CDS (I) 2026 — General Knowledge (Full Question Paper)

The central cytoplasmic region of a prokaryotic cell containing nucleic acids is called:

• (a)Nucleus
• (b)Nucleoid
• (c)Nucleolus
• (d)Plastid

Nearly all infants benefit from milk, but most adults cannot properly digest milk. If an elderly person can still digest milk, his body is producing enough of which enzyme?

• (a)Cellulase
• (b)Amylase
• (c)Pectase
• (d)Lactase

The antibiotic penicillin can kill invading bacteria without harming human cells because it targets bacterial:

• (a)Cell wall
• (b)Plasma membrane
• (c)Ribosome
• (d)Chromosome

A researcher is studying different types of cells. In which cell type will he/she encounter the highest number of lysosomes?

• (a)Pancreatic cell
• (b)Ovarian cell
• (c)Muscle cell in the thigh of a runner
• (d)White blood cell

Which one of the following is not a function of the pigment carotenoid?

• (a)Responsible for yellow-orange hues of autumnal leaves
• (b)Protecting chlorophyll from photo-oxidation
• (c)Photoprotective role in our eyes
• (d)Reaction centre in the pigment system

A world chess champion has curly hair, attached earlobes and freckles. Which one of the following traits is not likely to be passed on to his/her offsprings?

• (a)Chess skills
• (b)Curly hair
• (c)Attached earlobes
• (d)Freckles

In humans, which chamber of the heart receives oxygen-rich blood from the lungs first?

• (a)Left atrium
• (b)Right atrium
• (c)Left ventricle
• (d)Right ventricle

Consider the following statements with reference to manure and organic farming:

• 1.Vermicompost is rich in organic matter and nutrients.
• 2.Biofertilizers and bio-pesticides are not used in organic farming.
• 3.Crop rotation is beneficial in controlling insects, pests and weeds.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a)1 only
• (b)1 and 3 only
• (c)2 and 3 only
• (d)1, 2 and 3

Match List-I with List-II and select the answer using the codes given below the Lists:

Which one among the following pairs of diseases and their types is not correctly matched?

• (a)Polio — Viral disease
• (b)Athlete’s foot — Fungal disease
• (c)Dengue fever — Non-viral disease
• (d)Whooping cough — Bacterial disease

Which one of the following statements qualitatively explains the second law of motion?

• (a)The rate of change of angular momentum of a body is equal to the applied force.
• (b)The rate of change of displacement of a body is directly proportional to the applied force.
• (c)The rate of change of acceleration of a body is directly proportional to the applied force.
• (d)The rate of change of momentum of a body is equal to the applied force.

Which one of the following gives the triple point of water?

• (a)Temperature 273.16 K and Pressure 1 Pa
• (b)Temperature 273.16 K and Pressure 6.11 × 10⁻³ Pa
• (c)Temperature 0 K and Pressure 10³ Pa
• (d)Temperature 373 K and Pressure 6.11 × 10⁻³ Pa

Which one among the following has the least coefficient of thermal conductivity?

• (a)H₂
• (b)H₂O
• (c)Cu
• (d)Al

Which one among the following generation computers used microprocessors in their hardware technology?

• (a)Second Generation
• (b)Third Generation
• (c)Fourth Generation
• (d)Fifth Generation

An X-ray beam can be deflected by:

• (a)An electric field
• (b)A magnetic field
• (c)An electric as well as a magnetic field
• (d)Neither an electric field nor a magnetic field

An object is placed at a distance of 15 cm in front of a concave mirror with a radius of curvature of 20 cm. Which one among the following statements is correct for the image formed?

• (a)The image is 30 cm from the mirror on the same side as the object.
• (b)The image is formed at a distance of 30 cm behind the mirror.
• (c)The image is 60 cm from the mirror on the same side as the object.
• (d)The image is formed at a distance of 60 cm behind the mirror.

Which one among the following statements regarding the electrical resistivity of a conducting wire is correct?

• (a)The resistivity of the conductor increases if the length of the wire is increased.
• (b)The resistivity of the conductor decreases if the length of the wire is increased.
• (c)The resistivity of the conductor remains the same if the length of the wire is changed.
• (d)The resistivity of the conductor increases if the cross-sectional area of the wire is increased.

Which one among the following statements related to electric cells is correct?

• (a)A primary cell is rechargeable.
• (b)A secondary cell can be used only once.
• (c)The emf of a battery is the power provided by the battery per unit current.
• (d)The unit of emf is Joule.

An object is launched horizontally from a height of 45 m above the ground with a speed of 10 m/s. The time at which the object will hit the ground is: (Take g = 10 m/s²)

• (a)6 s
• (b)4 s
• (c)3 s
• (d)2 s

Consider the following statements regarding waves:

• 1.If the particles of a medium move along the direction of motion of the wave, the wave is called a longitudinal wave.
• 2.If the particles of a medium move perpendicular to the direction of motion of the wave, the wave is called a transverse wave.
• 3.Transverse waves may involve change in the shape of the medium, whereas longitudinal waves involve change in the density of the medium.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a)1 and 2 only
• (b)1 only
• (c)2 and 3 only
• (d)1, 2 and 3

Match List-I with List-II and select the answer using the codes given below the Lists:

Consider the following statements regarding matter:

• 1.Elements cannot be broken down into simpler substances.
• 2.A compound has variable composition and can be broken down into elements.
• 3.The solution of sulphur in carbon disulphide is an example of a homogeneous mixture.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

• (a)2 only
• (b)1 and 3
• (c)3 only
• (d)1 and 2

Consider the following statements:

• 1.Concentrated H₂SO₄ is used as a dehydrating agent in esterification reaction.
• 2.The hydrophilic part of soap is oil and it dissolves in water.
• 3.Nickel is used as a catalyst in converting vegetable oil into fat.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a)1, 2, 3 and 4
• (b)1 and 2 only
• (c)2 and 3 only
• (d)1 and 3 only

Which one among the following pairs is not correctly matched?

• (a)Nitrogen : Three unpaired electrons
• (b)Carbon : Tetravalent
• (c)Chlorine : Two stable isotopic forms
• (d)Helium : Diatomic gas

Consider the following statements:

• 1.Packaged foods are purged with nitrogen gas in order to prevent their oxidation.
• 2.Tooth decay starts when pH of the mouth is lower than 5.5.
• 3.The reactivity of metals decreases in the order: Mg > Fe > Zn.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

• (a)2 and 3
• (b)1 and 3
• (c)1 and 2
• (d)3 only

Which one among the following pairs of compound and chemical formula is not correctly matched?

• (a)Bleaching powder : CaOCl₂
• (b)Soda ash : Na₂CO₃
• (c)Baking powder : NaHCl₂
• (d)Plaster of Paris : 2CaSO₄.H₂O

Consider the following statements:

• 1.The temporary hardness in water is due to the presence of bicarbonates of calcium.
• 2.The permanent hardness in water is due to the presence of soluble chlorides and sulphates of calcium and magnesium.
• 3.The permanent hardness in water is removed by adding Na₂CO₃ to water.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a)1 and 2 only
• (b)2 and 3 only
• (c)1 and 3 only
• (d)1, 2 and 3

Which one among the following statements regarding micelles is not correct?

• (a)Soap molecules are sodium or potassium salts of long-chain carboxylic acids.
• (b)Micelles precipitate out of solution because of ion-ion repulsion.
• (c)Grease gets collected in the centre of the micelle.
• (d)Soap micelles scatter light.

Consider the following statements regarding bases and alkalis:

• 1.All bases dissolve in water.
• 2.Bases which are soluble in water are called alkalis.
• 3.An alkali is soapy to touch, bitter and corrosive.
• 4.Addition of water to an alkali generates heat.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a)1, 2, 3 and 4
• (b)2, 3 and 4 only
• (c)1 and 2 only
• (d)3 and 4 only

Which of the following statements relating to the Modern Periodic Table is/are correct?

• 1.The atomic radius increases on moving from left to right across a period.
• 2.Germanium, Tellurium, and Copper are transition metals.
• 3.The two isotopes of Chlorine occupy the same position in the periodic table.
• 4.The metallic property of Ca, Ba, Be and Sr follows the order: Be < Ca < Sr < Ba.

Select the answer using the codes given below:

• (a)3 only
• (b)1 and 4
• (c)2 and 3
• (d)3 and 4

Which of the following computer languages is/are assembly language(s)?

• 1.Python
• 2.Java
• 3.x86
• 4.MIPS

Select the answer using the codes given below:

• (a)1 only
• (b)2 and 3 only
• (c)3 and 4 only
• (d)1, 3 and 4

Which one of the following is not a characteristic of flash memory?

• (a)It is an ultraviolet erasable programmable ROM.
• (b)It is an electrically erasable programmable ROM.
• (c)It retains data without power.
• (d)It is a non-volatile memory.

Which one of the following statements is not correct with regard to the UNIX operating system?

• (a)It is written in C.
• (b)It is portable to a variety of computers.
• (c)It is a multi-user operating system.
• (d)It cannot be time-shared by several users.

In MP3 compression scheme, 60 minutes of music can be stored in about:

• (a)600 MB
• (b)200 MB
• (c)50 MB
• (d)10 MB

Code Division Multiple Access (CDMA) technology is primarily used in:

• (a)Mobile phone communication
• (b)X-ray
• (c)Artificial Intelligence
• (d)Colour Xerox

Which one of the following items comprises the major portion of Revenue Expenditure in Budget 2025-26 of the Union Government of India?

• (a)Pension
• (b)Interest Payments
• (c)Road Transport and Highways
• (d)Defence Services

Consider the following statements with respect to Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY):

• 1.PMFBY provides risk insurance to farmers against crop damage due to non-preventable natural risks.
• 2.PMFBY provides risk coverage of ₹2 lakh in case of death of the insured.
• 3.PMFBY ensures flow of credit to the agriculture sector.
• 4.PMFBY provides risk coverage of ₹2 lakh for complete disability of the insured.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a)1 only
• (b)2 and 3
• (c)1 and 3
• (d)1 and 4

Which of the following statements with respect to the Gender Inequality Index (GII) is/are correct?

• 1.GII reflects gender-based disadvantage in work participation, property and income dimensions.
• 2.GII reflects gender-based disadvantage in reproductive health, empowerment and the labour market dimensions.
• 3.The value of GII ranges from 0 to 1, with a GII of 0 indicating women and men faring equally in all dimensions.

Select the answer using the codes given below:

• (a)1 only
• (b)3 only
• (c)2 and 3 only
• (d)1, 2 and 3

The Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) is measured by:

• (a)Measuring each person’s overlapping deprivations across the indicators in the health, education and standard of living dimensions
• (b)Measuring each person’s separate efficiencies across the indicators in the wealth, income and standard of living dimensions
• (c)Measuring each person’s poverty on the indicators of health, happiness and ownership of vehicles
• (d)Measuring inequalities and deprivations in respect of wealth, income and standard of living dimensions

The financial instruments that generate proceeds for investment in environmentally sustainable and climate-suitable projects are called as:

• (a)Green Bonds
• (b)Carbon Bonds
• (c)Climate Credit Bonds
• (d)Social Impact Bonds

Which one among the following sectors is included in the list of the Sunrise Sectors in India?

• (a)Manufacturing Sector
• (b)Food Processing Sector
• (c)Textile Sector
• (d)Services Sector

Which of the following countries were the founding members of the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC), established in 1985?

• 1.India
• 2.Nepal
• 3.Maldives
• 4.Afghanistan

Select the answer using the codes given below:

• (a)1 and 2 only
• (b)1, 2 and 3 only
• (c)3 and 4 only
• (d)1, 2, 3 and 4

The Government of India has announced a 6-year Mission for Aatmanirbharta (Self-reliance) in Pulses with a special focus to ensure 100 percent procurement at MSP of:

• (a)Urad, Soyabean and Masoor
• (b)Tur, Urad and Masoor
• (c)Masoor, Chana and Tur
• (d)Moong, Tur and Soyabean

Which one among the following statements correctly defines the Infant Mortality Rate (IMR)?

• (a)IMR is the average number of infants born to a woman over her lifetime.
• (b)IMR is the average number of infants born in a year per 1000 deaths before attaining one year of age.
• (c)IMR is the number of deaths of infants under one year old per 1000 live births in a year.
• (d)IMR is the number of deaths of infants under one year of age per year.

Which one of the following indexes is used to assess the state of governance across the States and UTs?

• (a)Sustainable Governance Index
• (b)E-Governance Index
• (c)Urban Governance Index
• (d)Good Governance Index

Swami Vivekananda’s speech in the World Parliament of Religions at Chicago in 1893 opened with which of the following words?

• (a)Sisters and brothers of America
• (b)Dear citizens of the world
• (c)Brothers and sisters of the world
• (d)Esteemed brothers and sisters

Who among the following was called by Gandhiji as his Rajya Guru in May, 1915?

• (a)Bal Gangadhar Tilak
• (b)Gopal Krishna Gokhale
• (c)G.G. Agarkar
• (d)Dadabhai Naoroji

With reference to the Swadeshi Movement, consider the following statements:

• 1.The Swadeshi Movement had its genesis in the Anti-Partition movement, which was started to oppose the British decision to partition Bengal.
• 2.Aurobindo Ghosh was in favour of extending the movement to the rest of India and carrying it beyond the programme of just Swadeshi and Boycott to a full-fledged political mass struggle.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a)1 only
• (b)2 only
• (c)Both 1 and 2
• (d)Neither 1 nor 2

With reference to the Junagadh inscription of Rudradaman, consider the following statements:

• 1.The script of this inscription is Kharosthi and the language is Prakrit.
• 2.The inscription records the restoration of a reservoir called Sudarshana Lake.
• 3.It is an undated inscription.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a)1 only
• (b)2 only
• (c)1 and 2 only
• (d)1, 2 and 3

The Bower Manuscript is known for being a valuable source on which one of the following subjects in ancient India?

• (a)Medicine
• (b)Mathematics
• (c)Astronomy
• (d)Chemistry

Who among the following was the only Indian member to be present when the Vernacular Press Bill came up before the Legislative Council?

• (a)Jotendra Mohan Tagore
• (b)Peary Mohan Mukherjea
• (c)Dinshaw Petit
• (d)Dadabhai Naoroji

With reference to the Ranigumpha Cave (Odisha), consider the following statements:

• 1.Ranigumpha Cave is plain and contains no murals or sculptures.
• 2.Ranigumpha Cave is two-storeyed.
• 3.Ranigumpha Cave consists of an oval courtyard.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a)1 only
• (b)2 only
• (c)1 and 3 only
• (d)1, 2 and 3

The Mesolithic site of Bagor is one of the most well-documented sites. It is located in:

• (a)Rajasthan
• (b)Madhya Pradesh
• (c)Haryana
• (d)Punjab

Extensive pit-dwellings have been identified at the two Neolithic sites of:

• (a)Piklihal and Maski
• (b)Chirand and Tekkalkota
• (c)Kodekal and Hallur
• (d)Burzahom and Gufkral

The Chalcolithic Ahar Culture has been identified in which of the following river systems?

• (a)Sarayu and Ganga river systems
• (b)Krishna and Tungabhadra river systems
• (c)Banas and Berach river systems
• (d)Brahmaputra and Meghna river systems

Which one of the following is a Neolithic site?

• (a)Bhimbetka
• (b)Utnur
• (c)Adamgarh
• (d)Birbhanpur

During the period 100 BCE-200 CE, valuable evidence of India’s maritime trade links has been identified from which of the following sites on the Coromandel Coast?

• (a)Arikamedu
• (b)Tamralipti
• (c)Bharukachcha
• (d)Muchiri

Consider the following statements about the Gupta administrative system:

• 1.The Gupta kings assumed imperial titles such as Maharajadhiraja, Parama-bhattaraka and Parameshvara.
• 2.The Gupta kings also connected themselves with the Gods through epithets such as Parama-daivata and Parama-bhagavata.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a)1 only
• (b)2 only
• (c)Both 1 and 2
• (d)Neither 1 nor 2

Who was the author of the book of travels, called Rihla, written in Arabic, providing extremely rich and interesting details about India?

• (a)Al-Biruni
• (b)Ibn Battuta
• (c)François Bernier
• (d)Nizamuddin Ahmad

The twelfth century witnessed the emergence of a new movement in Karnataka, led by Basavanna (1106-68 CE) who was a minister in the court of a Kalachuri ruler. His followers were known as:

• (a)Virashaivas
• (b)Pushtimargis
• (c)Avadhoots
• (d)Nathpanthis

With reference to the Industrial Revolution, consider the following statements:

• 1.The Industrial Revolution saw the replacement of handicrafts by power-driven machinery.
• 2.The industrialised countries became dependent upon other countries for the supply of raw materials necessary for their industries.
• 3.Large-scale production started with the help of machinery in factories.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a)1 and 2 only
• (b)2 and 3 only
• (c)1 and 3 only
• (d)1, 2 and 3

Which of the pairs of Ashokan inscription and location is/are correctly matched?

• 1.Jaugada : Karnataka
• 2.Bahapur : New Delhi
• 3.Rajula-Mandagiri : Andhra Pradesh

Select the answer using the codes given below:

• (a)1 only
• (b)1, 2 and 3
• (c)3 only
• (d)2 and 3 only

With reference to the Indo-Roman trade in ancient India, the term ‘aurei’ refers to:

• (a)Perfume
• (b)Wine
• (c)Black Pepper
• (d)Coins

Basohli, a bold and intense style of miniature painting, is associated with which one of the following regions of India?

• (a)Bihar
• (b)Chhattisgarh
• (c)Madhya Pradesh
• (d)Himachal Pradesh

Which of the following factors was/were responsible for the rise of Magadha as the most powerful Mahajanapada during the 6th century BCE?

• 1.Region of productive agriculture
• 2.Accessibility to iron-mines
• 3.Availability of elephants in the region

Select the answer using the codes given below:

• (a)1 only
• (b)1 and 2 only
• (c)2 and 3 only
• (d)1, 2 and 3

Which of the following pairs of theories about origin of the Earth and their propounders is/are correctly matched?

• 1.Gaseous Hypothesis : Kant
• 2.Binary Star Hypothesis : Russell
• 3.Planetesimal Hypothesis : Chamberlin

Select the answer using the codes given below:

• (a)1 only
• (b)2 and 3 only
• (c)1 and 3 only
• (d)1, 2 and 3

Which one among the following statements regarding igneous rock is correct?

• (a)When magma cools deep in the Earth’s interior, it results in the formation of fine-grained igneous rocks.
• (b)Basalt is a type of intrusive igneous rock.
• (c)Most of the minerals of igneous rocks are silicates.
• (d)Extrusive igneous rocks often undergo lithification.

Consider the following statements regarding metamorphic rocks:

• 1.Ortho-metamorphic rocks are formed from igneous rocks.
• 2.Intense heat of the intruding magmas results in metamorphism of the surrounding rocks, a process known as dynamic metamorphism.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a)1 only
• (b)2 only
• (c)Both 1 and 2
• (d)Neither 1 nor 2

Consider the following statements regarding Volcanic Cones:

• 1.During volcanic eruptions, acid lava cones are formed by highly viscous lavas.
• 2.Viscous lavas have high mobility and can travel for long distances.
• 3.Acid lavas result in the formation of high cones with steep slopes.
• 4.Composite cones are the highest volcanic cones.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a)1 and 2 only
• (b)2, 3 and 4 only
• (c)1, 3 and 4 only
• (d)1, 2, 3 and 4

Consider the following statements about Mechanical Weathering:

• 1.More compact and highly consolidated rocks are least affected by freeze-thaw weathering.
• 2.Shattering of rocks is more common in hot deserts.
• 3.Crystalline rocks are often prone to exfoliation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a)1 and 2 only
• (b)1 only
• (c)2 and 3 only
• (d)1, 2 and 3

Consider the following statements about the causes of ground surface inversion of temperature:

• 1.Ground surface inversion is also termed as radiation inversion.
• 2.The existence of negative lapse rate results in surface inversion.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a)1 only
• (b)2 only
• (c)Both 1 and 2
• (d)Neither 1 nor 2

Match List-I with List-II and select the answer using the codes given below the Lists:

Consider the following statements regarding the Northwestern Himalayas:

• 1.Karewa formations in Kashmir consist of thick deposits of glacial clay and other materials embedded with moraines.
• 2.Pangong Tso and Tso Moriri in Ladakh are freshwater lakes.
• 3.River Jhelum exhibits meanders in the Kashmir Valley.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a)1 only
• (b)1 and 3 only
• (c)2 and 3 only
• (d)1, 2 and 3

Consider the following statements about the types of drought in India:

• 1.A meteorological drought occurs when the mean annual rainfall is less than 75%.
• 2.Agricultural drought arises out of extreme moisture stress.
• 3.Soil moisture drought is related to meteorological drought.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a)1 and 2 only
• (b)2 and 3 only
• (c)1 and 3 only
• (d)1, 2 and 3

Match List-I with List-II and select the answer using the codes given below the Lists:

Which of the following statements about the Black Soils of India is/are correct?

• 1.Black Soils cover most of the Deccan Plateau.
• 2.Also known as ‘Regur’, they are generally clayey, deep and impermeable.
• 3.Since they are impermeable, rainfed crops do not grow well in Black Soils.

Select the answer using the codes given below:

• (a)1 and 2 only
• (b)2 only
• (c)1, 2 and 3
• (d)3 only

Which one of the following rivers is also known by the name of “Dihang” in Northeast India?

• (a)Dikhow
• (b)Brahmaputra
• (c)Subansiri
• (d)Teesta

‘Shipki La’, a high altitude pass in the Himalayas, is located in:

• (a)Chumbi Valley
• (b)Brahmaputra Valley
• (c)Satluj Valley
• (d)Teesta Valley

During chemical weathering, when minerals in feldspar change to kaolinite clays, the process is termed as:

• (a)Carbonation
• (b)Chelation
• (c)Hydration
• (d)Oxidation

Which one among the following pairs of National Parks and locations is not correctly matched?

• (a)Ranthambore : Rajasthan
• (b)Gir : Gujarat
• (c)Nandankanan : Odisha
• (d)Keibul Lamjao : Arunachal Pradesh

Which one among the following is the first and the oldest Government-owned coal mining company in India?

• (a)Neyveli Lignite Corporation Limited
• (b)Eastern Coalfields Limited
• (c)Singareni Collieries Company Limited
• (d)Mahanadi Coalfields Limited

Consider the following statements regarding ocean currents:

• 1.Difference in water density is the main cause for the formation of ocean currents.
• 2.Density of water depends on temperature, salinity and pressure.
• 3.As a rule, ocean waters move from areas of higher density to areas of lower density as a current.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a)1 and 2 only
• (b)1 only
• (c)1, 2 and 3
• (d)2 and 3 only

Consider the following statements about the Sargasso Sea:

• 1.It is the only sea without a land boundary.
• 2.The Sargasso Sea records the lowest salinity in the Atlantic Ocean.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a)1 only
• (b)2 only
• (c)Both 1 and 2
• (d)Neither 1 nor 2

Match List-I with List-II and select the answer using the codes given below the Lists:

Which of the following pairs of major sea ports of India and their characteristics are correctly matched?

• 1.Deendayal Port : Tidal Port
• 2.Jawaharlal Nehru Port : Landlocked Port
• 3.V.O. Chidambaranar Port : Artificial Deep-Sea Harbour
• 4.Paradip Port : Natural Shallow Water Port

Select the answer using the code given below:

• (a)1 and 3 only
• (b)2 and 4 only
• (c)1, 2 and 3 only
• (d)1, 2, 3 and 4

Consider the following statements about the position of the Chief of Defence Staff:

• 1.He is the Head of the Department of Military Affairs within the Ministry of Defence.
• 2.He is the Permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee.
• 3.He does not exercise any military command over the three Service Chiefs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a)1 only
• (b)2 and 3 only
• (c)1 and 3 only
• (d)1, 2 and 3

Match List-I with List-II and select the answer using the codes given below the Lists:

Which of the following statements about ‘Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana’ (SAGY) is/are correct?

• 1.It comes under the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs, Government of India.
• 2.It was launched in 2014 on the birth anniversary of Jayaprakash Narayan.
• 3.Mahatma Gandhi’s vision of Gram Swaraj is the inspiration behind this scheme.

Select the answer using the codes given below:

• (a)1 and 2 only
• (b)2 and 3 only
• (c)1, 2 and 3
• (d)1 only

Consider the following former Presidents of India:

• 1.Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan
• 2.Dr. Zakir Hussain
• 3.Neelam Sanjiva Reddy

How many of the above Presidents has/have also served as Vice-President of India?

• (a)None
• (b)1
• (c)2
• (d)3

Which one among the following statements regarding the Fundamental Rights of the Constitution of India is not correct?

• (a)They provide for equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
• (b)They guarantee freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion.
• (c)They prohibit discrimination on the grounds only of religion, race and caste.
• (d)They are legally enforceable.

Consider the following statements regarding the amendment procedure under Article 368 of the Constitution of India:

• 1.Constitutional amendment bills can be introduced in either House of the Parliament.
• 2.Constitutional amendment bills should be passed in each House by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting.
• 3.All Constitutional amendment bills must be ratified by the Legislature of not less than one-half of the States.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a)1 and 2 only
• (b)1 only
• (c)2 and 3 only
• (d)1, 2 and 3

Consider the following statements regarding the qualifications of a person for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court of India:

• 1.The person has to be, for at least five years, a Judge of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession.
• 2.The person has to be, for at least ten years, an advocate of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession.
• 3.The person is, in the opinion of the Chief Justice of India, a distinguished jurist.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a)1, 2 and 3
• (b)3 only
• (c)1 and 2 only
• (d)1 and 3 only

Which one among the following pairs of Article and Provision with reference to the Constitution of India is not correctly matched?

• (a)Article 243A : Gram Sabha
• (b)Article 243B : Constitution of Panchayats
• (c)Article 243C : Composition of Panchayats
• (d)Article 243D : Election to the Panchayats

Consider the following statements with regard to the UN Peacekeeping Operation:

• 1.The power to authorize a Peacekeeping Operation is exclusively vested with the General Assembly.
• 2.UN Peacekeeping Operations are deployed with the consent of the main parties to the conflict.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a)1 only
• (b)2 only
• (c)Both 1 and 2
• (d)Neither 1 nor 2

Which one among the following items is not included in the State List of the Constitution of India?

• (a)Public Order
• (b)Economic and Social Planning
• (c)Land
• (d)Local Government

Which one among the following pairs of Articles of the Constitution of India and special provisions given therein is not correctly matched?

• (a)Article 371A : Special provision with respect to the State of Nagaland
• (b)Article 371B : Special provision with respect to the State of Assam
• (c)Article 371C : Special provision with respect to the State of Manipur
• (d)Article 371D : Special provision with respect to the State of Sikkim

Which of the following are administered under the Ministry of Defence, Government of India?

• 1.Territorial Army
• 2.Hydrographic surveys and preparation of navigational charts
• 3.National Cadet Corps
• 4.All matters relating to Coast Guard Organization

Select the answer using the codes given below:

• (a)1, 2, 3 and 4
• (b)1, 3 and 4 only
• (c)2 and 4 only
• (d)1 and 3 only

Consider the following statements about the powers of the Governor of a State:

• 1.The Governor has the power to appoint the Advocate-General.
• 2.Advocate-General holds office during the pleasure of the Governor.
• 3.The members of the State Public Service Commission are appointed by the Governor.
• 4.The members of the State Public Service Commission can be removed by the President of India on the report of the Governor.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a)1, 2, 3 and 4
• (b)1, 3 and 4 only
• (c)2 and 4 only
• (d)1, 2 and 3 only

Which one of the following statements about BIMSTEC (Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral, Technical and Economic Cooperation) is not correct?

• (a)Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Pakistan, Sri Lanka and Thailand are member-states of BIMSTEC.
• (b)Its secretariat is located in Dhaka.
• (c)India is the lead country of its security sector.
• (d)Thailand is the lead country of its connectivity sector.

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

• (a)Chaudhary Charan Singh founded Bharatiya Kranti Dal.
• (b)Jagjivan Ram was a member of the Constituent Assembly.
• (c)Morarji Desai was the Prime Minister of India from 1977 to 1980.
• (d)Jayaprakash Narayan was the founder General Secretary of the Congress Socialist Party.

Which one of the following Acts is correctly paired with the year of its enactment?

• (a)The Consumer Protection Act : 2012
• (b)The Right to Information Act : 2004
• (c)The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act : 2006
• (d)The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act : 2010

Which of the following statements related to the National Commission for Backward Classes is/are correct?

• 1.It is a constitutional body.
• 2.The National Commission for Backward Classes Act, 1993 has been repealed.
• 3.The Secretary, Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, Government of India heads the Commission.

Select the answer using the codes given below:

• (a)1 and 2 only
• (b)2 and 3 only
• (c)1, 2 and 3
• (d)1 only

Which of the following acts/behaviour shall amount to ‘sexual harassment’ as per the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013?

• 1.Verbal remarks of sexual nature
• 2.Non-verbal conduct of sexual nature
• 3.Physical conduct of sexual nature

Select the answer using the codes given below:

• (a)1 and 2 only
• (b)2 and 3 only
• (c)1, 2 and 3
• (d)3 only

Which among the following tribes inhabit the Andaman and Nicobar Islands?

• 1.Onge
• 2.Jarawas
• 3.Sentinelese

Select the answer using the codes given below:

• (a)1 and 2 only
• (b)2 and 3 only
• (c)1, 2 and 3
• (d)1 and 3 only

Arrange the following dignitaries in the correct sequence with respect to their rank precedence, as per the ‘Table of Precedence’ approved by the President of India:

• 1.Chief Justice of India
• 2.Governors within their respective states
• 3.Former Presidents
• 4.Deputy Prime Minister

Select the answer using the codes given below:

• (a)1, 3, 4, 2
• (b)2, 3, 4, 1
• (c)1, 2, 4, 3
• (d)2, 3, 1, 4

Which of the following statements about the ‘SMART VILLAGE’ project, launched by the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) is/are correct?

• 1.This is a pilot project, which focuses on the integrated village development.
• 2.The distinctive aspect of this project is that CSIR is following the guiding principle of ‘Land to Lab’ in improving the condition of villages through indigenous technologies.

Select the answer using the codes given below:

• (a)1 only
• (b)2 only
• (c)Both 1 and 2
• (d)Neither 1 nor 2

Which of the following measures has/have been undertaken by the Government of India for supporting the cotton exporters and the textile sector?

• 1.Credit Guarantee Scheme for Exporters (CGSE)
• 2.RBI Trade Relief 2025
• 3.Rebate of State and Central Taxes and Levies (RoSCTL) for cotton and cotton-based products

Select the answer using the codes given below:

• (a)1, 2 and 3
• (b)2 and 3 only
• (c)1 and 3 only
• (d)2 only

Which of the following statements about Government programmes/schemes is/are correct?

• 1.Skill Training of Rural Youth (STRY) is a programme meant for improving skills of the rural youth in different thematic areas of agriculture.
• 2.Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana – National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY–NRLM) focuses on creating income generation opportunities for Self-Help Group (SHG) women.
• 3.Start-up Village Entrepreneurship Programme (SVEP) is meant for creating an enabling rural business development ecosystem for supporting all women except for those engaged with Self-Help Groups (SHGs).

Select the answer using the codes given below:

• (a)1, 2 and 3
• (b)1 and 2 only
• (c)2 and 3 only
• (d)3 only

Which one of the following schemes is not meant for the development of agriculture sector in India?

• (a)Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maandhan Yojana (PM-KMY)
• (b)Modified Interest Subvention Scheme (MISS)
• (c)PM SVANidhi
• (d)National Food Security and Nutrition Mission

Which of the following statements is/are not correct?

• 1.The 3rd WHO Global Summit on Traditional Medicine was held in New Delhi in December 2025.
• 2.The theme for the 11th International Yoga Day 2025 was ‘Yoga for One Earth, One Health’.

Select the answer using the codes given below:

• (a)1 only
• (b)2 only
• (c)Both 1 and 2
• (d)Neither 1 nor 2

Which one of the following statements about the bridges of India is not correct?

• (a)Atal Setu, also known as the Mumbai Trans Harbour Link, is India’s longest sea bridge.
• (b)The Chenab bridge is the world’s highest railway arch bridge.
• (c)The Bhupen Hazarika Setu is built over the Lohit river.
• (d)The New Pamban bridge is an arch bridge.

Which of the following statements about India’s Green Energy target is/are correct?

• 1.ONGC Green has set a plan to achieve 10 GW of green energy capacity by 2030.
• 2.ONGC Green and IIM Nagpur have signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU), which aims at contributing to India’s broader goal of achieving net zero emissions by 2050.

Select the answer using the codes given below:

• (a)1 only
• (b)2 only
• (c)Both 1 and 2
• (d)Neither 1 nor 2

In which one of the following cities of India was the PESA (Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas)) Mahotsav 2025 held?

• (a)Visakhapatnam
• (b)Kochi
• (c)Ranchi
• (d)Raipur

The Sujalam Bharat App, launched in December 2025, aims at:

• (a)Monitoring irrigation facilities being provided to farmers
• (b)Achieving the goal of cleaning river water
• (c)Resolving the grievances related to drinking water-supply in the NCT of Delhi
• (d)Transforming rural drinking water governance

Operation Sagar Bandhu was launched by India to provide Search & Rescue and Humanitarian Assistance & Disaster Relief (HADR) support to which one of the following countries?

• (a)Thailand
• (b)Sri Lanka
• (c)Indonesia
• (d)Vietnam

India and New Zealand have signed a Free Trade Agreement (FTA) in December 2025. In which of the following areas has cooperation under the FTA has been agreed upon between the two countries?

• 1.AYUSH
• 2.Audio-Visual tourism
• 3.Traditional knowledge system
• 4.Horticulture

Select the answer using the codes given below:

• (a)1, 2, 3 and 4
• (b)2 and 4 only
• (c)1 and 3 only
• (d)1, 3 and 4 only

Which one of the following statements is correct about the PM-MITRA scheme?

• (a)Its goal is to develop at least one energy park, in every state of India.
• (b)It aims at developing integrated textile parks in India.
• (c)Its goal is to open employment parks in every district of India.
• (d)It aims at opening agro parks in India.

Who, amongst the following, was not a part of the Indian Squash team that won the first ever World Cup title at the SDAT Squash World Cup 2025?

• (a)Joshna Chinnappa
• (b)Anahat Singh
• (c)Abhay Singh
• (d)Arjun Erigaisi

Defence Research and Development Organization (DRDO) and Rashtriya Raksha University (RRU) have signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) in December 2025. Which of the following statements is/are correct in the context of this MoU?

• 1.This MoU aims to foster collaboration in the areas of training and technology support for defence and internal security.
• 2.RRU is an institution of eminence under the Ministry of Education, Government of India.

Select the answer using the code given below:

• (a)1 only
• (b)2 only
• (c)Both 1 and 2
• (d)Neither 1 nor 2

Who among the following has recently scripted history by becoming the first Indian cricketer to secure 100 wickets and 1000 runs in T20 Internationals?

• (a)Hardik Pandya
• (b)Ravindra Jadeja
• (c)Axar Patel
• (d)Washington Sundar