the code given below.
- (a)1, 2, 3, 4
- (b)2, 3, 1, 4
- (c)2, 1, 3, 4
- (d)1, 4, 2, 3
Answer: (c) 2, 1, 3, 4
The correct order is the Indus Waters Treaty (1960), the Tashkent Declaration (January 1966), the Agreement on the Prohibition of Attack Against Nuclear Installations and Facilities (December 1988), and the Agreement on Reducing the Risk from Accidents Relating to Nuclear Weapons (February 2007).
Related: ModHist0013 — Lal Bahadur Shastri: War, Slogan, and Tashkent
Which of the following statements with regard to the Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) is/are correct? 1. The official languages of the SCO are Russian and Chinese. 2. The SCO enjoys observer status in the UN General Assembly. 3. The SCO consists of 13 member states.
Select the answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 only
- (b)1 and 3
- (c)1 and 2
- (d)2 and 3
Answer: (c) 1 and 2
SCO’s official languages genuinely are Russian and Chinese, and it has held UN General Assembly observer status since 2005. Statement 3 is false: SCO has 10 member states, not 13.
Related: IntlRel0037 — Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO)
Financial Action Task Force is:
- (a)A wing under the Central Economic Intelligence Bureau
- (b)A division of Enforcement Directorate
- (c)A global money laundering and terrorist financing watchdog
- (d)A UN Anti-Corruption Agency
Answer: (c) A global money laundering and terrorist financing watchdog
FATF is an independent inter-governmental body, founded by the G7, entirely separate from any single country’s domestic enforcement agency and from the UN system.
In which of the following matters placed before the UN General Assembly, a resolution by two-thirds majority of the members present and voting is required? 1. Admission of new members to the UN; 2. Election of the non-permanent members of the Security Council; 3. Election of members of the Economic and Social Council.
Select the answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)1 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Admitting new UN members, electing non-permanent Security Council members, and electing members of the Economic and Social Council all genuinely require a two-thirds majority in the General Assembly. These fall under the Charter’s list of ‘important questions’.
‘Bharat Parv’ was organized by the Government of India during which of the following programmes? 1. Republic Day 2024; 2. National Film Festival 2024; 3. Cannes Film Festival 2024.
Select the answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)1 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only
Bharat Parv has genuinely been organised around Republic Day celebrations each year, and in 2024 it was also held at the Cannes Film Festival for the first time. It has no connection to the separate National Film Festival.
Which one of the following organizations challenged the constitutionality of Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code in the Supreme Court of India?
- (a)Naz Foundation (India) Trust
- (b)Bachpan Bachao Andolan
- (c)Sambhav Foundation India
- (d)ActionAid India
Answer: (a)
Naz Foundation (India) Trust filed the original PIL challenging Section 377 in 2001, and remained central to the litigation through the Delhi High Court’s 2009 ruling and the Supreme Court’s later review in Suresh Kumar Koushal v. Naz Foundation (2013). (Source: Indian Kanoon)
Related: Polity0106 — Same-Sex Marriage and the Supriyo Verdict.
As per Article 371G of the Constitution of India, special provisions have been made with respect to the state of Mizoram. Accordingly, no Act of Parliament shall apply on certain matters unless the Legislative Assembly of Mizoram so decides by a resolution. Which one of the following matters is not covered under this Article?
- (a)Religious or social practices of the Mizos
- (b)Mizo customary law and procedure
- (c)Administration of civil and criminal justice involving decisions according to Mizo customary law
- (d)Ownership and transfer of natural resources
Answer: Ownership and transfer of natural resources
Article 371G(a) actually protects “ownership and transfer of land,” a narrower term than “natural resources.” The other three options are all directly named in the Article’s text.
Source: Article 371G, full text, North Eastern Council. Related: ModHist0042 — Mizoram’s Path to Statehood: From Famine to Peace Accord
Which of the following statements, as per the Information Technology Act, 2000, is/are correct? 1. This Act provides that electronic signature is legally valid in the same manner as the handwritten signature. 2. Both the Central Government and State Governments have been given the power to make rules with respect to electronic signature.
Select the answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
The Information Technology Act, 2000 genuinely gives an electronic signature the same legal validity as a handwritten one. But rule-making power for electronic signatures rests only with the Central Government, not the State Governments.
Which of the following statements about National Recruitment Agency is correct?
- (a)It is a body to conduct Common Eligibility Test (CET) to shortlist the candidates for vacancies under ‘Group B’ and ‘Group C’ of the Government.
- (b)Employment in private sector is facilitated in all the districts, particularly 117 aspirational districts.
- (c)It was set up in 2014.
- (d)It has been accorded Constitutional status in 2021.
Answer: (a) It is a body to conduct Common Eligibility Test (CET) to shortlist the candidates for vacancies under ‘Group B’ and ‘Group C’ of the Government.
The National Recruitment Agency was set up in 2020, not 2014, and holds no constitutional status. Its real role is conducting the Common Eligibility Test for Group B and Group C government posts.
The Research Design and Standards Organization is the R&D wing of which one of the following organizations?
- (a)Bhabha Atomic Research Centre
- (b)Indian Space Research Organization
- (c)Indian Railways
- (d)Defence Research and Development Organization
Answer: (c) Indian Railways
The Research Design and Standards Organisation, based in Lucknow, is the research and development wing of Indian Railways. It sets technical standards for railway design and operations.
Match List-I (Speaker of Lok Sabha) with List-II (Tenure) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I: A. Manohar Gajanan Joshi; B. Somnath Chatterjee; C. Meira Kumar; D. Sumitra Mahajan. List-II: 1. 14th Lok Sabha; 2. 13th Lok Sabha; 3. 16th Lok Sabha; 4. 15th Lok Sabha.
Code:
- (a)A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
- (b)A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
- (c)A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
- (d)A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
Answer: (a) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
Manohar Joshi was Speaker during the 13th Lok Sabha, and Somnath Chatterjee during the 14th. Meira Kumar served during the 15th Lok Sabha, and Sumitra Mahajan during the 16th.
Consider the following statements about the Vedanta philosophy: 1. Shankara was the founder of Advaita Vedanta. 2. The philosophy of Dvaita was elaborated by Madhva.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Shankara founded Advaita Vedanta, which holds that the individual soul and ultimate reality are non-different. Madhva founded Dvaita Vedanta, which holds the opposite: God, the individual soul, and matter remain eternally distinct. Both statements are correct.
Source: Britannica, Madhva. Related: ArtnCulture0035 — Vedic Literature: From Hymns to Philosophy.
The distribution of charkhas on a wide scale among the people was decided by:
- (a)Congress Working Committee in 1919
- (b)All India Congress Committee in 1921
- (c)Mahatma Gandhi at the start of Dandi March
- (d)All India Congress Committee in 1947
Answer: (b) All India Congress Committee in 1921
The wide-scale distribution of charkhas among the people was decided by the All India Congress Committee in 1921. This was part of the Non-Cooperation Movement’s push for khadi and self-reliance.
The terms used for cereals in the Rig Veda are:
- (a)Godhuma and Vrihi
- (b)Yava and Dhanya
- (c)Tila and Khala
- (d)Priyangu and Shyamaka
Answer: (b) Yava and Dhanya
The Rig Veda, the earliest Vedic text, mainly refers to barley using the term ‘Yava’. ‘Dhanya’ is used there as the general term for cereal grain.
Consider the following statements about the condition of widows in the 18th century India: 1. Raja Sawai Jai Singh of Amber promoted widow remarriage. 2. Maratha General Parshuram Bhau promoted widow remarriage. 3. Raja Ram Mohan Roy opposed Sati.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)1 and 3 only
- (c)2 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
All three statements are correct: Raja Sawai Jai Singh and Maratha General Parshuram Bhau both promoted widow remarriage, and Raja Ram Mohan Roy opposed Sati – reforms that Bentinck’s Sati ban of 1829 built on.
Related: ModHist0356 — Lord William Bentinck: Sati, English Education and Reform · View this question →
Consider the following statements about the administrative measures of Shivaji: 1. The scheme of Ashta Pradhan (eight ministers) was completed and announced at the time of Shivaji's coronation with regulations and duties properly defined. 2. Shivaji introduced Marathi in place of Persian and coined Sanskrit technical terms for administrative purposes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Shivaji formalised the eight-minister Ashta Pradhan council at his 1674 coronation, with each minister’s role (Peshwa, Amatya, Sachiv, Mantri, Senapati, Sumant, Nyayadhish, Panditrao) properly defined. He also replaced Persian with Marathi as the administrative language and introduced Sanskrit technical terms for official use.
Source: Ashta Pradhan, Wikipedia.
With reference to the Mesolithic art in India, consider the following statements: 1. Alexander Burns discovered the first rock paintings in India at Sohagighat in Uttar Pradesh. 2. Bhimbetka rock paintings were discovered when archaeologist V.S. Wakankar noticed the rocks out of a train window while travelling from Bhopal to Itarsi and got off at the nearest railway station to explore the site. 3. The paintings and engravings do not exist in the same shelter in the rock art of Orissa.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)2 and 3
- (d)1 and 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
The first rock paintings in India were actually discovered by Archibald Carlleyle, not Alexander Burns, so statement 1 is wrong. The Bhimbetka discovery story about V.S. Wakankar spotting the rocks from a train window near Itarsi is a real, well-documented account.
In the decoration of Stupas, what does the term ‘Kinjalkini’ refer to?
- (a)Creepers showing ornaments and textiles
- (b)Scarves and saris
- (c)Mango shaped pendants
- (d)A garland of thousand lotus flowers
Answer: (d) A garland of thousand lotus flowers
‘Kinjalkini’ is a decorative motif used on Buddhist stupas. It represents a garland made of a thousand lotus flowers, a symbol of purity in Buddhist art.
Which of the following is/are the correct components of the “Lion Capital” at Sarnath? 1. The shaft (stambha-yashti) or the tall tapering column; 2. An elliptical top part — the abacus, devoid of any carvings; 3. Overflowing inverted petals below the abacus.
Select the answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 only
- (b)1 and 3 only
- (c)2 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only
The shaft (stambha-yashti) and the bell-shaped inverted-lotus petals below the abacus are both real. The abacus itself is NOT plain — it is carved in high relief with four animals (elephant, horse, bull, lion) separated by four chakras.
Source: Lion Capital of Ashoka, Wikipedia. Related: AncHist0088 — Sarnath: Buddha’s First Sermon and the Gupta-Era Buddha Statue.
Consider the following events leading to the Indian Independence: 1. Lucknow Pact; 2. Return of Subhash Chandra Bose to India; 3. Cripps Mission; 4. Naval Mutiny in Bombay.
Select the chronological sequence of these events (earliest to latest) from the code given below.
- (a)4, 3, 2, 1
- (b)3, 4, 2, 1
- (c)1, 2, 3, 4
- (d)2, 1, 3, 4
Answer: (c) 1, 2, 3, 4
In order: the Lucknow Pact (1916), Bose’s return to India, the Cripps Mission (1942), and the Naval Mutiny (February 1946). Bose resigned from the ICS and first returned to India in 1921. He returned again from Europe in 1934. Either return falls between 1916 and 1942.
Related: ModHist0065 — Key Pacts and Conferences, 1900-1947 | ModHist0155 — The 1946 Royal Indian Navy Mutiny
Who among the following were famous for their metal-casting skills and used to cast excellent matchlocks during the medieval period?
- (a)Marathas
- (b)Rajputs
- (c)Ahoms
- (d)Gonds
Answer: (c) Ahoms
The Ahoms of medieval Assam were renowned for their metal-casting skill, producing excellent matchlocks and cannons. A Mughal account from 1662 specifically praised their fine matchlocks and gunpowder.
Consider the following statements about the Ancient Hindu metal images in India: 1. The Chola period is well known for the aesthetic and technical finesse of its metal sculpture. 2. The iconography and style of Chola metal images were similar to those of their stone counterparts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Chola-period metal sculpture is genuinely famous for its aesthetic and technical finesse. Its iconography and style also genuinely closely followed the conventions already used in Chola stone sculpture.
Which one of the following terms was used for the States in the Draft Constitution presented by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar on 4th November, 1948?
- (a)Union of States
- (b)Federation of States
- (c)Autonomous States
- (d)Subsidiary States
Answer: (a) Union of States
Ambedkar’s draft deliberately used “Union of States,” not “Federation,” citing the American Civil War as a warning — a Union implies no State has a right to secede, unlike a federation formed by agreement. Source: Constitution of India: Why Union of States, constitutionofindia.net. Related: Polity0064 — The Constituent Assembly’s Drafting Committee.
The antariya was a garment worn by people during the Mauryan period. It was:
- (a)an unstitched length of cloth draped around the body.
- (b)a sewn garment consisting of a sleeved tunic.
- (c)a head covering used exclusively by women.
- (d)made of strips sewn together tied at the waist with a cord.
Answer: (a) an unstitched length of cloth draped around the body.
The antariya was an unstitched cloth wrapped and draped around the lower body, similar to a modern dhoti. Stitched garments were less common in ancient Indian clothing than draped, unstitched cloth.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Utpala dynasty of Kashmir: 1. Avantivarman, the founder, devoted his energies to the economic upliftment of his subjects. 2. Avantivarman's period in Kashmir is known for the engineering operations under his minister Suyya, resulting in the enormous increase of grains and fall in prices.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Avantivarman, founder of the Utpala dynasty, genuinely focused on improving his subjects’ economic condition. His minister Suyya’s irrigation and engineering works genuinely raised grain output and lowered prices, as recorded in Kalhana’s Rajatarangini.
Consider the following pairs of High Offices and concerned Departments in the Mauryan Administration: 1. Samahartri : Chief Collector of Revenue; 2. Dauvarika : Chief of Army; 3. Akshapatala : Records-cum-Audit Officer; 4. Samnidhatri : Treasurer.
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)1, 3 and 4 only
- (c)3 and 4 only
- (d)1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
Samahartri (chief revenue collector), Akshapatala (records-cum-audit officer) and Samnidhatri (treasurer) are correctly matched. Dauvarika was actually chief of palace attendants and the gate, not chief of the army — that role belonged to the Senapati.
Related: AncHist0013 — The Mauryan Empire: Chandragupta Maurya · AncHist0015 — Mauryan Administration and Economy
Which kingdom was described by Governor-General Lord Dalhousie as “A cherry that will drop into our mouth one day”?
- (a)Delhi
- (b)Awadh
- (c)Jhansi
- (d)Gwalior
Answer: (b) Awadh
Dalhousie called Awadh (Oudh) ‘a cherry that will drop into our mouth one day’, and he annexed it in 1856 on the ground of misgovernment. Delhi, Jhansi and Gwalior were different cases.
Related: ModHist0352 — Governors-General and Viceroys of India (1773-1947) · View this question →
Consider the following statements with reference to Census in India: 1. The first All India Census was attempted in 1872. 2. From 1881, decennial censuses became a regular feature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Lord Mayo’s government attempted the first all-India census in 1872, but it wasn’t taken on a single day and left out some princely states. The first fully synchronous census, taken across the country on one day, followed in 1881. Every census since 1881 has kept to the same ten-year cycle. Source: ThePrint.
Related: Polity0108 — Caste Census: The Bihar Survey and the National Debate
Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. During the Second Round Table Conference held in London in 1931, the British Government refused to accept the basic nationalist demand for freedom. 2. India was granted dominion status in 1932. 3. Viceroy Lord Willingdon adopted a policy of reconciliation with Congress. 4. The Civil Disobedience Movement was started with the breaking of salt laws.
Select the answer using the code given below.
- (a)2 and 3 only
- (b)4 only
- (c)1 and 4 only
- (d)1, 2 and 4
Answer: (c) 1 and 4 only
Statement 1 is correct: Britain refused dominion status or freedom at the Second Round Table Conference. Statement 2 is wrong, since dominion status was never actually granted in 1932. Statement 3 is wrong too, since Lord Willingdon replaced the conciliatory Irwin and adopted a harsher, repressive policy toward Congress. Statement 4 is correct.
Related: ModHist0065 — Key Pacts and Conferences, 1900-1947 · ModHist0063 — Civil Disobedience and the Salt March
Which of the following statements about Cabinet Mission are correct? 1. It was sent to India in 1946 to negotiate the transfer of power with the Indian leaders. 2. It proposed a two-tiered federal plan while conceding the largest measure of regional autonomy. 3. There was to be a federation of provinces and states, alongside a federal centre. 4. The individual provinces were allowed to form regional unions to which they could surrender some of their powers by mutual agreement.
Select the answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 and 3 only
- (b)1, 2 and 4 only
- (c)2, 3 and 4 only
- (d)1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
The Cabinet Mission genuinely arrived in 1946 to negotiate the transfer of power. It genuinely proposed a two-tiered federation of provinces and states under a central government, with provinces free to form their own regional unions.
Consider the following pairs: 1. Gajapati — Name of a powerful Dynasty in Orissa; 2. Ashvapati — Deccan Sultans; 3. Narapati — Rayas of Vijayanagara.
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)1, 2 and 3
- (d)None of the above
Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3
In Vijayanagara-era usage, Gajapati (Lord of Elephants) named the powerful Orissa dynasty, and Ashvapati (Lord of Horses) referred to the Deccan Sultans known for cavalry strength. Narapati (Lord of Men) referred to the Vijayanagara Rayas themselves.
Which of the following pairs of Himalayan Glaciers and their location is/are correctly matched? 1. Siachen — Nubra Valley Region; 2. Chungphar — Kumaon-Garhwal Region; 3. Zemu — Central Nepal Region; 4. Gasherbrum — Pir Panjal Range.
Select the answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 only
- (b)1 and 2
- (c)2 and 3
- (d)3 and 4
Answer: (a) 1 only
Only the Siachen-Nubra Valley pair is correct; Siachen’s meltwater directly feeds the Nubra river. Chungphar sits in the Nanga Parbat massif of Gilgit-Baltistan, nowhere near Kumaon-Garhwal. Zemu Glacier is in Sikkim, not Central Nepal. Gasherbrum lies in the Karakoram Range, not the Pir Panjal. Related: IndGeo0033 — The Karakoram Range · IndGeo0034 — Siachen Glacier.
Consider the following statements regarding the rivers of India: 1. The Barak River, the head stream of the Meghna, rises in the hills of Meghalaya. 2. The Ghaggar River does not drain out to the sea and gets lost in the Rajasthan desert. 3. Puthimari and Manas are important tributaries of the Brahmaputra.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)1 and 2
- (d)2 and 3
Answer: (d) 2 and 3
Statement 1 is false: the Barak River actually rises in the hills of Manipur, not Meghalaya. Statement 2 is true: the Ghaggar is an inland-draining river that never reaches the sea, petering out in the Rajasthan desert, a key fact behind its identification with the vanished Vedic Sarasvati. Statement 3 is true: both Puthimari and Manas are genuine north-bank tributaries of the Brahmaputra. Related: IndGeo0082 — The Saraswati River: The Rigveda’s Lost River.
Consider the following statements regarding transportation functions associated with important ports: 1. Singapore functions both as a port of call and an entrepot. 2. Karwar in India is an example of a naval port. 3. Dover in England is an example of an outport.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a)1 only
- (b)3 only
- (c)1 and 3
- (d)1 and 2
Answer: (d) 1 and 2
Singapore genuinely works as both a port of call and an entrepot for trade. Karwar in India is genuinely a naval port; Dover, though on the English Channel, is actually a packet/ferry station, not an outport.
Cumulonimbus clouds develop from which among the following clouds?
- (a)Cumulus congestus clouds
- (b)Cumulus and Nimbostratus clouds
- (c)Cumulus and Altostratus clouds
- (d)Cirrocumulus clouds
Answer: (a) Cumulus congestus clouds
Cumulonimbus clouds develop as cumulus clouds grow taller and more towering, passing through the cumulus congestus stage first. This vertical growth eventually produces the full storm cloud.
Which of the following Ramsar Wetland sites is not situated in any of the Union Territories of India?
- (a)Hokera Wetland
- (b)Point Calimere Wildlife and Bird Sanctuary
- (c)Tsomoriri Lake
- (d)Wular Lake
Answer: (b) Point Calimere Wildlife and Bird Sanctuary
Point Calimere sits in Tamil Nadu, a full state. Hokera and Wular are in Jammu & Kashmir, and Tsomoriri is in Ladakh, both Union Territories. · IndGeo0053 — Ramsar Wetlands of India
Eratosthenes, a Greek philosopher measured the Earth's circumference based on the angle of Sun rays at two different points. Which cities were they?
- (a)Alexandria and Syene
- (b)Syene and Troy
- (c)Alexandria and Troy
- (d)Alexandria and Thebes
Answer: (a) Alexandria and Syene
Eratosthenes compared the angle of the Sun’s rays at Alexandria and Syene (modern Aswan) on the same day. Using the distance between the two cities, he calculated the Earth’s circumference.
Which kind of mass wasting processes are commonly associated with creep?
- (a)Fast speed with soil
- (b)Slow speed with rock
- (c)Slow speed with ice
- (d)Slow speed with soil
Answer: (d) Slow speed with soil
Creep is a very slow, gradual downhill movement of loose soil material on a slope. It is far slower than a landslide and involves soil rather than solid rock or ice.
Consider the following statements: 1. Hadley cells are key to understanding the wind patterns of Earth. 2. Hadley cells are formed because the Equator is heated more strongly by the Sun than other places, creating thermal circulations.
With regard to the statements given above, which of the following is correct?
- (a)Both the statements are correct and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
- (b)Both the statements are correct, but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
- (c)Statement 1 is correct, but statement 2 is false.
- (d)Statement 1 is false, but statement 2 is correct.
Answer: (a) Both the statements are correct and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
Hadley cells genuinely shape Earth’s large-scale wind patterns. They form precisely because the Equator absorbs more solar heating than other latitudes, driving the thermal circulation described in statement 2.
Consider the following statements: 1. Ocean currents are dominated by huge surface gyres that are driven by the global surface wind pattern. 2. Equatorial currents move cold water westward and then poleward along the east coasts of continents.
With regard to the statements given above, which of the following is correct?
- (a)Both the statements are correct and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
- (b)Both the statements are correct, but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
- (c)Statement 1 is correct, but statement 2 is false.
- (d)Statement 1 is false, but statement 2 is correct.
Answer: (c) Statement 1 is correct, but statement 2 is false.
Ocean surface currents really are dominated by large wind-driven gyres. But equatorial currents actually carry warm water westward, not cold, before turning poleward along continents’ east coasts, so statement 2 is wrong.
As per India State of Forest Report 2021, which one of the following states is not among the top three with reference to maximum area under forest?
- (a)Arunachal Pradesh
- (b)Chhattisgarh
- (c)Madhya Pradesh
- (d)Maharashtra
Answer: (d) Maharashtra
According to the India State of Forest Report 2021, the top three states by forest area are Madhya Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, and Chhattisgarh. Maharashtra ranks lower and is not among the top three.
How is strong pressure gradient represented on a weather map?
- (a)Closely spaced isobars
- (b)Widely spaced isobars
- (c)Closely spaced isobars at the periphery
- (d)A set of two widely spaced isobars followed by two closely spaced isobars
Answer: (a) Closely spaced isobars
Isobars are lines joining points of equal atmospheric pressure. When pressure changes sharply over a short distance, the isobars are drawn closely spaced together, showing a strong pressure gradient.
Which one of the following is not an example of chemical weathering?
- (a)Acid action
- (b)Hydrolysis
- (c)Salt Crystal Growth
- (d)Oxidation
Answer: (c) Salt Crystal Growth
Salt crystal growth breaks rock apart through the physical pressure of growing crystals, making it a mechanical weathering process. Acid action, hydrolysis, and oxidation are all genuine chemical reactions, making them chemical weathering.
Which of the following statements regarding Arc Volcanoes is/are correct? 1. Arc volcanoes are found near divergent plate boundaries. 2. Some of the world's classical examples of cone-shaped stratovolcanoes, such as Mount Fuji in Japan, Mayon in the Philippines are Arc volcanoes. 3. Some of the highest volcanoes on Earth are of the Arc type, notably Nevado Ojos del Salado in the Chilean Andes.
Select the answer using the code given below.
- (a)2 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)1 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Arc volcanoes actually form near convergent plate boundaries, not divergent ones, so statement 1 is wrong. Mount Fuji and Mayon are genuine arc-type stratovolcanoes, and Ojos del Salado in the Andes is genuinely among the highest volcanoes on Earth.
Which one of the following statements regarding S-waves is not correct?
- (a)S-waves are slower than P-waves.
- (b)During an earthquake S-waves are less destructive to structures like buildings and highway overpasses.
- (c)S-waves can travel only through solids and cannot travel through the Earth's outer core.
- (d)Seismologists have concluded that the Earth's outer core must be liquid or fluid.
Answer: (b) During an earthquake S-waves are less destructive to structures like buildings and highway overpasses.
S-waves actually cause more destruction to buildings and overpasses than P-waves, because of their larger side-to-side shaking motion. S-waves are genuinely slower than P-waves and genuinely cannot pass through the Earth’s liquid outer core.
Which of the following states is/are part of the Ganga Basin? 1. Chhattisgarh 2. Himachal Pradesh 3. Rajasthan
Select the answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 only
- (b)1 and 2 only
- (c)2 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
The Ganga basin spans 11 states, including Chhattisgarh, Himachal Pradesh, and Rajasthan, alongside Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, and others. Related: IndGeo0119 — The Ganga River.
Which peninsular river has a tributary named ‘Kabini’?
- (a)Godavari
- (b)Krishna
- (c)Mahanadi
- (d)Kaveri
Answer: (d) Kaveri
The Kabini River, which flows through Nagarhole National Park, is a major tributary of the Kaveri (Cauvery). Related: IndGeo0112 — Nagarhole National Park.
Consider the following statements: 1. Bajra is predominantly grown in states like Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh and Gujarat, while Ragi is mainly cultivated in Karnataka and Tamil Nadu. 2. Bajra grows well in sandy and shallow black soils, whereas red and shallow black soil is suited for Ragi.
With regard to the statements given above, which of the following is correct?
- (a)Both the statements are correct and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
- (b)Both the statements are correct, but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
- (c)Statement 1 is correct, but statement 2 is false.
- (d)Statement 1 is false, but statement 2 is correct.
Answer: (a) Both statements are correct, and statement 2 explains statement 1
Bajra suits the sandy, arid soils of Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh, and Gujarat, while ragi suits the red and shallow black soils of Karnataka and Tamil Nadu. Soil type is exactly why each millet dominates in its own region.
Which of the following peaks are situated in India? 1. Dhaulagiri 2. Namcha Barwa 3. Kamet 4. Makalu
Select the answer using the code given below.
- (a)1, 2 and 3
- (b)1 and 3 only
- (c)2 and 3 only
- (d)2 and 4 only
Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only (site defect: the objectively correct answer is “Kamet only” — see explanation)
Of these four peaks, only Kamet lies within India, in Uttarakhand’s Garhwal region. Dhaulagiri is in Nepal, Namcha Barwa is in Tibet, and Makalu sits on the Nepal-Tibet border, so the real correct answer is “Kamet only” — but no option on this page offers that exact combination, so this is flagged as a pre-existing site data-transcription defect and the option containing Kamet with the fewest extra wrong items is given as the closest match.
Which of the following statements regarding River Rhine is/are correct? 1. Rhine River is an important pathway for industrial activity in northern Germany. 2. Port of Rotterdam is located at the mouth of the Rhine River.
Select the answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
The Rhine genuinely serves as a key industrial transport route through northern Germany’s Ruhr region. The Port of Rotterdam genuinely sits at the Rhine’s mouth on the North Sea.
With reference to the continent of ‘Antarctica’ which of the following statements are correct? 1. It is larger than Europe in terms of area. 2. It has the highest average elevation as compared to all other continents. 3. Mt. Ross is the highest peak of this continent. 4. Waters of the Southern Ocean (West Wind Drift) move in an anticlockwise direction around it.
Select the answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)1 and 3 only
- (c)1, 2 and 3
- (d)2, 3 and 4
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Antarctica is genuinely larger in area than Europe, and it genuinely has the highest average elevation of any continent. Its highest peak is actually Vinson Massif, not Mt. Ross, so that statement is wrong.
Consider the following statements: 1. A rupee Vostro account is an account that an Indian bank holds for a foreign bank in the domestic currency (rupee) to enable domestic banks to provide international banking services. 2. Insurance density, i.e., average insurance premium per capita does not fully capture the financing gap in the event of a premature death because most of the insurance products sold in India are savings-linked with a small component of protection.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
A rupee Vostro account is genuinely an account an Indian bank holds for a foreign bank in rupees, supporting international banking. Insurance density genuinely understates India’s real protection gap, since most Indian insurance policies are savings-linked rather than pure protection.
Consider the following statements: 1. An additional spending by the Government of ₹X is likely to have less impact on income than an additional transfer of ₹X to households. 2. An additional spending by the Government of ₹X is likely to have less impact on income if it is not accompanied by an expansion in money supply.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Direct government spending usually has a bigger, not smaller, impact on income than an equal cash transfer to households, since transfers are only partly spent. But added government spending does have less impact if it isn’t matched by an expansion in the money supply, since it can crowd out private investment.
Long-Term Low Emissions Development Strategy envisions: 1. a transition from fossil fuels in a just, smooth, sustainable manner. 2. increased use of bio-fuels. 3. climate resistant urban development. 4. financing of sustainable development through Green Bonds.
Select the answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)1, 2 and 3
- (c)2 and 4 only
- (d)1, 3 and 4
Answer: (d) 1, 3 and 4
India’s Long-Term Low Emissions Development Strategy genuinely calls for a just, smooth transition away from fossil fuels, climate-resilient urban development, and new financing tools like Green Bonds. Its transport pillar emphasises electric vehicles and cleaner fuels broadly, rather than singling out biofuels specifically.
Which one among the following was the focus of the Twelfth Five-Year Plan?
- (a)Sustainable and Inclusive Growth
- (b)Social Justice and Equality
- (c)Food, Work and Productivity
- (d)Attainment of Self-reliance
Answer: (a) Sustainable and Inclusive Growth
The Twelfth Five-Year Plan’s official slogan was ‘Faster, More Inclusive and Sustainable Growth’. Among the given options, this is the closest match to its real stated focus.
Which of the following is not included in the Capital Account of the Balance of Payments of a country?
- (a)Foreign Direct Investment
- (b)Commercial Borrowing
- (c)Invisibles
- (d)External Assistance
Answer: (c) Invisibles
Invisibles (services, income and transfers) sit in the current account, not the capital account. FDI, commercial borrowing and external assistance are capital-account items, so Invisibles is the one NOT in the capital account.
The Atmanirbhar Bharat Scheme announced by the Government helps in: 1. Enhancing India's manufacturing capabilities and exports across the industries 2. Incentivizing foreign investments for domestic production
Select the answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Atmanirbhar Bharat strengthens India’s manufacturing capability and exports, and it also incentivises foreign investment for domestic production. Both statements are correct.
Related: Foreign Trade of India · SciTech0036 — Indigenous Technology Development and Make in India
Which one of the following statements for a firm's equilibrium in Perfect Competition is not correct?
- (a)The market price must be greater or equal to average variable cost in the short run.
- (b)The market price must be equal to marginal cost.
- (c)The market price must be equal to average cost in the long run.
- (d)The marginal cost decreases at the equilibrium output.
Answer: (d) The marginal cost decreases at the equilibrium output.
At a competitive firm’s true equilibrium, marginal cost must be rising, not falling, as output increases past that point. Price equal to marginal cost, and price equal to average cost in the long run, are both genuinely correct conditions.
Which one of the following taxes is not included in the Central Pool to be shared with the States according to the recommendations of Finance Commission of India?
- (a)Personal Income Tax
- (b)Corporate Profit Tax
- (c)Surcharge and Cess
- (d)Excise Duties
Answer: (c) Surcharge and Cess
Surcharges and cesses go entirely to the Centre and are excluded from the divisible pool shared with states. Personal income tax, corporate tax, and excise duties are genuinely part of that shared pool.
Which one of the following dimensions is not included in Human Development Index?
- (a)Life Expectancy at birth
- (b)Mean years of schooling
- (c)Expected years of schooling
- (d)Mortality rate
Answer: (d) Mortality rate
The HDI’s three dimensions are health (life expectancy), education (mean and expected years of schooling) and income (GNI per capita). Mortality rate is not one of them.
Related: Growth versus Development · IndEco0113 — Data of Development
Suppose there are only two normal goods in the economy, X and Y. If price of good X increases, which would be the correct statement from below?
- (a)Demand for good X decreases and demand for Y is indeterminate.
- (b)Demand for good X decreases and demand for Y decreases.
- (c)Demand for good X increases and demand for Y is indeterminate.
- (d)Demand for good X increases and demand for Y decreases.
Answer: (a) Demand for good X decreases and demand for Y is indeterminate.
A price rise in good X reduces demand for X directly, by the law of demand. Whether demand for Y rises or falls then depends on whether X and Y are substitutes or complements, making the effect on Y indeterminate.
If the price index increased from 100 in 2021 to 110 in 2022 to 132 in 2023, then the rate of inflation is:
- (a)10%
- (b)32%
- (c)20%
- (d)Cannot be determined
Answer: (c) 20%
The rate of inflation is the percentage change in the price index over the latest year. Going from 110 to 132 is a rise of 22 points, which is 20% of the starting value of 110.
The Rangarajan Committee methodology for determining the poverty line incorporated which of the following? 1. A food component 2. A normative level of expenditure for essential non-food items 3. A behaviourally determined expenditure for other non-food items
Select the answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)1, 2 and 3
- (d)1 and 3 only
Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3
The Rangarajan Committee (2014) set its poverty line using three parts: a food component for nutritional needs, a normative (benchmark) level of spending on essential non-food items such as education and health, and a behaviourally determined level for other non-food items based on how a reference group actually spends.
Because it required more spending on non-food items than the earlier Tendulkar line, the Rangarajan line was higher, so its estimated count of poor people was higher too.
Which one of the following is not a fund managed by NIIFL (National Investment and Infrastructure Fund Limited)?
- (a)Master Fund
- (b)Fund of Funds
- (c)Strategic Opportunities Fund
- (d)Global Investment Fund
Answer: (d) Global Investment Fund
NIIFL genuinely manages the Master Fund, the Fund of Funds, and the Strategic Opportunities Fund. There is no fund under NIIFL called the Global Investment Fund.
Pandit Deendayal Upadhyay National Welfare Fund was established with the view to help which one of the following groups?
- (a)Medical Practitioners
- (b)Farmers
- (c)Sportspersons
- (d)War Widows
Answer: (c) Sportspersons
The Pandit Deendayal Upadhyay National Welfare Fund was set up to support outstanding sportspersons of earlier years who are now in financial difficulty. It rewards those who once brought glory to the country in sport.
Which one among the following items comprises the major portion of revenue expenditure of the Union Government of India?
- (a)Salaries
- (b)Interest Payments
- (c)Road Transport and Highways
- (d)Defence Services
Answer: (b) Interest Payments
Interest payments on past government borrowing form the single largest share of the Union Government’s revenue expenditure. This reflects the accumulated burden of past fiscal deficits.
India's women's badminton team recently won the Badminton Asia Team Championship, 2024. Who among the following players was not a part of the team?
- (a)P.V. Sindhu
- (b)Treesa Jolly
- (c)Anmol Kharb
- (d)Saina Nehwal
Answer: (d) Saina Nehwal
India’s women’s team that won the 2024 Badminton Asia Team Championship included P.V. Sindhu, Treesa Jolly, and Anmol Kharb. Saina Nehwal was not part of this squad.
Which of the following statements related to Indian medicine system is not correct?
- (a)The Siddha system is a holistic system of medicine.
- (b)Sowa-Rigpa has been in practice in the Himalayan regions of India.
- (c)Unani system of medicine has been dissociated from the Ministry of Ayush.
- (d)Sushruta Samhita is a major source of Ayurveda.
Answer: (c)
Unani medicine has not been dissociated from the Ministry of AYUSH; it remains one of the systems the Ministry governs.
Related: ArtnCulture0012 — Ancient Indian Scientific Literature: Charaka, Sushruta, and Aryabhata
Which one of the following statements is correct about NISHTHA, a Government of India initiative?
- (a)It is a training module recently introduced in LBSNAA for civil servants.
- (b)It is a teacher-training programme.
- (c)It is a training programme for the new recruits in Delhi Police to inculcate integrity of service among them.
- (d)It is a workshop for newly elected Members of Parliament organized routinely by the Lok Sabha Secretariat.
Answer: (b) It is a teacher-training programme.
NISHTHA is a nationwide programme for training school teachers and heads to improve classroom practice. It is not connected to LBSNAA, Delhi Police, or Members of Parliament.
Arrange the BRICS countries in ascending order of their rank in the Human Development Report 2023-24, released by the UNDP: 1. China 2. India 3. Russia 4. Brazil 5. South Africa
Select the answer using the code given below.
- (a)2, 5, 4, 1, 3
- (b)2, 4, 5, 3, 1
- (c)5, 4, 2, 3, 1
- (d)4, 5, 2, 1, 3
Answer: (a) 2, 5, 4, 1, 3
Under the HDR 2023-24 (2022 data), HDI ranks out of 193 countries are Russia 56th, China 75th, Brazil 89th, South Africa 110th, and India 134th. Listing the five from India’s rank up to Russia’s rank gives India, South Africa, Brazil, China, Russia — that is, 2, 5, 4, 1, 3.
India has signed a Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA) with EFTA, which is a regional group consisting of four countries. Which one of the following countries is not a member of this group?
- (a)Switzerland
- (b)Norway
- (c)Iceland
- (d)England
Answer: (d) England
EFTA’s four members are Switzerland, Norway, Iceland, and Liechtenstein. England is not a member; the UK negotiated its own separate CETA with India entirely.
Related: IntlRel0020 — International Treaties and Agreements · IntlRel0056 — India’s Free Trade Agreements
Which one of the following countries shares the territorial boundary with both Russia and Ukraine?
- (a)Estonia
- (b)Latvia
- (c)Belarus
- (d)Poland
Answer: (c) Belarus
Belarus sits directly between the two, bordering Russia to its east and Ukraine to its south. Estonia and Latvia border Russia but not Ukraine. Poland’s only connection to Russian territory is via the small, separate Kaliningrad exclave, not the substantial shared boundary this question is testing.
In June 2024, India signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with USA for supporting Indian Railways to achieve Mission Net Zero Carbon Emission by the year:
- (a)2030
- (b)2040
- (c)2050
- (d)2070
Answer: (a) 2030
India signed this MoU with the USA in June 2024 to support Indian Railways’ own target of Net Zero Carbon Emissions by 2030. This is one of the most ambitious net-zero timelines among large public transport systems.
Which one of the following statements is correct about the PM-JANMAN scheme?
- (a)It is a scheme of the Government of India to impart electoral literacy to voters.
- (b)It is a scheme of the Government of India for deepening of democracy in the functioning of Panchayati Raj institutions.
- (c)It is a scheme of the Government of India for benefitting every member of the tribal community from Government schemes.
- (d)It is a scheme of the Government of India for benefitting migrants workers in the unorganized sector.
Answer: (c) It is a scheme of the Government of India for benefitting every member of the tribal community from Government schemes.
PM-JANMAN specifically targets Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups, aiming to deliver government scheme benefits to every eligible member of these communities. It is not related to electoral literacy, Panchayati Raj, or migrant workers.
Which of the following statements is not correct?
- (a)SAGAR-SETU is a mobile app, which aims to improve the Ease of Doing Business.
- (b)Harit Sagar aims at achieving Zero Carbon Emission Goal.
- (c)Sagar Manthan is a mission launched by Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, Government of India, to increase fish production.
- (d)Costa Serena is the first international cruise liner in India.
Answer: (c) Sagar Manthan is a mission launched by Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, Government of India, to increase fish production.
Sagar Manthan is actually a national maritime data platform run by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, not a fish-production scheme. SAGAR-SETU, Harit Sagar, and Costa Serena as India’s first international cruise liner are all genuinely correct facts.
ISRO, in its studies, has revealed that there is a 178% increase in the size of the Ghepang Ghat Glacial Lake. In which of the following States/UTs is this lake located?
- (a)Jammu & Kashmir
- (b)Ladakh
- (c)Himachal Pradesh
- (d)Uttarakhand
Answer: (c) Himachal Pradesh
The Ghepang Ghat Glacial Lake sits in the Lahaul-Spiti district of Himachal Pradesh, in the Indus basin. ISRO recorded its 178% growth between 1989 and 2022, raising Glacial Lake Outburst Flood (GLOF) risk downstream. Related: SciTech0083 — ISRO
Which of the following State/s is/are common to Bru-Reang Agreement, NLFT (SD) Agreement and Tripartite Agreement with TIPRA?
- (a)Tripura
- (b)Assam and Tripura
- (c)Tripura and Mizoram
- (d)Manipur and Mizoram
Answer: (a) Tripura
The Bru-Reang Agreement, the NLFT (SD) Agreement, and the Tripartite Agreement with TIPRA all centre on Tripura. Each deals with different communities or groups within that one state.
Which of the following movies won the 96th Academy Award 2024 in the Best Picture category?
- (a)Anatomy of a Fall
- (b)Oppenheimer
- (c)Barbie
- (d)Killers of the Flower Moon
Answer: (b) Oppenheimer
Oppenheimer won the Best Picture award at the 96th Academy Awards held in 2024. It was one of the film’s seven Oscar wins that night.
India's first dedicated OPD for the Transgenders was opened at which one among the following hospitals?
- (a)AIIMS, New Delhi
- (b)PGIMER, Chandigarh
- (c)KGMU, Lucknow
- (d)RML Hospital, New Delhi
Answer: (d) RML Hospital, New Delhi
Dr. Ram Manohar Lohia Hospital in New Delhi opened India’s first dedicated OPD for transgender patients. It launched as part of the Sewa Pakhwada initiative.
Which one of the following statements about ‘INS Tarmugli’ is not correct?
- (a)It is a fast attack craft commissioned by the Indian Navy.
- (b)It was commissioned at Naval Dockyard, Visakhapatnam.
- (c)It was given by the Government of India to Sri Lankan Naval Force in 2006 and returned to the Indian Navy in May 2023.
- (d)It is supposed to be used for coastal surveillance.
Answer: (c) It was given by the Government of India to Sri Lankan Naval Force in 2006 and returned to the Indian Navy in May 2023.
INS Tarmugli was actually gifted to the Maldivian Coast Guard in 2006, not to Sri Lanka’s navy, before returning to India in May 2023. It was genuinely commissioned at Naval Dockyard, Visakhapatnam, and is genuinely used for coastal surveillance.
Which one of the following resolutions in the final agreement reached at COP28 is associated with the target of achieving ‘Net Zero by 2050’?
- (a)Fossil fuel phase-out
- (b)Methane emission cuts
- (c)Global goal on adaptation
- (d)Climate resilience
Answer: (a) Fossil fuel phase-out
The COP28 “UAE Consensus” explicitly links its fossil-fuel language to “transitioning away from fossil fuels in energy systems… to enable the world to reach net zero emissions by 2050.” Related: EnvEco0008 — Energy Resources.
Also related: EnvEco0016 — Global Opinions and Response to Climate Change
Related: IntlRel0013 — India’s Climate Diplomacy and Development Partnership Administration
English-language questions transcribed from the official Combined Defence Services Examination (II), 2024 question booklet (RAKU-S-GKL), General Knowledge. Hindi text omitted. Answer key not included.
Leave a Reply