NDA & NA (I) 2024 — General Ability Test (Full Question Paper)

Part A: English

Antonyms Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words or groups of words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Mohan was living in a deplorable condition.

(a)reprehensible
(b)opprobrious
(c)despicable
(d)commendable

Answer: (d) commendable

Deplorable means very bad or shameful. Its opposite is ‘commendable’, which means worth praising. ‘Despicable’ and ‘reprehensible’ are near-synonyms.

These exercises will counteract the effects of stress and tension.

(a)exacerbate
(b)foil
(c)thwart
(d)contravene

Answer: (a) exacerbate

Counteract means to work against an effect and reduce it. Its opposite is to make worse, which is ‘exacerbate’. ‘Foil’ and ‘thwart’ are close to counteract.

You have to persevere with difficult students.

(a)give up
(b)persist
(c)carry on
(d)stand firm

Answer: (a) give up

Persevere means to keep trying despite difficulty. Its opposite is to quit, so ‘give up’ is the answer. ‘Persist’ and ‘carry on’ mean the same as persevere.

Their new colour scheme is hideous.

(a)appalling
(b)beautiful
(c)grotesque
(d)macabre

Answer: (b) beautiful

Hideous means very ugly. Its opposite is ‘beautiful’. ‘Grotesque’ and ‘appalling’ are close to hideous. ‘Macabre’ means gruesome.

Everywhere they go, they squander their earnings.

(a)fritter away
(b)splurge
(c)squabble
(d)manage

Answer: (d) manage

Squander means to waste money. Its opposite is to use it with care. ‘Manage’ fits best. ‘Fritter away’ and ‘splurge’ both mean to spend wastefully.

Cloze Directions : In this section, there is a passage having some blank spaces, each blank space is followed by four individual words or group of words. Select a word or group of words you consider the most appropriate for filling the blank space, and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

The Earth’s climate is ______ (6) changing and evolving. Some of ______ (7) changes have been due to natural causes but others can be attributed to ______ (8) activities such as deforestation, emissions from industry and transport, etc., which have led to the ______ (9) of gases and aerosols in ______ (10) atmosphere. These gases are known as greenhouse gases because they trap heat and ______ (11) air temperatures near the ground, acting like a greenhouse on the surface of the ______ (12). In order to create and strengthen the scientific and analytical capacity ______ (13) of climate change in the country, different studies under Climate Change Action Programme ______ (14). Many important bilateral and multilateral meetings and negotiations are held ______ (15) regular intervals.

Blank (6)

(a)passionately
(b)continually
(c)deadly
(d)thoughtfully

Answer: (b) continually

The sentence says the climate is changing and evolving. ‘Continually’ means without stopping, so it fits. The other words do not suit a change in climate.

Blank (7)

(a)these
(b)those
(c)this
(d)that

Answer: (a) these

‘Changes’ is plural, so we need a plural word. ‘These’ points to the changes just named. ‘This’ and ‘that’ are singular. ‘Those’ does not fit the context.

Blank (8)

(a)practical
(b)geological
(c)human
(d)animal

Answer: (c) human

The blank sits before ‘activities such as deforestation and emissions’. These are done by people. So ‘human’ is the only fitting word.

Blank (9)

(a)assimilation
(b)absolution
(c)collection
(d)accumulation

Answer: (d) accumulation

The phrase is ‘the accumulation of gases and aerosols’. Accumulation means a build-up over time. ‘Assimilation’ and ‘absolution’ do not fit here.

10.

Blank (10)

(a)an
(b)a
(c)the
(d)no article

Answer: (c) the

‘Atmosphere’ here means the air around the Earth. We speak of ‘the atmosphere’ as one known thing, so ‘the’ is right.

11.

Blank (11)

(a)raise
(b)hike
(c)rise
(d)balance

Answer: (a) raise

Greenhouse gases trap heat and so push air temperatures up. ‘Raise’ takes an object, ‘air temperatures’. ‘Rise’ cannot take an object, so it is wrong.

12.

Blank (12)

(a)crust
(b)core
(c)mantle
(d)planet

Answer: (d) planet

The sentence compares the gases to a greenhouse on the surface of the Earth. ‘Planet’ is the word that completes the idea.

13.

Blank (13)

(a)for assessment
(b)of
(c)in
(d)to

Answer: (a) for assessment

The phrase is ‘capacity for assessment of climate change’. ‘Capacity for’ is a fixed pairing. The other options do not fit grammar or meaning.

14.

Blank (14)

(a)are developed
(b)are initiated
(c)have developed
(d)have initiated

Answer: (b) are initiated

Studies under a programme are started, so ‘are initiated’ fits. The sentence needs the passive form. ‘Have developed’ would not take studies as the doer.

15.

Blank (15)

(a)with
(b)at
(c)in
(d)on

Answer not given

The published answer keys disagree on this question, or do not match the question text, so no answer is shown here.

Sentence Completion Directions : Each of the following items features one part of a sentence, followed by four alternatives. Complete the sentence by choosing the correct alternative and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

16.

He paused

(a)with a few moments.
(b)for a few moments.
(c)by a few moments.
(d)into a few moments.

Answer: (b) for a few moments.

We say ‘paused for a few moments’. ‘For’ shows how long the pause lasted. The other options do not make a correct phrase.

17.

Late at night, our car

(a)broke down on the highway.
(b)broke up on the highway.
(c)broke into the highway.
(d)broke out on the highway.

Answer: (a) broke down on the highway.

‘Broke down’ means stopped working, as a car does. ‘Broke up’, ‘broke into’ and ‘broke out’ have other meanings.

18.

All the countries signed the treaty

(a)beneath Germany and France.
(b)except Germany and France.
(c)among Germany and France.
(d)during Germany and France.

Answer: (b) except Germany and France.

‘Except’ means leaving out. All the countries signed apart from Germany and France. ‘Among’ and ‘beneath’ do not suit the sense.

19.

I reminded her

(a)to turn off the lights at night.
(b)to call off the lights at night.
(c)to drop off the lights at night.
(d)to break off the lights at night.

Answer: (a) to turn off the lights at night.

We say ‘remind someone to do something’. ‘To turn off the lights’ makes sense. The other options use phrasal verbs that do not fit lights.

20.

They told us about the woman

(a)whom lived next door.
(b)which lived next door.
(c)who lived next door.
(d)whose lived next door.

Answer: (c) who lived next door.

‘Who’ is the subject of ‘lived next door’ and refers to a person. ‘Whom’ is for objects. ‘Which’ is for things. ‘Whose’ shows ownership.

21.

I’ll see you

(a)at the end of February.
(b)on the end of February.
(c)along the end of February.
(d)for the end of February.

Answer: (a) at the end of February.

We say ‘at the end of February’. ‘At’ is used for a point in time. The other prepositions are wrong in this phrase.

22.

I dislike films

(a)who have sad endings.
(b)that have sad endings.
(c)whose have sad endings.
(d)whom have sad endings.

Answer: (b) that have sad endings.

‘That’ links to ‘films’, which are things. ‘Who’ and ‘whom’ are for people. ‘Whose’ shows possession, which does not fit.

23.

The thieves denied

(a)having stealing the money.
(b)stealing the money.
(c)had stolen the money.
(d)having to steal the money.

Answer: (b) stealing the money.

The verb ‘deny’ is followed by the -ing form: ‘denied stealing’. ‘Having stealing’ is wrong. ‘Had stolen’ is not a correct fit after ‘denied’.

24.

Did you

(a)drop out to see Sunita on your way home?
(b)drop in to see Sunita on your way home?
(c)drop behind to see Sunita on your way home?
(d)drop away to see Sunita on your way home?

Answer: (b) drop in to see Sunita on your way home?

‘Drop in’ means to visit briefly. ‘Did you drop in to see Sunita?’ is a correct and natural sentence. The other phrases mean something else.

25.

Would you like to

(a)meeting her?
(b)meet her?
(c)met her?
(d)meet with her?

Answer: (b) meet her?

‘Would you like to’ is followed by the base verb. So ‘meet her’ is right. The -ing form and the past form are wrong here.

Idioms and Phrases Directions : Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Select the most appropriate response from the options (a), (b), (c) or (d), and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

26.

Be bad news

(a)feelings of hate
(b)someone who behaves in a dishonest way
(c)someone who is considered undesirable
(d)to be ill

Answer: (c) someone who is considered undesirable

‘Be bad news’ means to be someone people find unwelcome or undesirable. The other options give meanings that the idiom does not carry.

27.

Back to the drawing board

(a)to draw comparisons
(b)to be a member of planning group
(c)to start planning again because the previous plan has failed
(d)to be fast at understanding a situation

Answer: (c) to start planning again because the previous plan has failed

‘Back to the drawing board’ means to start planning again because the first plan failed. A drawing board is where plans are first sketched.

28.

Be in the eye of the storm

(a)to look at something quickly
(b)to fail miserably at a sport
(c)to see something that you do not want to see
(d)to be in the midst of a controversy

Answer: (d) to be in the midst of a controversy

‘The eye of the storm’ is the middle of a fierce situation. So the idiom means being in the midst of a controversy.

29.

Life in the fast lane

(a)to lead a selfless life
(b)to have a happy life without complaints
(c)life without money or comforts
(d)an exciting and eventful lifestyle

Answer: (d) an exciting and eventful lifestyle

‘Life in the fast lane’ means an exciting, busy lifestyle, often full of risk and pleasure.

30.

To pass the buck

(a)to collect money from a group of people
(b)to shift the responsibility of something to someone
(c)to have a short conversation with someone
(d)to have the credentials for a particular job

Answer: (b) to shift the responsibility of something to someone

‘To pass the buck’ means to shift the blame or duty to someone else. It has no link to money or jobs.

Ordering of Words in a Sentence Directions : Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled as P, Q, R and S. Rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentences into sequence and select the correct sequence as (a), (b), (c), and (d) given below and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

31.

P: include basic freedoms
Q: the fundamental rights are
R: guaranteed to the individual
S: basic rights and

(a)QSPR
(b)QRSP
(c)SQRP
(d)RQSP

Answer: (a) QSPR

The parts join as: the fundamental rights are (Q), basic rights and (S), include basic freedoms (P), guaranteed to the individual (R). The order is QSPR.

32.

P: for many millennia
Q: been in the making
R: of a historical process that has
S: the Indian nation is the product

(a)SRQP
(b)SQPR
(c)PRSQ
(d)RSQP

Answer: (a) SRQP

Start with the subject ‘the Indian nation is the product’ (S). Then ‘of a historical process that has’ (R), ‘been in the making’ (Q), ‘for many millennia’ (P). The order is SRQP.

33.

P: an epoch that was imbued
Q: for its people the start of
R: with a new vision
S: India’s Independence represented

(a)SQPR
(b)QRPS
(c)SPQR
(d)RQSP

Answer: (a) SQPR

The sentence starts with ‘India’s Independence represented’ (S). Then ‘for its people the start of’ (Q), ‘an epoch that was imbued’ (P), ‘with a new vision’ (R). The order is SQPR.

34.

P: science and mathematics exhibition
Q: for a discussion on the forthcoming
R: to be present before the Principal
S: all students have been instructed

(a)SQPR
(b)RPQS
(c)SRQP
(d)QPRS

Answer: (c) SRQP

Start with ‘all students have been instructed’ (S). Then ‘to be present before the Principal’ (R), ‘for a discussion on the forthcoming’ (Q), ‘science and mathematics exhibition’ (P). The order is SRQP.

35.

P: two bowlers and two batsmen respectively
Q: to the new team
R: with the selection of another player
S: the team now has

(a)QPRS
(b)SQRP
(c)RQSP
(d)RPSQ

Answer: (c) RQSP

Start with ‘with the selection of another player’ (R). Then ‘to the new team’ (Q), ‘the team now has’ (S), ‘two bowlers and two batsmen respectively’ (P). The order is RQSP.

Word Classes Directions : Each of the following sentences has an underlined word. Read the sentence carefully and find which word class the underlined word belongs to. Indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

36.

You are most welcome to visit my humble abode.

(a)Noun
(b)Adjective
(c)Adverb
(d)Participle

Answer: (a) Noun

‘Abode’ means a home or house. It names a place, so it is a noun. Here it follows the adjective ‘humble’.

37.

The situation is beyond our control.

(a)Adjective
(b)Adverb
(c)Conjunction
(d)Preposition

Answer: (d) Preposition

In ‘beyond our control’, the word ‘beyond’ links ‘situation’ to ‘our control’. A word that does this is a preposition.

38.

I didn’t tell him anything except that I needed the money.

(a)Adjective
(b)Adverb
(c)Preposition
(d)Conjunction

Answer not given

The published answer keys disagree on this question, or do not match the question text, so no answer is shown here.

39.

He dry-cleaned my coat nicely.

(a)Adjective
(b)Adverb
(c)Relative pronoun
(d)Conjunction

Answer: (b) Adverb

‘Nicely’ tells how he dry-cleaned the coat. Words that tell how an action is done are adverbs.

40.

Would you like to buy this new item?

(a)Determiner
(b)Conjunction
(c)Interjection
(d)Adjective

Answer: (a) Determiner

‘This’ sits before the noun ‘item’ and points to it. A word that does this is a determiner.

Passage Directions : Read the following passage carefully and answer the items based on it. You are required to select your answers based solely on the contents of the passage and the opinion of the author.

Passage

The grouping or assemblage of plants, animals and microbes we observe when we study a natural forest, a grassland, a pond, a coral reef or some other undisturbed area, is referred to as the area’s biota or biotic community. The plant portion of the biotic community includes all vegetation, from large trees down through to microscopic algae. Likewise, the animal portion includes everything from large mammals, birds, reptiles and amphibians through to earthworms, tiny insects and mites. Microbes encompass a large array of microscopic bacteria, fungi and protozoans. Thus, the biotic community comprises a plant community, an animal community and a microbial community.

The particular kind of biotic community found in a given area is, in large part, determined by abiotic factors such as the amount of water or moisture present, the temperature, the salinity, or the type of soil in the area. These abiotic factors both support and limit the particular community. For example, a relative lack of available moisture prevents the growth of most species of plants, but supports certain species, such as cacti; these kinds of areas are deserts. Land with plenty of available moisture and a suitable temperature supports forests. The presence of water is the major factor that sustains aquatic communities.

The first step in investigating a biotic community may be simply to catalogue all the species present. Species are the different kinds of plants, animals and microbes in the community. A given species includes all those individuals which have a strong similarity in appearance to one another and which are distinct in appearance from other such groups. Each species in a biotic community is represented by a certain population — that is, by a certain number of individuals that make up the interbreeding, reproducing group.

41.

Which one of the following does not belong to the biotic community?

(a)Water
(b)Human
(c)Protozoa
(d)Bush

Answer: (a) Water

The biotic community is the set of living things: plants, animals and microbes. Water is non-living, so it does not belong. Human, protozoa and bush are all living.

42.

The nature of the biotic community largely depends on:

1. Biotic components
2. Abiotic components
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

The passage says the community is ‘in large part, determined by abiotic factors’ such as water, temperature and soil. So only the second statement is correct.

43.

Which of the following is not an abiotic factor?

(a)Temperature
(b)Humidity
(c)Algae
(d)Moisture

Answer: (c) Algae

Abiotic means non-living. Temperature, humidity and moisture are non-living factors. Algae are living plants, so they are not abiotic.

44.

In the passage, the word ‘aquatic community’ refers to:

(a)Biotic community inhabiting the land
(b)Biotic community found in water
(c)Biotic community found in the air
(d)Assemblage of rain and moisture

Answer: (b) Biotic community found in water

The passage says water is the main factor that sustains aquatic communities. So ‘aquatic community’ means the living things found in water.

45.

Species are defined on the basis of:

(a)Similarities only
(b)Differences only
(c)Both similarities and differences
(d)None of the above

Answer: (c) Both similarities and differences

The passage says a species has individuals that look alike and look different from other groups. So species are defined by both similarities and differences.

Synonyms Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words or groups of words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

46.

The king’s son was banished due to the political rivalry.

(a)deported
(b)called back
(c)accepted
(d)notified

Answer: (a) deported

Banished means sent away from a place as a punishment. The nearest word is ‘deported’. ‘Called back’ and ‘accepted’ mean the opposite or something else.

47.

He gave a dazzling performance at the opera.

(a)brilliant
(b)dismal
(c)pathetic
(d)puerile

Answer: (a) brilliant

Dazzling means so bright or impressive that it amazes people. The nearest word is ‘brilliant’. ‘Dismal’ and ‘pathetic’ are negative words.

48.

She rebuffed all suggestions from her friends.

(a)took
(b)rejected
(c)criticized
(d)granted

Answer: (b) rejected

Rebuffed means turned down in a blunt way. The nearest word is ‘rejected’. ‘Took’ and ‘granted’ mean accepting.

49.

He disowned his royal legacy and became a commoner.

(a)accepted
(b)abandoned
(c)allowed
(d)questioned

Answer: (b) abandoned

Disowned means gave up or refused to accept as one’s own. The nearest word is ‘abandoned’. The other options do not carry that sense.

50.

The public was sceptical about the new government policy.

(a)hopeful
(b)anxious
(c)doubtful
(d)expectant

Answer: (c) doubtful

Sceptical means having doubts. The nearest word is ‘doubtful’. ‘Hopeful’ and ‘expectant’ show positive feeling.

Part B: General Knowledge

51.

An infinite combination of resistors, each having resistance R = 4 Ω, is given below. What is the net resistance between the points A and B? (Each resistance is of equal value, R = 4 Ω)

Figure for question 51

(a)0 Ω
(b)2 + 2√5 Ω
(c)2 + √5 Ω
(d)∞ Ω

Answer not given

The published answer keys disagree on this question, or do not match the question text, so no answer is shown here.

52.

An electric circuit is given below. V₁ = 1 V and Resistance R = 1000 Ω.

Figure for question 52

The current through the resistance R is very close to 1 mA and the voltage across point A and B, V_AB = 1 V. Now the circuit is changed to:

Figure for question 52

where value of V₂ = 5 V. The internal resistances of both the batteries are 0·1 Ω. The current through the resistance R is about:

(a)1·0 mA
(b)1·2 mA
(c)3·0 mA
(d)5·0 mA

Answer: (d) 5·0 mA

Treat the circuit with Ohm’s law: current equals voltage divided by resistance. The paper’s figure gives the setup, and the key’s result is 5.0 mA.

53.

If the current through an electrical machine running on direct current is 15 A and the machine runs for 10 minutes, the charge that passes through the machine during this time is:

(a)1·50 C
(b)150 C
(c)900 C
(d)9000 C

Answer: (d) 9000 C

Charge equals current times time. Ten minutes is 600 seconds. So the charge is 15 A x 600 s = 9000 C.

54.

Which one of the following is the best shape of a solid metal rod to form the top end of a lightning conductor?

Figure for question 54

(a)Shape (a)
(b)Shape (b)
(c)Shape (c)
(d)Shape (d)

Answer: (a) Shape (a)

A lightning conductor works best with a sharp, pointed tip. Charge gathers at sharp points, so the conductor can discharge into the air safely. The key picks shape (a).

55.

Which of the following forces is/are fundamental in nature?

1. Gravitational force
2. Electromagnetic forces
3. Strong and weak nuclear forces
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1 only
(b)1 and 2 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Nature has four fundamental forces. Gravitational, electromagnetic, strong nuclear and weak nuclear forces are all fundamental. So all three statements are correct.

56.

A spherical shell of outer radius R and inner radius R/2 contains a solid sphere of radius R/2 (see figure). The density of the material of the solid sphere is p and that of the shell is p/2. What is the average mass density of the larger sphere thus formed?

Figure for question 56

(a)3p/4
(b)9p/16
(c)7p/8
(d)5p/8

Answer: (b) 9p/16

Find total mass and total volume of the big sphere. The solid sphere of radius R/2 has density p. The shell between R/2 and R has density p/2. The average comes to 9p/16.

57.

The human eye is like a camera that has a lens with:

(a)fixed focal length and fixed aperture size.
(b)variable focal length and fixed aperture size.
(c)fixed focal length and variable aperture size.
(d)variable focal length and variable aperture size.

Answer: (d) variable focal length and variable aperture size.

The eye lens changes its focal length to focus near or far objects. The pupil changes its size to control light. So both are variable, like a camera with zoom and a variable aperture.

58.

Under Article 371A of the Constitution of India, with respect to which of the following items) the Acts of the Parliament of India shall not apply to the State of Nagaland, unless the Legislative Assembly of the State of Nagaland by a resolution so decides?

1. Religious or social practices of Nagas
2. Naga customary law and procedure
3. Ownership and transfer of land and its resources
4. Boundaries of Nagaland with other states
Select the answer using the code given below:

(a)1 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1, 2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer not given

The published answer keys disagree on this question, or do not match the question text, so no answer is shown here.

59.

Under Article 191 of the Constitution of India, a person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of the Legislative Assembly or Legislative Council of a state if the person holds any office of profit under:

1. the Government of India.
2. any State Government.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Article 191 bars a person who holds an office of profit under the Government of India or any State Government. Exceptions are only those the law exempts. So both statements are correct.

60.

Consider the following UN Declarations/Covenants:

1. Universal Declaration of Human Rights
2. Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination Against Women
3. International Covenant of Economic, Social and Cultural Rights
4. Convention on Refugees
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order (starting with the earliest) of the above?

(a)1, 4, 3, 2
(b)1, 2, 3, 4
(c)1, 3, 2, 4
(d)4, 1, 2, 3

Answer: (a) 1, 4, 3, 2

The Universal Declaration of Human Rights came in 1948. The Refugee Convention followed in 1951. The ICESCR came in 1966 and CEDAW in 1979. The order is 1, 4, 3, 2.

61.

Which one of the following statements regarding the objectives of the Second Five-Year Plan is not correct?

(a)Development of the basic and heavy industry sector
(b)Increase in national income to raise living standards
(c)Expansion of the consumer goods sector
(d)Expansion of employment opportunities

Answer: (c) Expansion of the consumer goods sector

The Second Five-Year Plan stressed basic and heavy industry, higher national income and more jobs. It did not stress consumer goods. So option (c) is not correct.

62.

Consider the following statements about the emergence of urban centres in India from circa 6th Century BCE:

1. All of them developed away from the capitals of mahajanpadas.
2. Major towns were located along routes of communication.
3. Many were bustling centres of commercial, cultural and political activity.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a)1
(b)2
(c)3
(d)None

Answer not given

The published answer keys disagree on this question, or do not match the question text, so no answer is shown here.

63.

Consider the following statements about ancient Indian inscriptions:

1. The earliest inscriptions are in Sanskrit.
2. Kharosthi script, used in inscriptions in the north-west, was deciphered with the help of coins of Indo-Greek kings who ruled over the area.
3. Most of the inscriptions mention grand, unique events, and routine agricultural practices do not find mention.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a)1
(b)2
(c)3
(d)None

Answer not given

The published answer keys disagree on this question, or do not match the question text, so no answer is shown here.

64.

The relative atomic mass of boron (which exists in two isotopic forms ¹⁰B and ¹¹B) is 10·81. What will be the abundance of ¹⁰B and ¹¹B, respectively (consider a sample of 100 atoms)?

(a)19% and 81%
(b)81% and 19%
(c)38% and 62%
(d)62% and 38%

Answer: (a) 19% and 81%

Let x be the percentage of 10B. Then the average mass is (10x + 11(100 – x)) / 100 = 10.81. Solving gives x = 19. So 10B is 19% and 11B is 81%.

65.

Which among the following are essential constituents of Portland cement?

(a)Sand, lime, clay
(b)Silica, alumina, lime
(c)Silica, lime, graphite powder
(d)Sand, graphene, clay

Answer: (b) Silica, alumina, lime

Portland cement is made from limestone and clay. Its main oxides are silica, alumina and lime. Sand alone and graphite are not essential constituents.

66.

Litmus, a well-known acid-base indicator, is derived from:

(a)Fungi
(b)Lichens
(c)Bacteria
(d)Termite

Answer: (b) Lichens

Litmus is a dye taken from lichens. It turns red in acid and blue in base. It does not come from fungi or bacteria alone.

67.

What is the oxidation state of Vanadium in V₂O₅?

(a)+ 2
(b)+ 4
(c)+ 3
(d)+ 5

Answer: (d) + 5

In V2O5, oxygen is -2. Five oxygens give -10. The two vanadium atoms must give +10 in total. So each vanadium is +5.

68.

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I (Allotrope of Carbon)	List-II (Property)
A. Graphite	1. Thinnest and strongest material
B. Diamond	2. Hardest natural substance
C. Fullerene	3. Very light and strong material
D. Graphene	4. Soft and slippery material

Code: A B C D

(a)4 2 3 1
(b)4 3 2 1
(c)1 3 2 4
(d)1 2 3 4

Answer: (a) 4 2 3 1

Graphite is soft and slippery. Diamond is the hardest natural substance. Fullerene is light and strong. Graphene is the thinnest and strongest material. The match is 4 2 3 1.

69.

Consider the following statements regarding the International Date Line:

1. It is roughly 180° meridian, which deviates slightly East and West to avoid land areas surrounded by the Atlantic Ocean.
2. The date to the East of this line is (24 hours) earlier than to the West.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

The International Date Line follows roughly the 180 degree meridian but bends to avoid land. Statement 1 is wrong because that ocean is the Pacific, not the Atlantic. Statement 2 is correct: the east side of the line is a day behind.

70.

Which of the following statements regarding ‘aurora’ is/are correct?

1. The solar wind upon reaching the Earth’s atmosphere is directed towards two magnetic poles and a colourful display of lights is seen in the night sky.
2. The particles interact with the different gases of the atmosphere and each gas glows with a particular colour.
3. In April 2023, aurora was captured in the night sky in India by the Indian Astronomical Observatory at Hanle, Ladakh.
Select the answer using the code given below:

(a)1 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Charged particles from the solar wind are guided to the poles. They hit atmospheric gases, and each gas glows in its own colour. An aurora was recorded at Hanle in 2023. All three statements are correct.

71.

Which of the following statements regarding Barchan is/are correct?

1. It is a crescent shaped mound of sand, which is deposited by the wind blowing constantly from one direction in a desert.
2. The windward side has a convex steep slope with maximum height at the centre.
3. Two ends of Barchan are called horns and point opposite to the direction the wind blows.
Select the answer using the code given below:

(a)1 only
(b)1 and 2 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer not given

The published answer keys disagree on this question, or do not match the question text, so no answer is shown here.

72.

Which of the following statements regarding Regur soil is/are correct?

1. It is a light coloured, clayey and fertile soil.
2. It is developed on Deccan basaltic lava under hot and humid conditions.
3. Cotton is extensively cultivated in this soil.
Select the answer using the code given below:

(a)1 and 2
(b)2 and 3
(c)2 only
(d)3 only

Answer: (b) 2 and 3

Regur is black cotton soil. It is dark in colour, so statement 1 is wrong. It forms on Deccan basalt lava, and cotton is its famous crop. The paper treats statements 2 and 3 as correct.

73.

Which of the following statements regarding clouds is/are correct?

1. Clouds are classified on the basis of altitude and their form.
2. According to altitude they are classified as High, Middle and Low clouds.
3. Stratus, Nimbostratus and Stratocumulus are high clouds.
Select the answer using the code given below:

(a)1 only
(b)1 and 2 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only

Clouds are grouped by height and form. By height there are high, middle and low clouds. Stratus, nimbostratus and stratocumulus are low clouds. So statement 3 is wrong.

74.

Consider the following statements regarding ‘fronts’:

1. The movement of a front causes a slow change in weather in the area over which it moves.
2. Cold fronts are associated with thunderstorms.
3. Warm front is the boundary between an advancing mass of warm air where it is overriding and rising above a mass of colder air.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)1 and 2 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer not given

The published answer keys disagree on this question, or do not match the question text, so no answer is shown here.

75.

Consider the following statements regarding soils:

1. Soils having a very high content of sodium and calcium and pH of more than 7·0 are alkaline soils.
2. Black cotton soil had developed on the Deccan basaltic lava under hot and humid conditions.
3. Laterite soils are characterised by a deep weathered layer from which silica has been leached.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)1 and 2 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only

The paper treats statement 1 as wrong. Black cotton soil forms on Deccan basalt lava. Laterite soils have silica leached out. The paper treats statements 2 and 3 as correct.

76.

Consider the following characteristics of a grassland:

1. An extensive area of mid latitude grasslands are devoid of trees and shrubs.
2. The climate is characterised by hot summers, cold winters and relatively low rainfall occurring mainly in spring and summer.
3. In humid parts, grasses grow to a meter or more in height. On the basis of the above characteristics, select the correct grassland from the options given below:

(a)Steppes
(b)Prairies
(c)Savanna
(d)Pampas

Answer not given

The published answer keys disagree on this question, or do not match the question text, so no answer is shown here.

77.

Which of the following statements regarding animal cell membrane is correct?

(a)They are composed of phospholipids only.
(b)They are composed of proteins only.
(c)They are composed of phospholipids and proteins only.
(d)They are composed of phospholipids, proteins and cholesterol (lipid).

Answer: (d) They are composed of phospholipids, proteins and cholesterol (lipid).

The animal cell membrane is a lipid bilayer. It has phospholipids and proteins. It also has cholesterol, which keeps it flexible. So option (d) is complete.

78.

Which of the following is not a part of compound microscope?

(a)Mirror
(b)Stage
(c)Clip
(d)Retina

Answer: (d) Retina

A compound microscope has a mirror, stage and clips. The retina is part of the eye, not a microscope.

79.

Which one of the following is the correct sequence in increasing complexity?

(a)Protein – Organism – Tissue – Organ
(b)Protein – Organ – Tissue – Organism
(c)Protein – Organism – Organ – Tissue
(d)Protein – Tissue – Organ – Organism

Answer: (d) Protein – Tissue – Organ – Organism

The order of increasing complexity is protein, then tissue, then organ, then organism. Cells make tissues, tissues make organs, and organs make a whole organism.

80.

Consider the following cell types:

1. Monocyte
2. Chondrocyte
3. Basophil
4. Lymphocyte
How many of the above belong to animal cell types?

(a)1
(b)2
(c)3
(d)4

Answer: (d) 4

Monocytes, basophils and lymphocytes are blood cells. Chondrocytes are cartilage cells. All four are animal cells.

81.

In the human digestive system, which one among the following is the role of the pancreas?

(a)Secretion of surfactants to break up lipid droplets
(b)Storage and regulated release of bile
(c)Secretion of lipase, amylase and protease
(d)Neutralizing stomach acids

Answer: (c) Secretion of lipase, amylase and protease

The pancreas makes digestive enzymes: lipase, amylase and protease. They break down fats, starch and proteins. Bile is made in the liver and stored in the gall bladder.

82.

Consider the following statements:

1. DNA replication takes place when chromatin is opened up.
2. Chromatin organises itself into rod-shaped chromosomes before cell division.
3. Both prokaryotes and eukaryotes have the same process for cell division.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)1 and 2 only
(c)1, 2 and 3
(d)3 only

Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only

DNA replication happens when chromatin opens up, so statement 1 is correct. Chromatin condenses into rod-like chromosomes before cell division, so statement 2 is correct. Prokaryotes and eukaryotes divide differently, so statement 3 is wrong.

83.

A uniform meter scale of mass 0·24 kg is made of steel. It is kept on two wedges, W₁ and W₂, in a horizontal position. W₁ is at a distance of 0·2 m from one of its ends, while W₂ is at distance of 0·4 m from the other end. If the force on the scale is N₁ due to W₁ and N₂ due to W₂, then: (take g = 10·0 m s⁻²)

(a)N₁ = 1·6 N and N₂ = 0·8 N
(b)N₁ = 0·8 N and N₂ = 1·6 N
(c)N₁ = 0·6 N and N₂ = 1·8 N
(d)N₁ = 1·8 N and N₂ = 0·6 N

Answer not given

The published answer keys disagree on this question, or do not match the question text, so no answer is shown here.

84.

Escape speed from the Earth is close to 11·2 km s⁻¹. On another planet whose radius is half of the Earth’s radius and whose mass density is four times that of the Earth, the escape speed in km s⁻¹ will be close to:

(a)11·2
(b)15·8
(c)5·6
(d)7·9

Answer: (a) 11·2

Escape speed is proportional to R times the square root of density. The radius is half, and the density is four times. The square root of 4 is 2. The two factors cancel, so the speed stays 11.2 km/s.

85.

Which one of the following does not apply to sound waves in fluids?

(a)They transport energy
(b)They need a medium to travel
(c)They are transverse
(d)They travel faster in liquids than in gases

Answer: (c) They are transverse

Sound in fluids is a longitudinal wave, not a transverse one. It carries energy and needs a medium. It travels faster in liquids than in gases.

86.

A ball of 0·1 kg mass is dropped on a hard floor from a height of 0·45 m and rises to a height of 0·20 m. If it was in touch with the floor for 0·1 s, the net force it applied on the floor while bouncing is: (take the gravitational acceleration g = 10 m s⁻²)

(a)1·0 N
(b)6·0 N
(c)3·0 N
(d)5·0 N

Answer not given

The published answer keys disagree on this question, or do not match the question text, so no answer is shown here.

87.

Which one of the following statements regarding simple pendulum is correct? Simple pendulum has a time period independent of amplitude:

(a)only for small amplitudes because then the net force on its bob is independent of its displacement.
(b)for any amplitude because the net force on the bob is always proportional to its displacement.
(c)for any amplitude because the net force on the bob is independent of its displacement.
(d)only for small amplitudes because then the net force on its bob is proportional to its displacement.

Answer: (d) only for small amplitudes because then the net force on its bob is proportional to its displacement.

For small amplitudes, the restoring force on a pendulum bob is nearly proportional to its displacement. This gives simple harmonic motion. Then the time period does not depend on amplitude.

88.

Which one of the following about different frictional forces is correct?

(a)Kinetic friction > Static friction > Rolling friction
(b)Static friction > Rolling friction > Kinetic friction
(c)Static friction > Kinetic friction > Rolling friction
(d)Static friction > Kinetic friction = Rolling friction

Answer: (c) Static friction > Kinetic friction > Rolling friction

Static friction is the biggest. Kinetic friction is smaller. Rolling friction is the smallest. So the order is static > kinetic > rolling.

89.

A metallic bob X of mass m is released from position A. It collides elastically with another identical bob Y placed at rest at position B on a horizontal frictionless table. The angle AOB is 30°. How high does the bob X rise immediately after the collision?

Figure for question 89

(a)To the same height as that of position A on the other side in the same trajectory
(b)To half the height as that of position A on the other side along the same trajectory
(c)The same height at position A
(d)It stops at position B

Answer: (d) It stops at position B

In an elastic collision between equal masses, the two bodies swap speeds. The moving bob stops and the other moves on. The key picks option (d).

90.

Consider the two statements given below: Statement-1: Infrared waves are also called heat waves. Statement-2: Water molecules readily absorb infrared waves. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)Both the statements are individually true and Statement-2 is the correct explanation of Statement-1.
(b)Both the statements are individually true, but Statement-2 is not the correct explanation of Statement-1.
(c)Statement-1 is true, but Statement-2 is false.
(d)Statement-2 is true, but Statement-1 is false.

Answer not given

The published answer keys disagree on this question, or do not match the question text, so no answer is shown here.

91.

Which of the following statements are correct?

1. British ‘trade surplus’ with India in the nineteenth century meant that the value of British exports to India was much higher than the value of British imports from India.
2. India played a crucial role in the late-nineteenth-century world economy by helping Britain balance its deficits.
3. Britain grew opium in India and exported it to China and, therefore, for a while after the 1820s, opium became India’s single largest export.
4. The nineteenth century saw export of Indian raw materials decline, and that of manufactured goods increase.
Select the answer using the code given below:

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)3 and 4 only
(c)1, 2, 3 and 4
(d)1, 2 and 3 only

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Britain sold more to India than it bought from India, so statement 1 is correct. India helped Britain balance its deficits. Opium grown in India was exported to China. Statement 4 is wrong because raw material exports rose and manufactured goods fell.

92.

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I (Unit in use in early India)	List-II (Content)
A. Muhurta	1. Measure of weight
B. Raktika	2. Measure of time
C. Angula	3. Metre of poetry
D. Pada	4. Measure of length

Code: A B C D

(a)2 1 4 3
(b)2 4 1 3
(c)3 4 1 2
(d)3 1 4 2

Answer: (a) 2 1 4 3

Muhurta is a measure of time. Raktika is a measure of weight. Angula is a measure of length. Pada is a metre of poetry. The match is 2 1 4 3.

93.

First coins in Indian history bearing the names and images of rulers were issued by the:

(a)Mauryas
(b)Pushyabhutis
(c)Guptas
(d)Indo-Greeks

Answer: (d) Indo-Greeks

Indo-Greek kings issued the first coins that carried the names and images of rulers. Earlier punch-marked coins had only symbols.

94.

Social theorists in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries emphasised the emergence of industrialisation, urbanisation, secularisation and bureaucratisation as hallmarks of:

(a)Modernity
(b)Feudalism
(c)Kingship
(d)Medievalism

Answer: (a) Modernity

Industrialisation, urbanisation, secularisation and bureaucratisation were seen by thinkers as marks of modernity.

95.

Consider the following events:

1. Launch of Non-Cooperation Movement
2. All-India Khilafat Conference in Delhi
3. Passing of the Rowlatt Act
4. Jallianwala Bagh incident
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the given events (earliest to latest)?

(a)1, 2, 3, 4
(b)3, 4, 2, 1
(c)3, 2, 4, 1
(d)2, 3, 4, 1

Answer: (b) 3, 4, 2, 1

The Rowlatt Act passed in March 1919. The Jallianwala Bagh killings followed in April 1919. The Khilafat Conference met in Delhi in November 1919. Non-Cooperation began in 1920. The order is 3, 4, 2, 1.

96.

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I (System / Category)	List-II (Description)
A. Upari	1. Peasants directly responsible for the payment of revenue
B. Pattadar	2. Category of tenancy tenure held under the Marathas
C. Mirasidar	3. Gifts of land or land revenue
D. Inam lands	4. Co-parcenary title holder and designated revenue payer in southern India

Code: A B C D

(a)2 1 4 3
(b)2 4 1 3
(c)3 4 1 2
(d)3 1 4 2

Answer: (a) 2 1 4 3

Upari was a tenancy category under the Marathas. Pattadars paid revenue directly. Mirasidars held a co-parcenary title in southern India. Inam lands were gifts of land or revenue. The match is 2 1 4 3.

97.

Which of the following statements about Vijayanagara king Krishnadevaraya’s expeditions are correct?

1. In the early years of his reign he marched against the ruler of Orissa.
2. In 1520 CE, he captured the fort of Raichur from Ismail Adil Khan.
3. Krishnadevaraya restored Sultan Mahmud Shah to power and assumed the title of Yavana-rajya-sthapan-acharya.
Select the answer using the code given below:

(a)1 and 3 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1, 2 and 3
(d)1 and 2 only

Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3

Krishnadevaraya marched against the ruler of Orissa early in his reign. He took the Raichur fort in 1520. He also restored Sultan Mahmud Shah to power. All three statements are correct.

98.

Water gas is a mixture of:

(a)CO₂ and H₂
(b)CO and H₂
(c)CO₂ and H₂O
(d)CO and H₂O

Answer: (b) CO and H2

Water gas is made by passing steam over hot coke. It is a mix of carbon monoxide and hydrogen. It is a useful fuel gas.

99.

Human body works in the pH range of:

(a)6·8 – 7·2
(b)7·0 – 7·8
(c)6·5 – 7·5
(d)7·5 – 8·0

Answer: (b) 7·0 – 7·8

The human body works best in a narrow, nearly neutral pH range. Blood pH stays near 7.4. The range 7.0 to 7.8 covers this.

100.

Which one among the following statements with reference to the properties of water is not correct?

(a)The specific heat of water is abnormally high
(b)Latent heat of fusion of water is very low.
(c)Density of water is higher than ice.
(d)Pure water is a non-conductor of electricity.

Answer: (b) Latent heat of fusion of water is very low.

Water has an unusually high specific heat. Pure water is a very poor conductor. Ice is less dense than water, so ice floats. But the latent heat of fusion of water is high, not low. So statement (b) is not correct.

101.

Which one among the following compounds has a sweet and fruity smell?

(a)Ethyl alcohol
(b)Acetic acid
(c)Ethyl acetate
(d)Acetophenone

Answer: (c) Ethyl acetate

Ethyl acetate is an ester. Esters have sweet, fruity smells, which is why they are used in perfumes and flavours.

102.

What is the coordination number of Na⁺ and Cl⁻ ions in NaCl lattice?

(a)6, 1
(b)1, 6
(c)6, 6
(d)5, 5

Answer: (c) 6, 6

In the NaCl crystal, each Na+ ion is surrounded by six Cl- ions. Each Cl- ion is surrounded by six Na+ ions. So both coordination numbers are 6.

103.

Which one among the following is present in the nettle leaf hairs that causes burning pain?

(a)Methanoic acid
(b)Ethanoic acid
(c)Benzoic acid
(d)Acetic acid

Answer: (a) Methanoic acid

Nettle leaf hairs inject methanoic acid, also called formic acid. This causes the burning pain.

104.

Which one among the following is known as Milk of Magnesia?

(a)Magnesium bicarbonate
(b)Magnesium carbonate
(c)Magnesium sulphate
(d)Magnesium hydroxide

Answer: (d) Magnesium hydroxide

Milk of Magnesia is a white suspension of magnesium hydroxide in water. It is used as an antacid and a mild laxative.

105.

Soap with water forms:

(a)Metallotropic liquid crystal
(b)Thermotropic liquid crystal
(c)Homogeneous solution
(d)Lyotropic liquid crystal

Answer: (d) Lyotropic liquid crystal

Soap in water forms ordered groups called micelles. This gives a lyotropic liquid crystal, whose order depends on the amount of solvent.

106.

Which among the following is the correct composition of Borax?

(a)Sodium, Boron, Magnesium and Hydrogen
(b)Sodium, Boron, Oxygen and Hydrogen
(c)Potassium, Boron, Oxygen and Hydrogen
(d)Sodium, Boron, Nitrogen and Hydrogen

Answer: (b) Sodium, Boron, Oxygen and Hydrogen

Borax is sodium tetraborate decahydrate, Na2B4O7.10H2O. It contains sodium, boron, oxygen and hydrogen.

107.

Which one among the following oxides has the highest melting point?

(a)Na₂O
(b)MgO
(c)Fe₂O₃
(d)CuO

Answer: (b) MgO

MgO has strong ionic bonds between Mg2+ and O2- ions. This gives it a very high melting point, above 2800 C. It is higher than Na2O, Fe2O3 and CuO.

108.

Which of the following statements regarding neap tides is/are correct?

1. It occurs every 14-15 days, which coincides with the first and third quarter of the Moon.
2. This tide has a small tidal range because the gravitational forces of the Moon and the Sun are in quadrature.
Select the answer using the code given below:

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Neap tides come twice a month, about every 14 to 15 days, at the first and third quarters of the Moon. The Sun and Moon pull at right angles, so the tidal range is small. Both statements are correct.

109.

Which of the following statements regarding earthquakes is/are correct?

1. The point on the Earth’s surface directly above the focus is called the epicentre of the earthquake.
2. Earthquakes generate Primary and Secondary waves that radiate outward from the earthquake focus.
3. Deep-focus earthquakes are likely to cause more damage than shallow-focus earthquakes.
Select the answer using the code given below:

(a)1 only
(b)1 and 2 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only

The epicentre is the point on the surface above the focus. Earthquakes send out P and S waves. Shallow-focus quakes cause more damage than deep ones, so statement 3 is wrong.

110.

Which of the following statements regarding air temperature is/are correct?

1. Air temperature is measured at a standard height of 1·2 m (4·0 feet) above the ground surface.
2. The average rate of temperature decrease with height is termed as the environmental temperature lapse rate.
Select the answer using the code given below:

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Air temperature is measured at a standard height of 1.2 m. The average fall of temperature with height is the lapse rate. Both statements are correct.

111.

Which of the following statements regarding humidity is/are correct?

1. It is a ratio between the actual amount of water vapour present in the atmosphere and the maximum amount it can hold at a given temperature.
2. When the relative humidity is high, more water evaporates from the skin.
3. Higher the air temperature lower the relative humidity of the air.
Select the answer using the code given below:

(a)1 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

Relative humidity is the ratio of actual water vapour to the maximum the air can hold. Warm air can hold more vapour, so relative humidity falls as temperature rises. High humidity slows evaporation from skin, so statement 2 is wrong.

112.

Which of the following statements regarding cyclones and anti-cyclones is/are correct?

1. In the Northern Hemisphere, cyclones rotate counter clockwise and anticyclones rotate clockwise.
2. Cyclones are often associated with cloudy or rainy weather, whereas anticyclones are often associated with fair weather.
3. In the Southern Hemisphere, the cyclonic spiral will be clockwise because the Coriolis force acts to the left.
Select the answer using the code given below:

(a)1 only
(b)1 and 2 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

In the Northern Hemisphere, cyclones turn anticlockwise and anticyclones clockwise. Cyclones bring cloud and rain. In the Southern Hemisphere the pattern reverses. All three statements are correct.

113.

Identify the sea-port in India on the basis of the given characteristics:

1. It is more than a century old port on the west coast of India.
2. It is a natural harbour protected by a breakwater and also by a mole.
3. A deep draft channel of about 14 metres depth permits large vessels to enter the harbour.
Select the correct sea-port from the options given below:

(a)Mormugao Port
(b)Deendayal Port
(c)Cochin Port
(d)Jawaharlal Nehru Port

Answer: (a) Mormugao Port

Mormugao in Goa is over a century old. It is a natural harbour with a breakwater and a mole. It has a deep draft channel of about 14 m.

114.

Identify the Iron and Steel Plant on the basis of the given characteristics:

1. It receives coal from Jharia and iron-ore from Sundargarh and Kendujhar.
2. Power for the electric furnaces is procured from Hirakund.
3. Water is obtained from Koel and Sankh rivers.
Select the correct Iron and Steel Plant from the options given below:

(a)Bhilai Steel Plant
(b)Durgapur Steel Plant
(c)Rourkela Steel Plant
(d)Bokaro Steel Plant

Answer: (c) Rourkela Steel Plant

Rourkela gets coal from Jharia and iron ore from Sundargarh and Kendujhar. It draws power from Hirakud and water from the Koel and Sankh rivers.

115.

Which of the following statements regarding Earth’s internal structure is/are correct?

1. The oceanic crust is heavier than the continental crust.
2. Most of the Earth’s internal heat is contained within the mantle.
3. Large convective cells in the crust circulate heat and drive plate-tectonic processes.
Select the answer using the code given below:

(a)3 only
(b)1 and 2 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only

The oceanic crust is denser and heavier than the continental crust. Most of Earth’s internal heat sits in the mantle. Convection cells operate in the mantle, not the crust, so statement 3 is wrong.

116.

Which of the following statements regarding the given rivers is/are correct?

1. Tsangpo crosses over into India under the name of Dihang.
2. Godavari has the second largest river basin covering about 10 percent of the area of India.
3. Rivers Chambal and Betwa are the important tributaries of river Ganga which join river Ganga directly in Uttar Pradesh.
Select the answer using the code given below:

(a)1 only
(b)1 and 2 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only

The Tsangpo enters India as the Dihang. The Godavari basin is the second largest in India, at about 10 percent of the area. Chambal and Betwa join the Yamuna, not the Ganga directly, so statement 3 is wrong.

117.

Which of the following statements regarding the World Climate Types and their relation with Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) is/are correct?

1. Tropical Wet Climate is one of the world’s rainiest due to the dominance of the ITCZ over it.
2. Tropical Savanna Climate experiences a distinctive alternation of wet and dry seasons, caused chiefly by the seasonal shift in latitude of the subtropical highs and ITCZ.
3. The Tropical Monsoonal Climate experiences heavy rainfall as a consequence of the nearness of the ITCZ for much of the year.
Select the answer using the code given below:

(a)1 only
(b)1 and 2 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

The ITCZ brings heavy rain to the tropical wet climate. Its seasonal shift creates the wet and dry seasons of the savanna. It also brings heavy rain to the monsoon climate. All three statements are correct.

118.

Which of the following statements regarding tropical cyclones is/are correct?

1. These storms develop during the summer and autumn in every tropical ocean except the South Atlantic and eastern South Pacific Oceans.
2. Tropical cyclones that occur in the North Atlantic and eastern North Pacific Oceans are known as typhoons.
3. Tropical cyclones that occur in the Indian and South Pacific Oceans are called cyclones.
Select the answer using the code given below:

(a)3 only
(b)1 and 2 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

Tropical cyclones form in all tropical oceans except the South Atlantic and eastern South Pacific. Those in the Indian and South Pacific oceans are called cyclones. Typhoons form in the western North Pacific, so statement 2 is wrong.

119.

Identify the land biome on the basis of the given characteristics:

1. Their climates are characterised by high rainfall and temperatures that vary from cold to mild.
2. These forests contain primarily deciduous trees – including maple, oak, hickory and beechwood.
3. Raccoons, opossums, bats and squirrels are found in the trees.
Select the correct land biome from the options given below:

(a)Tropical forest
(b)Temperate forest
(c)Boreal forest
(d)Mediterranean forest

Answer: (b) Temperate forest

Cold-to-mild temperatures, high rainfall and deciduous trees such as maple and oak point to a temperate forest. Raccoons and squirrels live there.

120.

Leaves of most plants appear green because the chlorophyll present in it:

(a)absorbs red and blue light while reflecting green light.
(b)absorbs green light only.
(c)absorbs green light while reflecting red and blue light.
(d)reflects red light and absorbs blue and green light.

Answer: (a) absorbs red and blue light while reflecting green light.

Chlorophyll absorbs red and blue light for photosynthesis. It reflects green light, which is why leaves look green.

121.

In most prokaryotes, the chromosome number is:

(a)4
(b)3
(c)2
(d)1

Answer: (d) 1

Most prokaryotes have a single circular chromosome. So the chromosome number is one.

122.

Bacterial DNA is referred to as naked because it is not associated with:

(a)any scaffold
(b)proteins
(c)ribozymes
(d)plasmid

Answer: (b) proteins

Bacterial DNA is called naked because it is not wrapped around histone proteins, unlike DNA in eukaryotes.

123.

Which one among the following cells produces antibodies against a foreign antigen?

(a)Lymphocytes
(b)Erythrocytes
(c)Eosinophils
(d)Platelets

Answer: (a) Lymphocytes

Lymphocytes, especially B cells, make antibodies against foreign antigens.

124.

If the block P as shown in the figure below were to be at rest, what should the magnitude of force F be?

Figure for question 124

(a)5 N
(b)6 N
(c)8 N
(d)10 N

Answer: (c) 8 N

For block P to stay at rest, the forces on it must balance. The figure gives the setup, and the key’s answer is 8 N.

125.

Of the following, which does not belong to a nuclear reactor?

(a)A turbine
(b)A heat exchanger
(c)A mechanism to reduce CO2 emission
(d)A reaction chamber

Answer: (c) A mechanism to reduce CO2 emission

A nuclear reactor has a reaction chamber, a heat exchanger and a turbine. A mechanism to reduce CO2 is not a reactor part.

126.

Consider the following electric circuit:

Figure for question 126

The current in the above electric circuit is:

(a)1 A
(b)(10/15) A
(c)2 A
(d)1·5 A

Answer not given

The published answer keys disagree on this question, or do not match the question text, so no answer is shown here.

127.

A microscope may be a combination of:

(a)two convex lenses.
(b)a convex and a concave lens.
(c)two concave lenses.
(d)a convex lens and a convex mirror.

Answer: (a) two convex lenses.

A compound microscope uses two convex lenses: the objective and the eyepiece. A concave lens or a mirror is not used.

128.

For a human eye, where u is the distance of an object from the eye, f is the focal length of the lens and v is the distance of image from the eye, which is the correct schematic graph?

Figure for question 128

(a)Graph (a)
(b)Graph (b)
(c)Graph (c)
(d)Graph (d)

Answer not given

The published answer keys disagree on this question, or do not match the question text, so no answer is shown here.

129.

Which of the following statements with regard to the phenomenon of the primary rainbow formation by water droplets is/are correct?

1. It involves refraction and one internal reflection of sunlight.
2. It involves refraction of sunlight only.
3. It is formed as the inner bow.
4. It may involve more than one internal reflection as well as refraction of sunlight.
Select the answer using the code given below:

(a)1 only
(b)1 and 3
(c)3 and 4
(d)2 and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 3

A primary rainbow forms by refraction, one internal reflection and refraction again. It is the inner bow. More than one reflection gives the secondary bow. So statements 1 and 3 are correct.

130.

Which one of the following scientists mentioned that an electron in an atom could revolve in certain stable orbits without the emission of radiant energy?

(a)Ernest Rutherford
(b)J.J. Thomson
(c)Niels Bohr
(d)Albert Einstein

Answer: (c) Niels Bohr

Niels Bohr proposed that electrons orbit in stable paths without losing energy. Rutherford’s model could not explain this stability.

131.

LIGO experiment confirmed one of the predictions of:

(a)String theory
(b)Special theory of relativity
(c)Quantum mechanics
(d)General theory of relativity

Answer: (d) General theory of relativity

LIGO detected gravitational waves. These were predicted by Einstein’s general theory of relativity.

132.

A block of mass 2 kg, moving with the initial speed of 3 m/s comes to rest on a rough horizontal surface after travelling a distance of 3 m. The magnitude of the frictional force is:

(a)9 N
(b)3 N
(c)18 N
(d)1 N

Answer: (b) 3 N

Use v squared = 2as: 9 = 2 x a x 3, so a = 1.5 m/s squared. Then force = 2 x 1.5 = 3 N.

133.

Which one of the following is primarily responsible for conduction of current in a metal?

(a)Bound electrons
(b)Free electrons
(c)Both bound and free electrons
(d)Ions

Answer: (b) Free electrons

Free electrons move through a metal under an electric field. They carry the current. Bound electrons stay with their atoms.

134.

Which of the following were features of the postal system of India as described by Ibn Battuta?

1. The foot post carries a ringing bell in one hand
2. The horse post is called uluq, stationed at a distance of every four miles.
3. The foot post or dawa has one station at every four kos of distance.
4. The foot post is quicker than horse post.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1, 2 and 4
(b)1 and 2 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 3 and 4

Answer not given

The published answer keys disagree on this question, or do not match the question text, so no answer is shown here.

135.

Which one of the following texts is a commentary written by Chakrapanidatta (11 Century CE from Bengal) on the Sushrut Samhita?

(a)Sabdachandrika
(b)Bhanumati
(c)Nitiratnakara
(d)Lohasarvasava

Answer: (b) Bhanumati

Chakrapanidatta of Bengal wrote the commentary ‘Bhanumati’ on the Sushruta Samhita in the 11th century CE.

136.

Consider the following statements about the arrival of tobacco in India:

1. Tobacco plant arrived first in the Deccan.
2. Tobacco spread to northern India in the early years of the seventeenth century.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Tobacco reached India first in the Deccan. It spread to northern India in the early 17th century. Both statements are correct.

137.

Consider the following Women’s Associations and their important associates in early twentieth century India:

1. Women’s Indian Association of 1917 : Margaret Cousins
2. National Council of Women in India of 1925 : Sarala Devi Chaudhurani
3. Bharat Stree Mahamandal of 1910 : Lady Meherbai Tata
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched ?

(a)1, 2 and 3
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 2 only
(d)1 only

Answer: (d) 1 only

The Women’s Indian Association of 1917 is linked to Margaret Cousins, so pair 1 is correct. The National Council of Women in India dates to 1925 and is linked to Lady Meherbai Tata. The Bharat Stree Mahamandal of 1910 is linked to Sarala Devi Chaudhurani. So only pair 1 is correct.

138.

Consider the following statements about the issue of separate electorate during the early decades of the twentieth century in India as a means to secure adequate representation for the deprived social categories in the absence of universal adult franchise:

1. The All India Depressed Classes Association of M.C. Rajah was staunchly in favour of joint electorate.
2. The All India Depressed Classes Leaders’ Conference demanded separate electorate.
3. The Communal Award in September 1932 recognised the right to separate electorate for the ‘untouchables’.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

M.C. Rajah’s association favoured joint electorates, and other Depressed Classes leaders demanded separate ones. The Communal Award of 1932 gave separate electorates to the ‘untouchables’. All three statements are correct.

139.

Which of the following statements with regard to the famous ‘silk routes’ are correct?

1. Silk routes refer to East-bound European silk cargoes along these routes.
2. There were several silk routes, over land and by sea, joining together vast regions of Asia with Europe and northern Africa.
3. They are known to have existed since before the Christian Era and thrived almost till the fifteenth century.
4. Besides silk, Chinese pottery, textiles and spices from India and South-east Asia travelled the same route.
Select the answer using the code given below:

(a)1, 2 and 3
(b)1, 3 and 4
(c)2, 3 and 4
(d)1, 2 and 4

Answer: (c) 2, 3 and 4

The silk routes were many land and sea routes joining Asia with Europe and Africa. They ran from before the Christian Era to about the fifteenth century. Pottery, textiles and spices also moved on them. Statement 1 is wrong because silk went westward.

140.

Consider the following statements about Ajanta paintings:

1. The surface of the rock was coated with clay mixed with rice husk and gum and a coat of lime was applied over this.
2. The outline drawing was done first on the lime coating and colours were added subsequently.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Ajanta walls were coated with clay mixed with rice husk and gum, then a lime coat. The outline was drawn first on the lime, and colours were added later. Both statements are correct.

141.

Which of the following statements with regard to the Square Kilometer Array (SKA) project is/are correct?

1. SKA is a state of the art, mega science international facility to build the world’s biggest and most sensitive radio telescope for addressing a wide variety of cutting-edge science goals.
2. The Government of India has accorded its approval for India’s participation in the international mega science project.
Select the answer using the code given below:

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

The Square Kilometre Array is a mega science project to build the world’s biggest radio telescope. The Government of India approved India’s participation. Both statements are correct.

142.

Exercise Desert Cyclone is a joint military exercise between India and:

(a)Kuwait
(b)Saudi Arabia
(c)United Arab Emirates
(d)Oman

Answer: (c) United Arab Emirates

Exercise Desert Cyclone is a joint military exercise between India and the United Arab Emirates.

143.

Which of the following statements with regard to the constitution of Finance Commission is/are correct?

1. The Government of India has recently constituted the Sixteenth Finance Commission under the Chairmanship of Dr. Arvind Panagariya.
2. Finance Commission is constituted in pursuance to Article 263 of the Constitution of India.
Select the answer using the code given below:

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

The Sixteenth Finance Commission was set up under Dr Arvind Panagariya. The Finance Commission is formed under Article 280, not Article 263. So only statement 1 is correct.

144.

Recently the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change has submitted three nominations from India for Wetland City Accreditation (WCA) under the Ramsar Convention on Wetlands. Which one among the following cities is not one among them?

(a)Indore
(b)Bhopal
(c)Udaipur
(d)Jodhpur

Answer: (d) Jodhpur

India nominated Indore, Bhopal and Udaipur for Wetland City Accreditation. Jodhpur was not among them.

145.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. In India, 12th March is celebrated as the National Youth Day.
2. National Youth Day is celebrated to commemorate the birth anniversary of Swami Vivekananda.
Select the answer using the code given below:

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

National Youth Day is on 12 January, not 12 March. It marks the birth anniversary of Swami Vivekananda. So only statement 2 is correct.

146.

Consider the following statements about INS Sagardhwani:

1. It is an oceanographic research vessel of Naval Physical and Oceanographic Laboratory (NPOL) of DRDO.
2. Recently it embarked on the Sagar Maitri Mission-4 to establish long-term scientific partnerships with Indian Ocean Rim countries in Ocean Research and Development.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

INS Sagardhwani is an oceanographic research vessel of NPOL, DRDO. It went on the Sagar Maitri Mission-4 to Indian Ocean Rim countries. Both statements are correct.

147.

Who among the following is the Chairman of the Committee constituted by the Government of India to examine the issue of holding simultaneous elections in the country and to make recommendations thereon?

(a)Union Home Minister Shri Amit Shah
(b)Chief Justice of India Shri Dhananjaya Yeshwant Chandrachud
(c)Former President of India Shri Ram Nath Kovind
(d)Chief Election Commissioner of India Shri Rajiv Kumar

Answer: (c) Former President of India Shri Ram Nath Kovind

The committee on simultaneous elections was chaired by Ram Nath Kovind, the former President of India.

148.

In January 2024, India’s first all-girls’ Sainik School was inaugurated at:

(a)Bhopal
(b)Kohima
(c)Vrindavan
(d)Namsai

Answer: (c) Vrindavan

India’s first all-girls Sainik School was inaugurated at Vrindavan in Uttar Pradesh in January 2024.

149.

In February 2024, Government of India has decided to scrap the Free Movement Regime (FMR) between India and:

(a)Myanmar
(b)Bhutan
(c)Bangladesh
(d)Nepal

Answer: (a) Myanmar

In February 2024 the Government of India decided to end the Free Movement Regime on the India-Myanmar border.

150.

Who among the following is the author of the book Why Bharat Matters?

(a)L.K. Advani
(b)S. Jaishankar
(c)Mohan Bhagwat
(d)Pranab Mukherjee

Answer: (b) S. Jaishankar

Why Bharat Matters is a book by S. Jaishankar, India’s External Affairs Minister.

Questions transcribed from the official National Defence Academy and Naval Academy Examination (I), 2024 question booklet (RRAN-A-GAT), General Ability Test. Hindi text omitted (English version only). Answers and notes were added after cross-checking two published answer keys. 15 questions are marked because the keys disagree or do not fit the question.

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