General Ability Test
Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow by selecting the correct option from the given options, based solely on the passage.
Passage
An attempt to determine the number of languages in the world is affected by other factors. A few new languages do continue to be discovered, even these days, as unexplored regions of the world begin to be opened up. The discovery does not usually take place straight away. Often there are similarities with an already known language which make the investigators assume that what they have found is just a dialect of that language. Only after a considerable period of contact does it transpire that the speech is so different that it has to be considered a different language. It takes a language survey to establish the facts, and there are still many countries where such surveys are incomplete or have not even begun. The people may be known, but the identity of their language may not be. Because many such peoples are bilingual or multilingual, and converse with outsiders in lingua franca, it may take a while before linguists come to realize that there is an ethnic language there at all.
Which one of the following is NOT the reason for the difficulty in estimating the number of languages of the world?
- (a)New languages continue to be discovered
- (b)There are still unexplored regions
- (c)New languages are considered a dialect of a known language
- (d)People who speak the language do not claim their language
Answer: (d) People who speak the language do not claim their language
The passage says outsiders fail to recognize a distinct ethnic language because speakers are bilingual and use a lingua franca. It never says speakers refuse to claim their own language.
Which one of the following is a way to establish the discovery of a new language?
- (a)By establishing contact over a period of time with the speakers of the language
- (b)By finding the similarities of the language with other languages
- (c)By comparing with the lingua franca of the region
- (d)By conducting a survey of all languages of the region
Answer: (a) By establishing contact over a period of time with the speakers of the language
The passage says a language’s true identity “transpires” only after a considerable period of contact with its speakers, once similarities with a known language turn out to be misleading.
Which one of the following statements is correct?
- (a)Language surveys have been conducted by all nations
- (b)There is hardly any language to be discovered in the world
- (c)All the languages are either complete languages or dialects of other major languages
- (d)No new language needs to be discovered since all languages are known to the world
Answer: (c) All the languages are either complete languages or dialects of other major languages
The passage frames the whole discovery process around this distinction — investigators must work out whether a newly found speech is a full language or just a dialect of one already known.
'The people may be known, but the identity of their language may not be,' means
- (a)People are recognised as different ethnic groups but not necessarily their language
- (b)People are recognised as different ethnic groups and their language is recognised
- (c)People are not recognised as different ethnic groups, and so are their languages
- (d)Because the people are not from different ethnic groups and their language is recognised
Answer: (a) People are recognised as different ethnic groups but not necessarily their language
The sentence contrasts “the people” (their ethnic identity, already known) with “their language” (whether it is a distinct language, still uncertain).
Which one of the following words from passage means 'come to be known'?
- (a)transpire
- (b)lingua franca
- (c)straight
- (d)variant
Answer: (a) transpire
The passage uses “transpire” to mean a fact becoming known only after a period of contact — exactly the sense of “come to be known”.
Directions: The following items have a sentence in direct or indirect speech with four options. Select the option that correctly converts the direct or indirect speech.
Convert from direct speech to indirect speech: Charu said to her friend, “I want you to be here at 6.00 p.m. tomorrow for the meeting.”
- (a)Charu told her friend that she wanted her to be there at 6.00 p.m. the next day for the meeting
- (b)Charu told her friend that she wanted her to be there at 6.00 p.m. tomorrow for the meeting
- (c)Charu requested her friend that she wanted her to be there at 6.00 p.m. tomorrow for the meeting
- (d)Charu told her friend that she will want her to be here at 6.00 p.m. the next day for the meeting
Answer: (a) Charu told her friend that she wanted her to be there at 6.00 p.m. the next day for the meeting
Reported speech shifts “said to” to “told”, “want” backshifts to “wanted”, “here” becomes “there”, and “tomorrow” becomes “the next day”.
Convert from direct speech to indirect speech: Nitin said to his brother, “What a beautiful painting it is?”
- (a)Nitin wondered to his brother that what a beautiful painting it was
- (b)Nitin wondered before his brother that it was a beautiful painting
- (c)Nitin exclaimed that it is a beautiful painting
- (d)Nitin asked his brother whether it was beautiful painting
Answer: (c) Nitin exclaimed that it is a beautiful painting
“What a beautiful painting it is!” is an exclamatory sentence. Reported speech converts an exclamation into a statement introduced by “exclaimed that”, not “wondered” or “asked”.
Convert from indirect speech to direct speech: The teacher asked her students why they had been quiet in the previous class.
- (a)The teacher asked her students, “Why were they keeping quiet in the previous class?”
- (b)The teacher said to her students, “Why were you quiet in the previous class?”
- (c)The teacher said to her students, “Why had you been quiet in the previous class?”
- (d)The teacher said to her students, “Why were you quiet in previous class?”
Answer: (b) The teacher said to her students, “Why were you quiet in the previous class?”
Converting back to direct speech restores the original pronoun “you” (the students being addressed) and the simple past “were”, keeping “the previous class” unchanged.
Directions: The following items have four sentences, one of which is correct. Find the correct option.
Which one of the following sentences is correct?
- (a)He is considered as the brightest intellectual in the country
- (b)He is considered as one among the brightest intellectual in the country
- (c)He is considered as one among the brighter intellectual in the country
- (d)He is considered as one of the intellectual in the country
Answer: (a) He is considered as the brightest intellectual in the country
This is the only option that avoids a plural/comparative error — the other three wrongly leave “intellectual” singular or use the wrong degree of comparison.
Which one of the following sentences is correct?
- (a)No other mountain is taller than the Himalayas
- (b)No other mountain is tall than the Himalayas
- (c)No other mountains taller than the Himalayas
- (d)No other mountain is taller then the Himalayas
Answer: (a) No other mountain is taller than the Himalayas
This is the only grammatically complete sentence, using the comparative “taller than” correctly — the others confuse “than” with “then”, drop the verb, or use the wrong adjective form.
Directions: In the following items, a pair of words is provided. Select the option that most appropriately describes the meaning of both the words.
Confident and Confidant
- (a)Confident means certain and confidant means close friend
- (b)Confidant means certain and confident means close friend
- (c)Confident means belief and confidant means an emissary
- (d)Confident means assurance and confidant means intimate person
Answer: (a) Confident means certain and confidant means close friend
“Confident” is an adjective meaning self-assured or certain. “Confidant” is a noun for a person trusted with one’s private thoughts, essentially a close friend.
Broke and brook
- (a)Broke means abundance and brook means a flowing water body
- (b)Broke means bankrupt and brook means a stream
- (c)Broke means fractured and brook means nonsense
- (d)Broke means negotiate and brook means a stream
Answer: (b) Broke means bankrupt and brook means a stream
“Broke” used as an adjective means having no money, i.e. bankrupt. “Brook” as a noun means a small, natural stream.
Accept and Except
- (a)Accept means apart from and except means recognise
- (b)Accept means recognise and except means include
- (c)Accept means consent and except means apart from
- (d)Accept means allude and except means apart from
Answer: (c) Accept means consent and except means apart from
“Accept” means to agree to or receive something, close to “consent”. “Except” is a preposition meaning “apart from” or excluding something.
Accord and Accrued
- (a)Accord means collected and accrued means agreement
- (b)Accord means agreement and accrued means arrived
- (c)Accord means accepted and accrued means received
- (d)Accord means agreement and accrued means accumulated
Answer: (d) Accord means agreement and accrued means accumulated
“Accord” means a formal agreement or harmony between parties. “Accrued” describes something, like interest, that has accumulated over time.
Guarantee and Warranty
- (a)Guarantee is an agreement and warranty is a service contract
- (b)Guarantee is a business agreement and warranty is a service contract
- (c)Guarantee is a promise and warranty is a service contract
- (d)Guarantee is acceptance and warranty is a service contract
Answer: (c) Guarantee is a promise and warranty is a service contract
A “guarantee” is a general promise that something will meet certain conditions. A “warranty” is a more formal, often written, service or repair contract for a product.
Directions: A sentence or a phrase is given with a word that is underlined, followed by four options. Select the most appropriate option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word.
The Constitution of India ensures proportionate representation from all regions.
- (a)balanced
- (b)partial
- (c)unlikely
- (d)suffragette
Answer: (a) balanced
“Proportionate” means matching in size or degree, which is close to “balanced” representation across regions.
There is a feeling of disenchantment among the members of the group.
- (a)delight
- (b)disappointment
- (c)idealism
- (d)unrelenting
Answer: (b) disappointment
“Disenchantment” means a feeling of disappointment after losing faith in something once admired.
She believed that it was imminent that he would be chosen as the leader of the group.
- (a)timely
- (b)distant
- (c)unlikely
- (d)inevitable
Answer: (d) inevitable
“Imminent” means about to happen very soon. Among the given options, “inevitable” (certain to happen) is the closest in sense.
The brave soldiers left an indelible impression on the people of the land.
- (a)permanent
- (b)fleeting
- (c)hilarious
- (d)eradicable
Answer: (a) permanent
“Indelible” means unable to be removed or forgotten, matching “permanent” most closely.
The manager always provides instantaneous replies to all queries.
- (a)immediate
- (b)delayed
- (c)deliberate
- (d)unwanted
Answer: (a) immediate
“Instantaneous” means happening at once, without delay, which is exactly what “immediate” means.
Directions: Each item consists of six sentences that comprise a passage. S1 and S6 are given; find the proper sequence of the middle four sentences P, Q, R, S.
S1: Although all sources of energy ultimately come from natural processes, non-renewable resources cannot be replaced naturally at the rate they are being used.
S6: The sustainable use of natural resources in a manner that provides the maximum benefit of these resources to humans over a period of time can be termed as conservation.
- P:This will increase the time and cost of mining and once these resources are used up they cannot be replaced.
- Q:Hence, we must remember that though our country is rich in mineral deposits these resources are short-lived.
- R:Extraction of these ores through the process of mining will soon become difficult and very expensive because these minerals have to be mined from greater depths over time.
- S:Mineral resources can be said to be finite and non-renewable.
- (a)QPRS
- (b)SPQR
- (c)SQRP
- (d)SQPR
Answer: (c) SQRP
S introduces minerals as finite. Q draws the immediate lesson (India’s minerals are short-lived). R explains why extraction gets harder (greater mining depths). P then concludes with “this will increase cost”, referring directly to R’s point, leading into S6 on conservation.
S1: India, at present, has one of the largest road networks in the world.
S6: It passes through Howrah, Delhi and Amritsar and terminates in Kabul (Afghanistan).
- P:The importance of roads has been recognised in India since the ancient times.
- Q:The Grand Trunk Road was built by Sher Shah Suri across the Indo-Gangetic plain, from Chittagong (Bangladesh) to Peshawar (Pakistan).
- R:Kings such as Ashoka and Chandragupta built roads for easy transportation of goods and people.
- S:Construction of roads continued as an important activity in the late medieval period.
- (a)QPRS
- (b)SPQR
- (c)PQRS
- (d)PRSQ
Answer: (d) PRSQ
P sets up roads’ ancient importance. R gives the ancient example (Ashoka, Chandragupta). S moves the story into the late medieval period. Q then names the era’s landmark road, the Grand Trunk Road, whose route S6 goes on to describe.
S1: National highways connect one state with another and are of national importance.
S6: These road systems are also known as primary road systems and are laid and operated under the supervision of the National Highway Authority of India.
- P:They are important because whereas they constitute merely two per cent of the total road networks, they nevertheless carry 40 per cent of the total road traffic.
- Q:The road infrastructure of the country is therefore crucial, and their construction and maintenance is of critical importance.
- R:They bear the load of traffic because these roads connect long distances and pass through major cities and towns.
- S:Since they cover the length and breadth of the nation and connect cities and towns, these highways are the primary facilitators of trade and connectivity.
- (a)PRSQ
- (b)SPQR
- (c)PRQS
- (d)SQRP
Answer: (c) PRQS
P states highways carry 40% of traffic on just 2% of the network. R explains why: they connect long distances through major cities. Q draws out the broader importance of road infrastructure. S then calls them “primary facilitators”, which S6 echoes by calling them “primary road systems”.
S1: The South African Constitution was inaugurated in December 1996.
S6: A special constitutional court enforces the rights enshrined in the Constitution.
- P:Its creation and promulgation took place at a time when South Africa still faced the threat of a civil war after the dissolution of the Apartheid Government.
- Q:The South African Constitution says that its “Bill of Rights is a cornerstone of democracy in South Africa.”
- R:Apropos, it forbids discrimination on the grounds of “race, gender, pregnancy, marital status, ethnic or social origin, colour, age, disability, religion, conscience, belief, culture, language and birth”.
- S:The Bill of Rights grants perhaps the most extensive range of rights to the citizens.
- (a)QSRP
- (b)SPQR
- (c)PQRS
- (d)PQSR
Answer: (d) PQSR
P gives the historical context of the Constitution’s creation. Q quotes its own words on the Bill of Rights. S says the Bill of Rights grants an extensive range of rights, and R (“Apropos”) lists specific grounds of protected rights, leading into S6 on enforcement.
S1: Our Constitution reminds us of the necessity of representation in a large democracy.
S6: Elections have today become the most visible symbol of the democratic process.
- P:This is why elections become important.
- Q:Therefore representatives are elected by the people.
- R:Whenever we think of India as a democracy, our mind invariably turns to our successful elections.
- S:All citizens cannot participate in taking every decision.
- (a)QSRP
- (b)SPQR
- (c)PQSR
- (d)SQPR
Answer: (d) SQPR
S explains why representation is needed: citizens cannot decide everything themselves. Q says representatives are therefore elected. P says this is why elections matter. R then turns to India’s own successful elections, leading into S6 about elections as democracy’s visible symbol.
Directions: Given below are sentences that use discourse markers/expressions to make them complete. Identify the most appropriate discourse marker/expression.
______ your transfer request is concerned, we'll be discussing it at the next meeting.
- (a)As far as
- (b)To begin with
- (c)By the way
- (d)Talking about
Answer: (a) As far as
“As far as X is concerned” is the standard fixed phrase for introducing a specific topic, here the transfer request.
______, did you know Ravi has a new job?
- (a)For one thing
- (b)By the way
- (c)In the first place
- (d)As a result
Answer: (b) By the way
“By the way” is the natural way to introduce a casual, related piece of news into a conversation.
______ the wind, it was getting stronger, and I was getting colder.
- (a)To begin with
- (b)By the way
- (c)First of all
- (d)Speaking of
Answer: (d) Speaking of
“Speaking of the wind” smoothly shifts the conversation onto a related detail, the wind getting stronger.
______, what are you doing in my room?
- (a)On the other hand
- (b)Excuse me
- (c)Look there
- (d)Eventually
Answer: (b) Excuse me
“Excuse me” is the natural opener for an indignant or surprised reaction to finding someone in one’s room.
______ an unhappy childhood leads to criminal behaviour.
- (a)Still if
- (b)Even somewhat
- (c)In some cases
- (d)In progression
Answer: (c) In some cases
The sentence needs a qualifier showing this happens only sometimes, not always — exactly what “in some cases” signals.
______, the problem is nothing but a wrong assumption about processes.
- (a)In the meanwhile
- (b)Somewhat
- (c)Engagingly
- (d)In other words
Answer: (d) In other words
“In other words” introduces a simpler restatement of a point, matching the sentence’s rephrasing of “the problem”.
Many, ______, hesitate to publicly broach such question for fear of nurturing discrimination.
- (a)understandably
- (b)despite
- (c)until
- (d)of course
Answer: (a) understandably
“Understandably” fits as a parenthetical comment explaining why many people hesitate — their hesitation is reasonable, given the fear of discrimination.
______, one notes that in the nineteenth century an important development of reflection and questioning gained momentum.
- (a)Particularly speaking
- (b)Generally speaking
- (c)Otherwise
- (d)Of course
Answer: (b) Generally speaking
“Generally speaking” is the standard opener for a broad observation, here about a shift in thinking during the nineteenth century.
______, the situation has completely transformed over the past few years.
- (a)Somewhat
- (b)Believably
- (c)Thus
- (d)Predominantly
Answer: (c) Thus
“Thus” is the natural sentence-opening discourse marker for stating a result or conclusion, matching a claim about how the situation has changed.
______, the committee is of the opinion that all academic matters will be discussed in the Executive Body Meeting.
- (a)Hence
- (b)But
- (c)Later
- (d)Although
Answer: (a) Hence
“Hence” signals that the committee’s opinion follows logically from something already discussed, fitting formal committee language.
Directions: Given below are words, followed by their appropriate meaning. Identify the correct meaning.
Cynosure:
- (a)Person or thing that causes a change
- (b)Person or thing that attracts a lot of attention
- (c)Person or thing regarded as exact copy
- (d)Person or animal that lives in a particular place
Answer: (b) Person or thing that attracts a lot of attention
“Cynosure”, literally a guiding star, means a person or thing that draws everyone’s attention.
Coeval:
- (a)Person of roughly the same age
- (b)Person or organisation that cooperates with others
- (c)Person employed to drive a private car
- (d)Person employed in taking census
Answer: (a) Person of roughly the same age
“Coeval” describes someone or something belonging to the same time period or age as another.
Retrogression:
- (a)Sudden sharp drop in price
- (b)Reverse pressure
- (c)Return to earlier state
- (d)Sudden occurrence of a past event
Answer: (c) Return to earlier state
“Retrogression” means moving backward to a less developed or earlier condition.
Imprest:
- (a)Surprise attack by people
- (b)Money used to manage small expenses
- (c)Sudden occurrence of laughter
- (d)Sudden increase in activity
Answer: (b) Money used to manage small expenses
An “imprest” is a fixed sum of money set aside, especially in accounting, to cover small day-to-day expenses.
Turgid:
- (a)Determined or loyal
- (b)Dirty or untidy
- (c)Swollen or distended
- (d)Excited or upset
Answer: (c) Swollen or distended
“Turgid” in its literal sense describes something swollen or distended, such as tissue filled with fluid.
Directions: Each of the following items consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled as P, Q, R and S. Select the option that sequences the parts correctly.
- P:participate in the function
- Q:many of the people who had come to
- R:the auditorium was over-crowded
- S:could not find a seat because
- (a)PRQS
- (b)PQRS
- (c)QPSR
- (d)SPRQ
Answer: (c) QPSR
The full sentence reads: “Many of the people who had come to participate in the function could not find a seat because the auditorium was over-crowded.”
- P:lay outside her existing life
- Q:she knew that the answer
- R:somewhere in the back of her mind
- S:to her questions about life
- (a)RPQS
- (b)QSPR
- (c)QPSR
- (d)RQSP
Answer: (d) RQSP
The full sentence reads: “Somewhere in the back of her mind, she knew that the answer to her questions about life lay outside her existing life.”
- P:works of literature
- Q:inside the pages of all good
- R:lies the truth about some of
- S:the more challenging questions posed by humanity
- (a)PRQS
- (b)QPRS
- (c)QPSR
- (d)RPSQ
Answer: (b) QPRS
The full sentence reads: “Inside the pages of all good works of literature lies the truth about some of the more challenging questions posed by humanity.”
- P:takes on account of its economic successes
- Q:to address continuing social inequality
- R:for every stride of progress any nation
- S:it takes two back if it is unable
- (a)PRQS
- (b)QPRS
- (c)RPSQ
- (d)RPQS
Answer: (c) RPSQ
The full sentence reads: “For every stride of progress any nation takes on account of its economic successes, it takes two back if it is unable to address continuing social inequality.”
- P:the book-value of a loan or
- Q:an intangible asset over a set period of time
- R:used to periodically lower
- S:amortisation is an accounting technique
- (a)SRPQ
- (b)RSPQ
- (c)SRQP
- (d)RPSQ
Answer: (a) SRPQ
The full sentence reads: “Amortisation is an accounting technique used to periodically lower the book-value of a loan or an intangible asset over a set period of time.”
Directions: The following items have a blank space followed by four options. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
There is more than ______ to get the job done.
- (a)one way
- (b)one ways
- (c)any ways
- (d)any way
Answer: (a) one way
“More than one way” is the standard idiom for saying a task can be done in several ways.
The class decided to organise ______.
- (a)picnic
- (b)a picnic
- (c)picnics
- (d)the picnic
Answer: (b) a picnic
“Picnic” is a singular countable noun being introduced for the first time here, so it needs the indefinite article “a”.
The accused ______ before the judge.
- (a)tried
- (b)was trial
- (c)sat trial
- (d)stood trial
Answer: (d) stood trial
“Stand trial” is the fixed legal phrase for being tried in court, so the past tense “stood trial” is correct.
The manner in which the demolitions have been carried out ______ scrutiny by the High Court.
- (a)was under
- (b)under
- (c)is under
- (d)however under
Answer: (c) is under
The singular subject “the manner” needs the present-tense verb “is”, giving “is under scrutiny”.
I ______ consider the opinions of all stakeholders before taking a final decision.
- (a)will not
- (b)have
- (c)will
- (d)shall
Answer: (d) shall
In formal English, “shall” is the traditional choice for expressing a first-person intention or resolve, as in this statement of policy.
Which of the following main industry/industries was/were developed in the second industrial revolution that took place after about 1850?
- (a)Coal and iron
- (b)Cotton spinning and weaving
- (c)Chemical and electrical
- (d)Steam engines
Answer: (c) Chemical and electrical
The first Industrial Revolution, from the late 1700s, ran on coal, iron, textiles, and steam engines.
The second Industrial Revolution, after about 1850, added chemical and electrical industries, along with steel and petroleum, driven by new science-based technology.
Which among the following materials was used in making the Harappan seals?
- (a)Sandstone
- (b)Lapis lazuli
- (c)Jasper
- (d)Steatite
Answer: (d) Steatite
Harappan seals were mostly carved from steatite, a soft stone that hardens when fired, giving it a distinctive white, lustrous finish. Sandstone, lapis lazuli, and jasper were used elsewhere in Indus craftwork, but not for seals.
Source: Testbook, Materials Used in Making Harappan Seals. Related: ArtnCulture0050 — The Indus Script, Seals, and System of Weights.
Which one among the following mahajanapadas in ancient India was an oligarchy?
- (a)Vajji
- (b)Kosala
- (c)Gandhara
- (d)Magadha
Answer: (a) Vajji
The Vajji Mahajanapada was a gana-sangha, an oligarchic confederacy governed by an elected council rather than a hereditary king. It is often seen as a later continuation of the older Rigvedic tradition of rule through tribal assemblies. Kosala, Gandhara and Magadha were all monarchies.
Which one of the following sculptures found at Sanchi Stupa is NOT directly inspired by Buddhist ideas?
- (a)Empty seat
- (b)Shalbhanjika
- (c)Tree
- (d)Wheel
Answer: (b) Shalbhanjika
The empty seat, the tree (the Bodhi tree), and the wheel (the Dharmachakra) are all direct Buddhist symbols, standing for the Buddha’s presence, enlightenment, and teaching.
Shalabhanjika is a yakshi figure from an older, pre-Buddhist fertility tradition, later absorbed into Buddhist art as a decorative and auspicious element, not a Buddhist symbol itself.
In British India, which one among the following Acts permitted detention without trial for up to two years?
- (a)Regulating Act, 1773
- (b)Rowlatt Act, 1919
- (c)Pitt's India Act, 1784
- (d)Government of India Act, 1935
Answer: (b) Rowlatt Act, 1919
The Rowlatt Act allowed the colonial government to imprison suspects without trial for up to two years, on mere suspicion of terrorism or sedition.
It sparked nationwide protests and became a direct trigger for the Jallianwala Bagh massacre and the Non-Cooperation Movement.
Which one of the following statements about the Bhoodan Movement is correct?
- (a)The target was to get one-sixth of cultivable land in India as donation
- (b)It was approved through a Central Government Act
- (c)It was ensured that the donated land was free from all litigation
- (d)The first donation of land was in Bihar
Answer: (a) the target was to get one-sixth of cultivable land in India as donation
Vinoba Bhave’s Bhoodan (land gift) Movement, started in 1951, aimed to collect about one-sixth of the cultivable land as voluntary donations for the landless. It was not approved by a central act, did not guarantee litigation-free land, and the first donation came from Andhra, not Bihar.
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The Constitution (Seventy-third Amendment) Act provides for
- (a)an elaborate system of establishing municipal self-government
- (b)an elaborate system of establishing panchayats as units of self-government
- (c)establishing a Commission for Linguistic Minorities
- (d)the creation of the Jharkhand State
Answer: (b) an elaborate system of establishing panchayats as units of self-government
The 73rd Amendment, passed in 1992, added Part IX to the Constitution, giving constitutional status to rural local self-government through a three-tier Panchayati Raj system.
Municipal self-government came separately through the 74th Amendment, not the 73rd.
(Source: Wikipedia, 73rd Amendment of the Constitution of India)
BHARATPOL portal has been developed by
- (a)The Election Commission of India
- (b)The Central Bureau of Investigation
- (c)The Enforcement Directorate
- (d)The Securities and Exchange Board of India
Answer: (b) The Central Bureau of Investigation
The CBI, India’s National Central Bureau for INTERPOL matters, built BHARATPOL to speed up Indian agencies’ requests for INTERPOL notices and cross-border cooperation. It launched on 7 January 2025, alongside INTERPOL’s own Silver Notice.
Related: IntlRel0087 — INTERPOL Notices
Which one of the following statements about the Parliament of India is correct?
- (a)A majority of members of Rajya Sabha are elected by a system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote
- (b)The Deputy Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha is nominated by the President from among the members of the Rajya Sabha
- (c)The Lok Sabha cannot be dissolved before the completion of its five year term
- (d)The members of Lok Sabha also vote in the election of the members of Rajya Sabha
Answer: (a) A majority of members of Rajya Sabha are elected by a system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote
State legislative assembly members elect most Rajya Sabha members this way, ensuring fair representation across parties.
The Deputy Chairperson is elected by Rajya Sabha members themselves, not nominated by the President. The Lok Sabha can be dissolved early by the President on the Council of Ministers’ advice. Rajya Sabha members are elected by state MLAs, not Lok Sabha members.
Which one among the following does NOT figure among the Five Principles of Panchsheel?
- (a)Mutual respect for each other's territorial integrity and sovereignty
- (b)Equality and mutual benefit
- (c)Peaceful coexistence
- (d)Nuclear non-proliferation
Answer: (d) Nuclear non-proliferation
Nuclear non-proliferation is NOT one of the Five Principles of Panchsheel. The five are: mutual respect for territorial integrity and sovereignty, mutual non-aggression, mutual non-interference in internal affairs, equality and mutual benefit, and peaceful coexistence.
Related: ModHist0003 — Nehru’s India: Nation-Building and Non-Alignment · IntlRel0041 — India-China Relations · View this question →
Maize (makka) was introduced into India in the seventeenth century via
- (a)Portugal
- (b)Africa and Spain
- (c)China and Mongolia
- (d)Turkey
Answer: (b) Africa and Spain
Maize reached India via Africa and Spain, becoming one of western India’s major crops by the seventeenth century.
It arrived alongside other New World crops like tomatoes, potatoes, chillies, pineapple, and papaya, all introduced through the same trade routes during the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries.
(Source: NCERT, Themes in Indian History Part II, Chapter 8 — Peasants, Zamindars and the State)
| List I | List II |
|---|---|
| A. Fifth Five Year Plan | 1. Towards Faster and More Inclusive Growth |
| B. Seventh Five Year Plan | 2. Garibi Hatao (Removal of Poverty) |
| C. Ninth Five Year Plan | 3. Food, Work and Productivity |
| D. Eleventh Five Year Plan | 4. Growth with Social Justice and Equality |
Code:
- (a)A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
- (b)A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
- (c)A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
- (d)A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
Answer: (b) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
The Fifth Plan (1974-78) is remembered for Garibi Hatao, the removal-of-poverty campaign.
The Seventh Plan (1985-90) focused on food, work, and productivity, the Ninth Plan (1997-2002) on growth with social justice and equality, and the Eleventh Plan (2007-12) on faster and more inclusive growth.
Which of the following statements about Srimanta Shankardeva is/are correct?
- 1. In the late fifteenth century Shankardeva emerged as one of the leading proponents of Vaishnavism in Assam
- 2. He was the founder of Gaudiya Vaishnavism
- 3. His teachings are known as Bhagavati Dharma
- 4. He encouraged the establishment of satra and naam ghar
- Select the answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)1, 3 and 4 only
- (d)1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
Shankardeva did emerge as Assam’s leading Vaishnava proponent in the late fifteenth century, his teachings are called Bhagavati Dharma, and he did establish satras and naam ghars.
Statement 2 is wrong: he founded a distinct Assamese Neo-Vaishnavism, not Gaudiya Vaishnavism, which Chaitanya Mahaprabhu founded separately in Bengal.
At which one among the following places did the British East India Company found its factory in the year 1611?
- (a)Madras
- (b)Masulipatam
- (c)Bombay
- (d)Balasore
Answer: (b) Masulipatam
The English East India Company founded a factory at Masulipatam on the Coromandel coast in 1611, one of its earliest settlements. Its first permanent factory was at Surat (1613), and Madras, Bombay and Balasore came later.
Related: ModHist0005 — The East India Company Becomes a Political Power · ModHist0077 — The English East India Company’s Early Settlements · View this question →
Chronologically arrange the following political events related to Indian National Movement beginning from the earliest: 1. Formation of Swaraj Party; 2. Communal Award; 3. Lucknow Pact; 4. Simla Conference. Select the answer using the code given below.
- (a)3, 1, 2, 4
- (b)1, 3, 2, 4
- (c)2, 1, 4, 3
- (d)1, 2, 3, 4
Answer: (a) 3, 1, 2, 4
The Lucknow Pact came first in 1916, an agreement between the Congress and the Muslim League.
The Swaraj Party formed next in 1923, followed by the Communal Award in 1932, and finally the Simla Conference in 1945.
Which among the following Acts provided for the establishment of a Supreme Court of Justice at Calcutta for Europeans, their employees and the citizens of India?
- (a)The Regulating Act of 1773
- (b)The Charter Act of 1793
- (c)The Charter Act of 1813
- (d)Government of India Act of 1858
Answer: (a) The Regulating Act of 1773
The Regulating Act of 1773 established a Supreme Court of Justice at Calcutta, with jurisdiction over Europeans, Company employees, and Indian citizens in the city.
This was the first major British attempt to regulate the East India Company’s growing power in India.
Who, among the following, has introduced a resolution in 1882 which is also called the Magna Carta of Local Self-Government in India?
- (a)Lord Macaulay
- (b)Lord Canning
- (c)Lord Ripon
- (d)Lord William Bentinck
Answer: (c) Lord Ripon
Lord Ripon, Viceroy of India (1880-84), issued the Local Self-Government Resolution of 1882, which set up elected municipal and district boards and earned him the title ‘Father of Local Self-Government in India’. Macaulay, Canning and Bentinck are different Governors/Viceroys.
Related: ModHist0007 — Ripon’s Local Self-Government and the Ilbert Bill Controversy · View this question →
Which one of the following terms is associated with the practice of Sufism?
- (a)Jizya
- (b)Ijma
- (c)Muqaddam
- (d)Murid
Answer: (d) Murid
In Sufi practice, a murid is a disciple who submits to a pir, a spiritual guide, seeking guidance on the mystical path.
Jizya was a tax on non-Muslims, Ijma is a concept in Islamic jurisprudence for scholarly consensus, and Muqaddam is a village headman term, none tied specifically to Sufism.
Consider the following features: 1. Consent of the governed; 2. Political equality; 3. Accountability of the ruled to the ruler. Which of the above feature/features outline democratic rule?
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)1, 2 and 3
- (d)3 only
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Democratic rule genuinely rests on the consent of the governed and political equality among citizens.
Statement 3 reverses the real democratic principle: in a democracy, the ruler is accountable to the ruled, not the other way around, so it does not describe democratic rule.
(Self-derived: standard political theory definition of democratic accountability)
Placing the earliest first, arrange the following countries in the chronological order in which they granted universal adult franchise: 1. USA; 2. Sri Lanka; 3. Japan; 4. India. Select the answer using the code given below.
- (a)1, 2, 3, 4
- (b)2, 3, 4, 1
- (c)1, 3, 4, 2
- (d)3, 4, 1, 2
Answer: (a) 1, 2, 3, 4
The USA granted women the vote in 1920 through the 19th Amendment, extending its franchise the earliest of these four.
Sri Lanka followed in 1931 under the Donoughmore Constitution, Japan in 1945 after World War II, and India in 1950 with its new Constitution.
(Source: NCERT, Political Theory, Class 11, Chapter on Equality)
Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
- (a)The molecules of soap are sodium or potassium salts of long chain fatty acids
- (b)The molecules of soap contain both hydrophobic and hydrophilic ends
- (c)Detergents are more effective than soaps in hard water
- (d)In micelles the ionic-end of the molecules is towards oil droplet while the other end faces outside
Answer: (d) In micelles the ionic-end of the molecules is towards oil droplet while the other end faces outside
Soap molecules do have a hydrophobic fatty-chain tail and a hydrophilic ionic head, and detergents genuinely outperform soap in hard water since they do not form scum with calcium and magnesium ions.
In a micelle, this arrangement is reversed from what the statement claims: the hydrophobic tail points inward toward the oil droplet, while the ionic head faces outward toward the surrounding water.
(Self-derived: standard NCERT chemistry of micelle formation)
Which one of the following statements is correct?
- (a)A neutron is formed by combination of an electron and a proton. Therefore, it is neutral
- (b)The mass of an electron is about 1/2000 times that of a proton
- (c)An isotope of cobalt is used in the treatment of goiter
- (d)J. J. Thomson proposed that the nucleus of an atom contains only neutrons
Answer: (b) The mass of an electron is about 1/2000 times that of a proton
An electron’s actual mass is about 1/1836 of a proton’s mass, commonly rounded to roughly 1/2000 in textbooks.
A neutron is a separate fundamental particle, not literally a combination of an electron and a proton. Cobalt-60 treats cancer, not goiter, which uses iodine-131 instead. J.J. Thomson proposed the plum-pudding model with no nucleus at all, well before neutrons were even discovered.
(Self-derived: standard NCERT atomic structure facts)
Which one of the following particles in the nucleus of an atom was discovered by J. Chadwick?
- (a)Electron
- (b)Proton
- (c)Positron
- (d)Neutron
Answer: (d) Neutron
James Chadwick discovered the neutron in 1932, confirming a particle Rutherford had predicted years earlier.
The electron was discovered by J.J. Thomson, the proton’s charge was identified by Rutherford, and the positron was discovered by Carl Anderson.
Which one of the following findings is NOT observed in Rutherford's Nuclear Model of Atom?
- (a)There is a neutral centre in an atom called nucleus
- (b)Nearly all the mass of an atom resides in the nucleus
- (c)The electrons revolve around the nucleus in a circular path
- (d)The size of a nucleus is very small as compared to the size of atom
Answer: (a) There is a neutral centre in an atom called nucleus
Rutherford’s gold foil experiment in 1911 showed the nucleus is positively charged, not neutral, since alpha particles were repelled by it.
His model did correctly find that nearly all the mass sits in the nucleus, electrons revolve around it, and the nucleus is tiny compared to the atom’s overall size.
(Self-derived: standard NCERT account of Rutherford’s nuclear model of the atom)
Element X forms a chloride with the formula XCl2, which is a solid with high melting point. X would most likely be in the same group of periodic table as
- (a)Na
- (b)Al
- (c)Mg
- (d)K
Answer: (c) Mg
The formula XCl2 shows X has a valency of +2, forming an ionic solid the same way magnesium does in MgCl2.
Na and K are Group 1 elements with a +1 valency, forming NaCl and KCl instead, and Al is Group 13 with a +3 valency, forming AlCl3.
(Self-derived: standard chemistry rule matching valency to periodic table group)
Which one of the following oxides is a neutral oxide?
- (a)CO
- (b)CO2
- (c)Na2O
- (d)MgO
Answer: (a) CO
Carbon monoxide is a neutral oxide, meaning it does not react with acids or bases to form a salt and water.
CO2 is acidic, forming carbonic acid in water, while Na2O and MgO are both basic oxides.
(Self-derived: standard NCERT classification of oxides as acidic, basic, or neutral)
Which one of the following is also known as Dry ice in its solid form?
- (a)SiO2
- (b)CO2
- (c)CaO
- (d)MgO
Answer: (b) CO2
Solid carbon dioxide is called dry ice because it turns directly into gas without melting into a liquid first, leaving no wet residue.
It is used for refrigeration and creating stage fog, since it stays extremely cold while sublimating.
(Self-derived: standard chemistry fact about carbon dioxide’s solid form)
Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
- (a)A scale measuring hydrogen ion concentration in a solution is called pH scale
- (b)The higher the hydrogen ion concentration in a solution, higher is its pH
- (c)We can measure pH generally from 0 to 14 on a pH scale
- (d)The 'p' in pH stands for 'potenz' in German meaning power
Answer: (b) The higher the hydrogen ion concentration in a solution, higher is its pH
pH and hydrogen ion concentration move in opposite directions: a higher hydrogen ion concentration actually means a lower pH, not a higher one.
The pH scale genuinely measures hydrogen ion concentration, usually runs from 0 to 14, and ‘p’ does stand for the German word potenz, meaning power.
(Self-derived: standard chemistry definition of pH as an inverse logarithmic scale)
Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
- (a)Half mole of nitrogen gas is measured 11.2 litre at STP
- (b)17 gram of ammonia gas contains 6.022 × 10^23 molecules at STP
- (c)22.4 litre of CO2 gas at STP contains 44 gram of molecules
- (d)4 gram of hydrogen gas contains 6.022 × 10^23 molecules
Answer: (d) 4 gram of hydrogen gas contains 6.022 × 10^23 molecules
Hydrogen gas (H2) has a molar mass of 2 grams, so 4 grams equals 2 moles, containing about 1.2044 × 10^24 molecules, not 6.022 × 10^23.
Half a mole of nitrogen genuinely occupies 11.2 litres at STP, 17 grams of ammonia is exactly 1 mole, and 22.4 litres of CO2 at STP does weigh 44 grams.
(Self-derived: standard mole-concept and Avogadro’s number calculations)
Which one of the following statements about a compound is NOT correct?
- (a)A compound is a substance composed of two or more elements, chemically combined in a fixed proportion
- (b)Properties of a compound are different from its constituent elements
- (c)A compound is an impure substance
- (d)The constituents of a compound can be separated only by chemical or electrochemical reactions
Answer: (c) A compound is an impure substance
A compound is actually a pure substance, with a fixed, definite chemical composition throughout.
Impurity and variable composition describe mixtures instead, not compounds.
Compounds do combine two or more elements in a fixed proportion, have properties different from their elements, and split apart only through chemical or electrochemical means, not physical separation.
(Self-derived: standard NCERT definition of compounds as pure substances)
| List I | List II |
|---|---|
| A. Washing soda | 1. CaOCl2 |
| B. Baking soda | 2. NaHCO3 |
| C. Bleaching powder | 3. Na2CO3.10H2O |
| D. Gypsum | 4. CaSO4.2H2O |
Code:
- (a)A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
- (b)A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
- (c)A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
- (d)A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
Answer: (d) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
Washing soda is sodium carbonate decahydrate, Na2CO3.10H2O, and baking soda is sodium bicarbonate, NaHCO3.
Bleaching powder is calcium oxychloride, CaOCl2, and gypsum is calcium sulfate dihydrate, CaSO4.2H2O.
(Self-derived: standard chemistry formulas for common household and industrial compounds)
Which one of the following nitrogen oxides may dimerize?
- (a)N2O
- (b)NO2
- (c)N2O3
- (d)N2O5
Answer: (b) NO2
Nitrogen dioxide has an unpaired electron, making it a radical, and two NO2 molecules readily pair up to form dinitrogen tetroxide, N2O4.
This dimerization happens because pairing the odd electrons lowers the overall energy of the system.
Which one of the following statements regarding oxidation and reduction reactions is NOT correct?
- (a)If a substance loses hydrogen during reaction, it is reduced
- (b)If a substance loses oxygen during reaction, it is reduced
- (c)If a substance gains hydrogen during reaction, it is reduced
- (d)If a substance gains oxygen during reaction, it is oxidized
Answer: (a) If a substance loses hydrogen during reaction, it is reduced
Losing hydrogen is actually oxidation, not reduction, the reverse of what this statement claims.
Losing oxygen and gaining hydrogen are both genuinely reduction, while gaining oxygen is genuinely oxidation, matching standard NCERT definitions.
(Self-derived: standard NCERT definitions of oxidation and reduction in terms of hydrogen and oxygen transfer)
| List I | List II |
|---|---|
| A. Temperature | 1. Kelvin |
| B. Weight | 2. Kilogram |
| C. Mass | 3. Pascal |
| D. Pressure | 4. Newton |
Code:
- (a)A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
- (b)A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
- (c)A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
- (d)A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
Answer: (c) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
Temperature is measured in kelvin, and mass in kilogram, the two base SI units in this list.
Weight is a force, measured in newton, and pressure, force per unit area, is measured in pascal.
(Self-derived: standard SI units for physical quantities)
For acid rain, the pH of rain water should be less than
- (a)7.0
- (b)6.6
- (c)5.6
- (d)8.0
Answer: (c) 5.6
Normal rainwater is already slightly acidic, around pH 5.6, from carbon dioxide dissolving in it. Rain is called acid rain only when pollutants push its pH below that natural baseline.
Related: GenSci0002 — Chemistry Fundamentals for Competitive Exams
Consider the following lines of Longitude and Latitude: 1. Prime Meridian; 2. Tropic of Cancer; 3. Equator. Which of the above lines is/are a Great Circle?
- (a)1, 2 and 3
- (b)1 and 2 only
- (c)1 and 3 only
- (d)3 only
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only
A great circle is any circle on Earth’s surface whose plane passes through the Earth’s centre, splitting it into two equal halves.
The Equator qualifies, and the Prime Meridian, paired with its opposite 180-degree meridian, also forms a great circle.
The Tropic of Cancer, like all latitude lines except the Equator, is a small circle, since its plane does not pass through Earth’s centre.
Which of the following is the correct ascending order of the given minerals in terms of their presence in the Earth's crust? 1. Amphibolite; 2. Mica; 3. Pyroxene. Select the answer using the code given below.
- (a)2, 3, 1
- (b)1, 2, 3
- (c)2, 1, 3
- (d)1, 3, 2
Answer: (c) 2, 1, 3
Per NCERT, mica makes up about 4 per cent of the Earth’s crust, amphibole about 7 per cent, and pyroxene about 10 per cent.
In ascending order, this places mica first, then amphibole, then pyroxene.
(Source: NCERT, Class XI Geography, Minerals and Rocks)
Which of the following is/are the applied forces in mechanical weathering process? 1. Gravitational force; 2. Expansion force; 3. Force due to water pressure. Select the answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 only
- (b)1 and 2 only
- (c)2 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
NCERT lists all three as applied forces behind mechanical weathering: gravitational forces like overburden pressure and shearing stress, expansion forces from temperature change or crystal growth, and water pressure from wetting and drying cycles.
Together these forces fracture rock through repeated stress, without any chemical change to the rock itself.
(Source: NCERT, Class XI Geography, Geomorphic Processes)
Which of the following is/are cold ocean current/currents? 1. Alaska Current; 2. North Atlantic Drift; 3. West Wind Drift. Select the answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 only
- (b)1 and 2
- (c)2 and 3
- (d)3 only
Answer: (d) 3 only
The West Wind Drift, also called the Antarctic Circumpolar Current, is a genuinely cold current flowing west to east around Antarctica.
The Alaska Current and the North Atlantic Drift are both warm currents, the latter extending the Gulf Stream northeastward across the Atlantic.
Which one of the following latitudes will experience a minimum angle of the Sun's rays when it is Summer Solstice in the Northern Hemisphere?
- (a)Arctic Circle
- (b)Equator
- (c)Tropic of Cancer
- (d)Tropic of Capricorn
Answer: (d) Tropic of Capricorn
During the Northern summer solstice, the sun sits directly overhead the Tropic of Cancer, giving a 90-degree angle there.
The sun’s angle drops the further a place sits from this overhead point. The Tropic of Capricorn, about 47 degrees away, ends up with the lowest angle among these four, around 43 degrees, lower than the Equator (66.5 degrees) or even the Arctic Circle (47 degrees).
(Self-derived: solar elevation angle calculation using latitude and solar declination)
Which of the following statements with reference to Coriolis force is/are correct? 1. Coriolis force acts perpendicular to the pressure gradient force; 2. At the equator, the Coriolis force is zero and the wind blows perpendicular to the isobars. Select the answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
NCERT describes the Coriolis force as acting perpendicular to the pressure gradient force, since it deflects moving air rather than pulling it directly along the pressure gradient.
The Coriolis force follows the formula 2vωsin(latitude), which becomes zero at the equator since sin(0 degrees) equals zero.
Without this deflecting force, wind at the equator flows directly from high to low pressure, straight across the isobars rather than parallel to them.
(Source: NCERT, Class XI Geography, Atmospheric Circulation and Weather Systems)
Which of the following statements with reference to Sleet is/are correct? 1. Sleet is frozen raindrops and refrozen melted snow-water; 2. It occurs when a layer of air with the temperature below freezing point overlies a warm layer near the ground surface. Select the answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Statement 2 has it backwards: sleet forms when a layer of air ABOVE freezing point overlies a colder, SUBFREEZING layer near the ground, not the reverse.
Humid Subtropical Climate is NOT experienced in which one among the following regions?
- (a)Coastal South Africa
- (b)East coast of Australia
- (c)South Japan
- (d)South Argentina
Answer: (d) South Argentina
South Argentina, Patagonia, sits under the influence of the cold Humboldt Current and strong westerly winds, giving it a cold, arid to semi-arid climate rather than humid subtropical.
Coastal South Africa (KwaZulu-Natal), the east coast of Australia, and South Japan all genuinely have humid subtropical climate, on the eastern sides of their continents at similar latitudes.
Mahendragiri, the highest peak of the Eastern Ghats, is located in which one of the following states?
- (a)Andhra Pradesh
- (b)Odisha
- (c)Telangana
- (d)Tamil Nadu
Answer: (b) Odisha
Mahendragiri sits in Odisha’s Gajapati district, at about 1,501 metres. Note: the question’s own premise is imprecise — Jindhagada (Arma Konda), in Andhra Pradesh’s Araku Valley at 1,690 metres, is actually the Eastern Ghats’ true highest peak.
Related: IndGeo0025 — The Eastern Ghats
Temperate forests of South India, known as 'Sholas' are found in which of the following hills? 1. Anaimalai; 2. Nilgiris; 3. Palani. Select the answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 only
- (b)1 and 2 only
- (c)2 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Shola forests, stunted evergreen patches sheltered in high-altitude valleys, occur across all three ranges: Anaimalai, Nilgiris, and Palani. · IndGeo0051 — The Palakkad Gap
As per the Annual Report 2023-24 of the Ministry of Mines, Government of India, which of the following states are the major producer of Copper in the country?
- (a)Rajasthan and Gujarat
- (b)Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh
- (c)Jharkhand and Rajasthan
- (d)Jharkhand and Madhya Pradesh
Answer: (b) Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh
Per the Ministry of Mines Annual Report 2023-24, Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh together account for most of India’s copper production.
Rajasthan alone is the country’s single largest copper-producing state, with its Khetri belt among the major copper deposits in India.
Which one among the following is NOT a major oil field located in Gujarat?
- (a)Ankaleshwar
- (b)Kosamba
- (c)Mehsana
- (d)Moran
Answer: (d) Moran
Moran is an oil field in Assam’s Brahmaputra Valley, part of the Moran-Hugrijan field, not in Gujarat at all.
Ankleshwar, Kosamba, and Mehsana are all genuine Gujarat oil fields, located within the Cambay Basin in western India.
As per the Land Revenue Records, any land is categorized as Culturable Waste-Land if it is left fallow (uncultivated) for more than
- (a)2 years
- (b)3 years
- (c)4 years
- (d)5 years
Answer: (d) 5 years
Land left fallow for more than five years is classified as culturable wasteland in land revenue records, even though it is capable of being cultivated.
Such land can return to farming after reclamation, distinguishing it from land left fallow for shorter periods, which falls under other fallow categories.
(Source: NCERT, Land Resources and Agriculture)
Which one among the following is NOT included in the National Food Security Mission Commercial Crops (NFSM-CC)?
- (a)Cotton
- (b)Coffee
- (c)Jute
- (d)Sugar cane
Answer: (b) Coffee
NFSM-Commercial Crops (NFSM-CC) covers cotton, jute and sugarcane. Coffee is a plantation crop handled separately and is therefore NOT among the commercial crops covered under the National Food Security Mission.
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Consider the following statements with regard to a steel plant: I. It was setup in 1964 with Russian collaboration; II. It receives iron ore from the Rourkela region; III. Water and Hydel power is supplied by the Damodar Valley Corporation. Identify the Steel Plant on the basis of the above facts.
- (a)Bhilai Steel Plant
- (b)Bokaro Steel Plant
- (c)Rourkela Steel Plant
- (d)Durgapur Steel Plant
Answer: (b) Bokaro Steel Plant
Bokaro Steel Plant was incorporated in 1964 and built with Soviet Union collaboration, sitting in Jharkhand’s mineral-rich Chota Nagpur plateau region.
It draws iron ore from the Rourkela-area mines and receives water and hydel power support from the Damodar Valley Corporation.
An offshore terminal at Vadinar has been developed to reduce pressure from which of the following major ports in India?
- (a)Kandla Port
- (b)Cochin Port
- (c)Mormugao Port
- (d)New Mangalore Port
Answer: (a) Kandla Port
Vadinar’s offshore oil terminal, run under Deendayal (Kandla) Port Trust, handles crude oil and petroleum products in the Gulf of Kutch.
By diverting large tanker traffic away from Kandla’s main harbour, it lets Kandla focus on other cargo and reduces congestion at the port.
(Source: Deendayal Port Authority, Offshore Oil Terminal Vadinar)
As per the India State of Forest Report 2021, which one of the following Himalayan states has the highest percentage of its geographical area under forest?
- (a)Arunachal Pradesh
- (b)Himachal Pradesh
- (c)Sikkim
- (d)Uttarakhand
Answer: (a) Arunachal Pradesh
Per the India State of Forest Report 2021, Arunachal Pradesh has about 79.33 per cent forest cover, among the highest of any Indian state.
Himachal Pradesh, Sikkim, and Uttarakhand all fall in a lower 33 to 75 per cent forest cover range.
Which of the following statements with reference to L-Wave or Long Wave generated by an earthquake is/are correct? 1. They follow the Earth's circumference; 2. They travel at more or less at a constant rate. Select the answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
L-waves, surface waves generated when P and S waves reach the surface, travel along the Earth’s surface, following its circumference.
Their speed is not constant, though, and instead varies with the properties of the material they pass through, so the second statement is false.
Which one of the following is formed when volcanic ash is carried by running water and is deposited as a sedimentary layer?
- (a)Basalt
- (b)Lapilli
- (c)Slate
- (d)Tuff
Answer: (d) Tuff
Tuff is a light, porous rock formed from compacted and cemented volcanic ash, including ash reworked and redeposited by rivers and streams into sedimentary layers.
Basalt forms from cooled lava, lapilli are loose pea-to-walnut-sized volcanic fragments, and slate is a metamorphic rock, none matching this water-deposited-ash description.
Condensation of water vapour into water is influenced by which of the following factor/factors? 1. Volume of air; 2. Humidity; 3. Temperature. Select the answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 only
- (b)1 and 2 only
- (c)2 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Condensation is influenced by the volume of air, its temperature, pressure, and humidity together, not any single factor alone.
The lactic acid that gets accumulated in the muscle cells during rigorous exercise causing muscle cramps is produced from
- (a)ATP
- (b)Pyruvate
- (c)Ethanol
- (d)Glucose
Answer: (b) Pyruvate
During rigorous exercise, muscle cells break down glucose into pyruvate through glycolysis, without needing oxygen.
When oxygen is in short supply, this pyruvate converts directly into lactic acid, which builds up and causes muscle cramps.
(Self-derived: standard NCERT biology of anaerobic respiration in muscle cells)
A chain of peptide containing linear sequences of amino acid linked by peptide bonds best represent the
- (a)Primary structure
- (b)Secondary structure
- (c)Tertiary structure
- (d)Quaternary structure
Answer: (a) Primary structure
A protein’s primary structure is simply its linear sequence of amino acids, held together by peptide bonds.
Secondary structure describes local folding patterns like helices and sheets, tertiary structure is the full 3D folded shape, and quaternary structure describes multiple polypeptide chains joining together.
(Self-derived: standard NCERT biology of protein structure levels)
Cambium is an example of
- (a)Lateral meristem
- (b)Apical meristem
- (c)Intercalary meristem
- (d)Permanent tissue
Answer: (a) Lateral meristem
Cambium sits along the sides of stems and roots, adding new cells that increase a plant’s girth, which is why it counts as a lateral meristem.
Apical meristem drives growth in length at root and shoot tips, and intercalary meristem sits at the base of leaves or internodes, neither matching cambium’s location or role.
(Self-derived: standard NCERT classification of plant meristems)
What happens when the fat and oil containing food materials are left outside for a long time?
- (a)Fats and oils in the food get oxidized
- (b)Fats and oils in the food get reduced
- (c)Fats and oils in the food get ice-covered
- (d)No reaction takes place
Answer: (a) Fats and oils in the food get oxidized
Exposure to air over time makes fats and oils in food react with oxygen, a process called rancidity.
This oxidation changes the smell and taste of the food, making it unpleasant and unhealthy to eat, which is why foods are often packed in nitrogen or with antioxidants to slow the process.
(Self-derived: standard NCERT chemistry of rancidity through oxidation)
Which is the correct base pairing found in a normal DNA molecule?
- (a)Adenine pairs with Thymine
- (b)Adenine pairs with Guanine
- (c)Adenine pairs with Cytosine
- (d)Thymine pairs with Guanine
Answer: (a) Adenine pairs with Thymine
DNA follows fixed base-pairing rules: adenine always pairs with thymine, and guanine always pairs with cytosine.
This complementary pairing, held together by hydrogen bonds, keeps the DNA double helix’s two strands matched and stable.
(Self-derived: standard Watson-Crick base pairing rules for DNA)
Clotting of blood involves which one among the following clotting proteins?
- (a)Pathogen
- (b)Fibrinogen
- (c)Macrophage
- (d)Phagocytes
Answer: (b) Fibrinogen
Fibrinogen, a protein made in the liver and carried in blood plasma, converts into fibrin threads at a wound site, forming the mesh that traps blood cells and seals the injury.
Pathogens are disease-causing organisms, and macrophages and phagocytes are immune cells that engulf pathogens, none of them clotting proteins.
(Self-derived: standard NCERT biology of blood clotting)
Initial discovery of antibiotic penicillin was done by
- (a)Francis Crick
- (b)Maurice Wilkins
- (c)Charles Darwin
- (d)Alexander Fleming
Answer: (d) Alexander Fleming
Alexander Fleming discovered penicillin in 1928 after noticing a mould, Penicillium notatum, killing bacteria in a lab dish he had left uncovered.
Crick and Wilkins are associated with DNA structure research, and Darwin with evolutionary theory, none connected to penicillin’s discovery.
The vector of malaria parasites is
- (a)Male Anopheles mosquito
- (b)Male Culex mosquito
- (c)Female Anopheles mosquito
- (d)Female Culex mosquito
Answer: (c) Female Anopheles mosquito
Only female Anopheles mosquitoes transmit the Plasmodium parasite that causes malaria, since they need a blood meal to develop their eggs.
Male mosquitoes feed on plant nectar, not blood, so they cannot transmit the parasite, and Culex mosquitoes instead spread diseases like filariasis and Japanese encephalitis.
(Self-derived: standard NCERT biology of disease vectors)
Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched? 1. Malaria : Mycobacterium; 2. TB : Plasmodium. Select the answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Malaria is caused by Plasmodium, a protozoan parasite, not by Mycobacterium.
Tuberculosis is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, a bacterium, not by Plasmodium. Both pairs in the question have their causative agents swapped.
(Self-derived: standard NCERT biology of disease-causing organisms)
Vitamin B1 is also known as
- (a)Riboflavin
- (b)Thiamin
- (c)Retinol
- (d)Tocopherol
Answer: (b) Thiamin
Vitamin B1 is thiamin, needed for converting food into energy and for healthy nerve function.
Riboflavin is Vitamin B2, retinol is Vitamin A, and tocopherol is Vitamin E, each a different vitamin entirely.
(Self-derived: standard chemical names of common vitamins)
Gaja Dwar, Ashwa Dwar, Garuda Dwar, Makar Dwar, Shardula Dwar and Hamsa Dwar are located in a building at
- (a)New Delhi
- (b)Varanasi
- (c)Aurangabad
- (d)Thanjevur
Answer: (a) New Delhi
These six animal-named gates, Elephant, Horse, Eagle, Crocodile, Lion, and Swan, are the entrances to India’s new Parliament building in New Delhi.
Each gate draws on Indian mythology and folklore, symbolising strength, speed, vision, and other qualities meant to reflect the institution’s role.
(Source: Business Today, Six Entrances to the New Parliament)
Which dance form of India has been inscribed into UNESCO's Representative List of Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity?
- (a)Kathakali
- (b)Garba
- (c)Bhangra
- (d)Odissi
Answer: (b) Garba
UNESCO inscribed Garba of Gujarat onto its Representative List of Intangible Cultural Heritage in December 2023, India’s 15th entry on this list.
Garba is a devotional dance performed during Navaratri, honoring the goddess Shakti, danced in a counter-clockwise circle around a lamp-lit pot.
Which Ministry has initiated the “Dhara”, a special initiative dedicated to Indian Knowledge System (IKS)?
- (a)The Ministry of Education
- (b)The Ministry of Home Affairs
- (c)The Ministry of Information & Broadcasting
- (d)The Ministry of Culture
Answer: (d) The Ministry of Culture
“Dhara: An Ode to Indian Knowledge Systems” was launched by the Ministry of Culture under Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav, running as a series of lectures on India’s civilizational achievements.
The Ministry of Education’s IKS Division serves as a key execution partner for the conference series, but the initiative itself belongs to the Ministry of Culture.
The scheme PRASHAD (Pilgrimage Rejuvenation & Spiritual Heritage Augmentation Drive) provides assistance for
- (a)e-Visa Facility
- (b)Multilingual Tourist Infoline
- (c)The development of tourism infrastructures in States & Union Territories
- (d)Promoting Dekho Apna Desh scheme
Answer: (c) The development of tourism infrastructures in States & Union Territories
PRASHAD, run by the Ministry of Tourism, gives 100 per cent central funding to states and UTs for developing pilgrimage and heritage site infrastructure.
This covers sanitation, drinking water, lighting, parking, and beautification at destinations like Varanasi, Amritsar, and Ajmer, now spanning 41 sites across 25 states.
(Source: MyScheme, PRASHAD Scheme)
Related: IndEco0211 — Tourism Infrastructure Development in India
The Joint Venture named 'ASHVINI' to develop nuclear power facility in India is between
- (a)NPCIL and NTPC
- (b)TMC and VECC
- (c)HWB and BARC
- (d)IGACR and NTPC
Answer: (a) NPCIL and NTPC
ASHVINI (Anushakti Vidyut Nigam Ltd.) is a joint venture between NPCIL (51%) and NTPC (49%), approved in September 2024, to build, own, and operate nuclear power plants.
Which one of the following statements about 'REJUPAVE' is correct?
- (a)It's a joint venture between Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO) and Government of India to promote organic farming
- (b)It's the name given to the lightest surveillance aircraft developed by DRDO
- (c)It's a centrally sponsored flagship Programme of the Ministry of Women and Child Development, Government of India
- (d)It's an indigenously developed road construction technology at high altitudes
Answer: (d) It’s an indigenously developed road construction technology at high altitudes
REJUPAVE, developed by CSIR-Central Road Research Institute, recycles bituminous pavement material at lower temperatures, aiding road construction at sub-zero, high-altitude sites.
The Border Roads Organisation has used it near the Indo-China border in Arunachal Pradesh and in Ladakh’s Drass region, at altitudes up to 18,000 feet.
Which of the following statements about 'C-Bot' is/are correct? 1. It's an underwater vehicle to monitor coral reefs; 2. It has been developed by CSIR and NIO. Select the answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
C-Bot is an autonomous underwater vehicle developed by CSIR-National Institute of Oceanography (NIO), Goa, to monitor coral reefs at depths up to 200 metres. Related: SciTech0085 — CSIR
India's Gas Turbine Research Establishment (GTRE), part of the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) has developed an aero-engine which will potentially make India self-reliance in aero-engine technology. What is the name of the engine?
- (a)Ganga
- (b)Yamuna
- (c)Krishna
- (d)Kaveri
Answer: (d) Kaveri
The Kaveri engine is GTRE’s indigenous turbofan engine project, originally meant to power the Tejas Light Combat Aircraft.
It has since been adapted for use in unmanned platforms and continues development as part of India’s push for self-reliance in aero-engine technology.
Who among the following Presidents/Vice Presidents of the United States of America was awarded Nobel Peace Prize for work to find peaceful solutions to international conflicts, to advance democracy and human rights, and to promote economic and social development?
- (a)Jimmy Carter
- (b)Woodrow Wilson
- (c)Barack Obama
- (d)Al Gore
Answer: (a) Jimmy Carter
The Nobel Committee awarded Jimmy Carter the 2002 Peace Prize for exactly this reason, citing his decades of work resolving international conflicts, advancing democracy and human rights, and promoting economic and social development.
This recognized his post-presidency conflict-mediation work through the Carter Center, following his Camp David Accords mediation while in office.
Which among the following agencies releases report on 'S.A.F.E. Accommodation: Worker Housing for Manufacturing Growth'?
- (a)RBI
- (b)NITI Aayog
- (c)National Housing Bank
- (d)Housing and Urban Development Corporation
Answer: (b) NITI Aayog
NITI Aayog released this report in December 2024, highlighting secure, affordable, flexible, and efficient housing for industrial workers as key to boosting manufacturing.
It proposed a public-private partnership model with viability gap funding to build worker housing near industrial hubs, aiming to cut attrition and improve productivity.
An object is placed between infinity and the pole (P) of a convex mirror. The position of the image is
- (a)between pole (P) and the focus (F), behind the mirror
- (b)between the focus (F) and infinity, behind the mirror
- (c)between the pole (P) and the infinity, in front of the mirror
- (d)at the focus (F), behind the mirror
Answer: (a) between pole (P) and the focus (F), behind the mirror
A convex mirror always forms a virtual, erect, and diminished image, no matter where the real object sits between the pole and infinity.
This image always forms behind the mirror, squeezed between the pole and the focus, which is why security mirrors and side-view mirrors using convex shapes always show a compressed, upright view.
(Self-derived: standard ray-diagram behavior of convex mirrors)
The work done in moving a charge of 2 coulomb (C) from point A to point B is 24 J. What is the potential difference between A and B?
- (a)48 V
- (b)6 V
- (c)12 V
- (d)0.08 V
Answer: (c) 12 V
Potential difference equals work done divided by charge moved, V = W/Q.
Dividing 24 joules by 2 coulombs gives 12 volts.
(Self-derived: standard formula relating potential difference, work, and charge)
Two conducting wires of the same material and of equal lengths and equal diameters are first connected in parallel and then in series in a circuit across the same potential difference. The ratio of heat produced in parallel and series combinations is
- (a)2:1
- (b)4:1
- (c)1:2
- (d)1:4
Answer: (b) 4:1
For two equal resistors R, the parallel combination has resistance R/2, while the series combination has resistance 2R.
Since heat produced equals V squared divided by resistance, the parallel setup produces 4 times more heat than the series setup at the same voltage.
(Self-derived: standard formula for heat dissipation, H = V squared over R, in series and parallel circuits)
The magnetic field inside a long straight solenoid-carrying current
- (a)is zero
- (b)decreases as we move towards its end
- (c)increases as we move towards its end
- (d)is uniform inside the solenoid
Answer: (d) is uniform inside the solenoid
Inside a long solenoid, the magnetic field lines run parallel to its axis and stay evenly spaced, giving a uniform field strength throughout the interior.
The field only weakens near the very ends of the solenoid, well away from the uniform region deep inside.
(Self-derived: standard NCERT physics of solenoid magnetic fields)
A car has an initial velocity of 12 m/s and is brought to rest over a distance of 45 m. The acceleration of the car is
- (a)+1.6 m/s^2
- (b)+3.2 m/s^2
- (c)-1.6 m/s^2
- (d)-0.8 m/s^2
Answer: (c) -1.6 m/s^2
Using v squared equals u squared plus 2 times acceleration times distance, with final velocity 0, initial velocity 12 m/s, and distance 45 m, gives acceleration of -1.6 m/s squared.
The negative sign shows the car is decelerating, since it comes to rest rather than speeding up.
(Self-derived: standard kinematics equation v squared = u squared + 2as)
The universal constant of gravitation G has the unit
- (a)N
- (b)m/s
- (c)Joule
- (d)N-m^2/kg^2
Answer: (d) N-m^2/kg^2
Newton’s law of gravitation gives force as G times mass1 times mass2, divided by distance squared.
Rearranging for G shows its unit must be newton-metre squared per kilogram squared, so the force and distance units balance out correctly.
(Self-derived: dimensional analysis of Newton’s law of gravitation)
Two bodies of unequal masses are dropped from a tower. At any instant, they have equal
- (a)Momentum
- (b)Acceleration
- (c)Potential energy
- (d)Kinetic energy
Answer: (b) Acceleration
In free fall, gravity accelerates every object at the same rate, g, regardless of its mass.
Momentum, potential energy, and kinetic energy all depend on mass, so unequal masses would give different values for each of those, even while falling at the same acceleration.
(Self-derived: standard physics of free fall under gravity)
The frequency (f), wavelength (λ) and speed (v) of a sound wave are related as
- (a)f = vλ
- (b)λ = vf
- (c)f = λ/v
- (d)v = λf
Answer: (d) v = λf
A wave’s speed equals its wavelength multiplied by its frequency, since each wavelength passes a fixed point once per cycle.
This wave equation holds for sound waves just as it does for light and other wave types.
(Self-derived: standard wave equation v = λf)
The length of a simple pendulum is increased four times to its previous value while the mass is doubled. What is the ratio of the new and previous time period of the pendulum?
- (a)3:1
- (b)2:5
- (c)2:1
- (d)3:2
Answer: (c) 2:1
A simple pendulum’s time period depends only on its length, not its mass. Quadrupling the length to 4L gives a new period T’ = 2π√(4L/g) = 2 × 2π√(L/g), exactly double the original.
Which one of the following is NOT a basic property of electric charge?
- (a)Charges can be added
- (b)Charge is conserved
- (c)Charge on a body is always an integral multiple of an electron or a proton charge
- (d)Charges can be created and destroyed in an isolated system
Answer: (d) Charges can be created and destroyed in an isolated system
Charge conservation is a basic physical law: the total charge in an isolated system stays fixed, and cannot be created or destroyed, only transferred.
Charges genuinely can be added together, charge is quantized in integer multiples of the electron’s charge, and it is conserved, matching the other three options.
(Self-derived: standard NCERT properties of electric charge)
What happens when the sunlight travels through the Earth's atmosphere?
- (a)The blue colour is scattered more compared to the red colour
- (b)The red colour is scattered more compared to the blue colour
- (c)Both the blue and the red colours are scattered equally
- (d)The blue colour is not scattered but the red colour is scattered the most
Answer: (a) The blue colour is scattered more compared to the red colour
Rayleigh scattering causes shorter-wavelength light, like blue, to scatter far more than longer-wavelength light, like red, when passing through air molecules.
This is exactly why the sky looks blue during the day, and why sunsets turn red once most blue light has scattered away from the direct line of sight.
(Self-derived: standard NCERT physics of Rayleigh scattering)
When a solid body is partially or completely immersed in a fluid, the fluid exerts an upward force on the body. The magnitude of the force is equal to 1. the mass of the body; 2. the weight of the displaced fluid by the body. Which of the above is/are correct?
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Archimedes’ principle states that the upward buoyant force on an immersed body equals the weight of the fluid it displaces, not the body’s own mass.
A dense object and a light object of the same volume displace the same amount of fluid and feel the same buoyant force, even though their masses differ, which rules out statement 1.
(Self-derived: standard NCERT statement of Archimedes’ principle)
If the length of a copper wire is increased by twice, then its resistivity will be
- (a)Doubled
- (b)Halved
- (c)Same
- (d)One-fourth
Answer: (c) Same
Resistivity is a property of the material itself, not of a wire’s shape or size, so it stays the same regardless of length.
Doubling the length does double the wire’s overall resistance, since resistance depends on both resistivity and geometry, but resistivity itself is unaffected.
(Self-derived: standard NCERT distinction between resistance and resistivity)
Which one of the following is dimensionless quantity?
- (a)Stress
- (b)Strain
- (c)Pressure
- (d)Force
Answer: (b) Strain
Strain is the ratio of a change in length (or volume) to the original length (or volume), so its units cancel out entirely. Stress, pressure, and force all carry real physical units.
Related: GenSci0011 — Units, Measurement and Dimensions
(Source: Physics LibreTexts, Stress, Strain, and Elastic Modulus)
A system that does NOT allow exchange of heat with its surrounding is called
- (a)Adiabatic system
- (b)Non-adiabatic system
- (c)Equilibrium system
- (d)Non-equilibrium system
Answer: (a) Adiabatic system
An adiabatic system is thermally insulated, so no heat flows in or out between it and its surroundings.
Any temperature change inside such a system comes only from work done on or by it, not from heat transfer.
(Self-derived: standard NCERT thermodynamics definition of an adiabatic system)
If the speed of light in carbon disulfide and vacuum is X and Y respectively, then
- (a)X < Y
- (b)X > Y
- (c)X ≥ Y
- (d)X = Y
Answer: (a) X < Y
Light always travels slower through any transparent medium than through a vacuum, since the medium’s particles absorb and re-emit the light, delaying it.
Carbon disulfide is a dense liquid with a fairly high refractive index, so light moves noticeably slower through it than through empty space.
(Self-derived: standard optics fact about light speed in media versus vacuum)
A current through a horizontal power line flows in east to west direction. What will be the direction of magnetic field at a point directly below it when viewed from east end?
- (a)Clockwise in a plane perpendicular to the wire
- (b)Anti-clockwise in a plane perpendicular to the wire
- (c)Clockwise in a plane of parallel to the wire
- (d)Anti-clockwise in a plane of parallel to the wire
Answer: (a) Clockwise in a plane perpendicular to the wire
Field lines around a straight current-carrying wire always form circles lying in a plane perpendicular to the wire, never parallel to it.
Using the right-hand grip rule, with current flowing away from the viewer standing at the east end, the field circulates in a clockwise sense as seen by that viewer.
(Self-derived: right-hand grip rule applied to a straight current-carrying wire)
Which one among the following elements is known to be discovered the earliest?
- (a)Copper
- (b)Gold
- (c)Oxygen
- (d)Uranium
Answer: (a) Copper
Copper artefacts date back to roughly 9000-8700 BCE, giving it the longest documented history of human use among these four, and lending its name to the Copper Age (Chalcolithic period).
Oxygen and uranium are much later, laboratory-era discoveries from the 1770s and 1780s, ruling them out entirely.
When a light ray passes through from air to water with a non-zero angle the ray will be
- (a)bending towards the normal
- (b)bending away from the normal
- (c)propagating in straight line
- (d)reflected towards the opposite direction
Answer: (a) bending towards the normal
Water is optically denser than air, and light slows down when it enters a denser medium.
This slowdown bends the ray toward the normal, the imaginary line perpendicular to the water’s surface at the point where light enters.
(Self-derived: standard NCERT rule of refraction when light enters a denser medium)
Which one of the following equations related to the motion of an object is NOT correct? (Symbols carry their usual meanings)
- (a)s = ut + (1/2)at^2
- (b)u = v – at
- (c)u^2 – v^2 = 2as
- (d)Distance travelled during nth second = u + (1/2)a(2n-1)
Answer: (c) u^2 – v^2 = 2as
The correct third equation of motion is v squared equals u squared plus 2as, which rearranges to v squared minus u squared equals 2as, not the reversed form shown here.
The other three equations, s = ut + half at squared, u = v – at (rearranged from v = u + at), and the nth-second distance formula, are all standard and correctly stated.
(Self-derived: standard equations of motion for uniformly accelerated bodies)
Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
- (a)An ammeter is always connected in series in the circuit to measure the current
- (b)A Voltmeter is always connected to parallel in a circuit to measure the voltage
- (c)A voltmeter has a high resistance and an ammeter has a low resistance
- (d)A voltmeter has a low resistance and an ammeter has a high resistance
Answer: (d) A voltmeter has a low resistance and an ammeter has a high resistance
A voltmeter actually needs high resistance so it draws almost no current from the circuit it measures, keeping the voltage reading accurate.
An ammeter needs low resistance so it barely disturbs the current it measures, the opposite of what this statement claims. Ammeters are wired in series and voltmeters in parallel, as the other three options correctly state.
(Self-derived: standard NCERT properties of ammeters and voltmeters)
Which one of the following is a non-conventional source of energy?
- (a)Petroleum
- (b)Natural Gas
- (c)Tidal energy
- (d)Coal
Answer: (c) Tidal energy
Tidal energy harnesses the rise and fall of ocean tides, a renewable and non-conventional energy source that does not deplete over time.
Petroleum, natural gas, and coal are all conventional fossil fuels, formed over millions of years and used up faster than they form.
(Self-derived: standard NCERT classification of conventional versus non-conventional energy sources)
If three resistors of 1 Ohm each connect in parallel to each other the resultant resistance is
- (a)1 Ohm
- (b)1/3 Ohm
- (c)3 Ohm
- (d)9 Ohm
Answer: (b) 1/3 Ohm
For resistors in parallel, 1/R = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + 1/R3. With three 1-ohm resistors, 1/R = 1+1+1 = 3, so R = 1/3 Ohm.
We hear an echo due to
- (a)Refraction of sound waves
- (b)Reflection of sound waves
- (c)Diffraction of sound waves
- (d)Resonance due to sound waves
Answer: (b) Reflection of sound waves
An echo happens when sound waves bounce off a hard, distant surface, like a wall or cliff, and travel back to the listener’s ear.
This is a direct case of reflection, the same principle governing how light bounces off a mirror, just applied to sound instead.
(Self-derived: standard NCERT physics of sound reflection and echoes)
At uniform speed the acceleration is
- (a)Maximum
- (b)Minimum
- (c)Zero
- (d)Constant
Answer: (c) Zero
Acceleration measures how quickly speed changes over time.
At uniform speed, nothing about the speed is changing, so the rate of change is exactly zero.
(Self-derived: standard definition of acceleration as rate of change of velocity)
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