CAPF (ACs) 2025 — General Ability and Intelligence (Full Question Paper)

History & CultureGeographyEnvironment & EcologyGeneral ScienceScience & TechPolity & GovernanceEconomyInt'l Relations & DefenceSports & Current AffairsReasoning & Aptitude

Questions 1–10

1.
Environment & Ecology

Which of the statements given below is/are correct?

1.The National Green Hydrogen Mission (NGHM) was approved by the Union Cabinet, Government of India, in the year 2023.
2.The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, Government of India, has launched the Green Hydrogen Certification Scheme of India.

Select the answer using the code given below.

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

The NGHM was approved by the Union Cabinet in 2023. But the Green Hydrogen Certification Scheme was launched by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy, not the Ministry of Environment.

2.
Int'l Relations & Defence

India and Poland have agreed to implement the ‘India-Poland Strategic Partnership’ in terms of a Five-Year Action Plan. Identify the current Five-Year Action Plan.

(a)Action Plan 2023-27
(b)Action Plan 2022-26
(c)Action Plan 2024-28
(d)Action Plan 2025-29

Answer: (c) Action Plan 2024-28

During PM Modi’s August 2024 visit to Poland, the first Indian PM visit in 45 years, the two countries elevated ties to a Strategic Partnership and adopted a five-year Action Plan covering 2024 to 2028, spanning defence, trade, agri-tech, energy, green technologies, infrastructure, pharmaceuticals, and mining.

3.
Sports & Current Affairs

‘Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar, 2024’ under the category of ‘Vigyan Ratna Award’ was given to

(a)Prof. Govindarajan Padmanabhan
(b)Dr. Anandharamakrishnan C.
(c)Prof. Umesh Varshney
(d)Prof. Jayant Bhalchandra Udgaonkar

Answer: (a) Prof. Govindarajan Padmanabhan

A pioneer of molecular biology and biotechnology research in India, he received the Vigyan Ratna Award, the lifetime-achievement category of the first Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar in 2024.

4.
Economy

Which among the following statements with regard to Grameen Bharat Mahotsav, 2025 is/are correct?

1.It aims at promoting economic stability and financial security among rural population.
2.It focuses on financial inclusion and supporting sustainable agricultural practices.

Select the answer using the code given below.

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Grameen Bharat Mahotsav 2025 aimed at rural economic stability and financial security, and focused on financial inclusion and sustainable agriculture.

5.
Int'l Relations & Defence

The 2024 OPCW (Organization for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons)-The Hague Award has been conferred upon which one of the following organizations?

(a)The Indian Chemical Council
(b)The Indian Chemical Society
(c)The National Authority Chemical Weapons Convention
(d)Gujarat Fluorochemicals Limited

Answer: (a) The Indian Chemical Council

ICC received the 2024 OPCW-The Hague Award for its work on Chemical Weapons Convention compliance and safety in India's chemical industry.

Related: IntlRel0111 — OPCW

6.
Economy

Which among the following States is not a part of the Purvodaya development initiative of the Government of India?

(a)Bihar
(b)Chhattisgarh
(c)Jharkhand
(d)West Bengal

Answer: (b) Chhattisgarh

Purvodaya (Budget 2024-25) covers Bihar, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Odisha, and Andhra Pradesh. Chhattisgarh is not included.

7.
Economy

Which of the following statements with regard to the ‘National Manufacturing Mission’ is/are correct?

1.It covers small, medium and large industries.
2.It will support cleantech manufacturing.
3.It will facilitate promotion of employment opportunities in labour-intensive sectors.

Select the answer using the code given below.

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)1 and 2 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

The National Manufacturing Mission covers small, medium and large industries, supports cleantech manufacturing and promotes employment in labour-intensive sectors. All three statements are correct.

Related: Industry in the Indian Economy

8.
Economy

The Ghatampur Thermal Power Project is located at

(a)Bihar
(b)Uttar Pradesh
(c)Madhya Pradesh
(d)Gujarat

Answer: (b) Uttar Pradesh

The Ghatampur Thermal Power Project is in Kanpur district, run by NLC India.

9.
Int'l Relations & Defence

Arrange the following military operations undertaken by India against Pakistan in correct chronological order:

1.Operation Cactus Lily
2.Operation Riddle
3.Operation Meghdoot
4.Operation Safed Sagar

Select the answer using the code given below.

(a)1-2-3-4
(b)2-1-3-4
(c)4-1-2-3
(d)4-2-1-3

Answer: (b) 2-1-3-4

Riddle (1965) → Cactus Lily (1971) → Meghdoot (1984, Siachen) → Safed Sagar (1999, Kargil).

10.
Int'l Relations & Defence

Which of the following statements is/are correct about recently elected Chancellor of Germany Mr. Friedrich Merz?

1.He lost in the first round of voting.
2.His coalition includes Christian Democratic Union and Christian Social Union.

Select the answer using the code given below.

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Merz fell 6 votes short in an unprecedented first-round loss, then won a second vote. His coalition includes the CDU and CSU, along with the SPD.

Questions 11–20

11.
Economy

Which among the following regarding the nature of goods and income elasticity are correctly matched?

Nature of Goods — Income Elasticity

1.Necessity : Between 0 and 1
2.Luxury : More than 1
3.Inferior : More than 0

Select the answer using the code given below.

(a)1 and 3 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 2 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only

Necessity and luxury pairs are correct. Inferior goods actually have negative income elasticity, not more than 0.

12.
Economy

Which of the following statements about the relationship between price elasticity of demand and type of firm is/are correct?

1.Perfectly elastic demand is associated with a competitive firm.
2.Perfectly inelastic demand is associated with a monopolistically competitive firm.

Select the answer using the code given below.

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

A perfectly competitive firm faces perfectly elastic demand. Monopolistic competition has many substitutes, so demand is relatively elastic, not perfectly inelastic.

13.
Economy

The comparative advantage theory (CAT) is a trade theory that describes the basis of two nations engaging in trade. Which one among the following statements regarding the theory is not correct?

(a)David Ricardo was the author of the CAT.
(b)The CAT is explained in the book titled On the Principles of Political Economy and Taxation that was first published in 1817.
(c)According to the CAT, the nation which does not have absolute advantage in any goods cannot benefit from trade.
(d)The two nations that engage in trade can gain from specializing in the commodity in which they have a comparative advantage.

Answer: (c) is NOT correct

Comparative advantage theory’s core insight is the opposite: even a nation with no absolute advantage can still gain from trade by specialising where it is relatively most efficient.

14.
Economy

Match List-I with List-II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I (Author)	List-II (Book)
A. John M. Keynes	1. Poor Economics
B. Paul Samuelson	2. The General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money
C. Amartya Sen	3. Collective Choice and Social Welfare
D. Abhijit V. Banerjee and Esther Duflo	4. Foundations of Economic Analysis

Code:

	A	B	C	D
(a)	1	3	4	2
(b)	2	4	3	1
(c)	2	3	4	1
(d)	1	4	3	2

Answer: (b) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1

Keynes wrote The General Theory. Samuelson wrote Foundations of Economic Analysis. Sen wrote Collective Choice and Social Welfare. Banerjee and Duflo wrote Poor Economics.

15.
Int'l Relations & Defence

‘Collaboration for the Intelligent Age’ was the theme of a meeting convened in 2025 under the aegis of

(a)the World Economic Forum
(b)the G7
(c)the G20
(d)the World Trade Organization

Answer: (a) the World Economic Forum

WEF’s Davos Annual Meeting 2025 was themed 'Collaboration for the Intelligent Age'.

16.
Economy

Consider the following statements about Nandini Sahakar Scheme:

1.This scheme is aimed at assisting women cooperatives to take up business model based activities under the purview of the National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC).
2.There is no minimum or maximum limit on financial assistance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Nandini Sahakar is a National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC) scheme built only for women’s cooperatives. It funds project formulation, hand-holding, and credit-linked financial assistance, so statement 1 is correct. NCDC sets no fixed minimum or maximum rupee cap on that assistance, so statement 2 is correct too.

Source: PIB — Nandini Sahakar Yojana. Related: Polity0112 — Ministry of Cooperation.

17.
Economy

Which one among the following items of expenditure received the highest allocations in the Union Budget, 2025-26?

(a)Centrally sponsored schemes
(b)Pensions
(c)Interest payments
(d)Defence

Answer: (c) Interest payments

Interest payments made up about 25% of total expenditure (around Rs 12.73 lakh crore), more than defence, pensions, or centrally sponsored schemes.

18.
Economy

Which among the following statements regarding India’s services export is/are not correct?

1.India’s share in global services export has more than doubled, reaching around 4.3 percent in 2023 from 1.9 percent in 2005.
2.‘Travel’ and ‘Transport’ services represent areas where India holds a relatively larger share in global export, at 10.2 percent and 8.5 percent respectively in 2023.

Select the answer using the code given below.

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Statement 1 matches Economic Survey figures exactly. The 10.2% share actually belongs to Telecommunications, Computer and IT Services, not Travel and Transport.

19.
Economy

Which one among the following is not identified as one of the ‘Engines of Development’ in the Union Budget, 2025-26?

(a)Textiles
(b)Agriculture
(c)Investment
(d)Export

Answer: (a) Textiles

Budget 2025-26’s four engines of development are Agriculture, MSME, Investment, and Export. Textiles is not one of them.

20.
Economy

Which one among the following schemes focuses on developing modern infrastructure and optimizing supply chain from farm to retail in Indian agriculture sector?

(a)Pradhan Mantri Kisan Sampada Yojana (PMKSY)
(b)Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (RKVY)
(c)Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maandhan Yojana (PMKMY)
(d)Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY)

Answer: (a) Pradhan Mantri Kisan Sampada Yojana (PMKSY)

PMKSY is the Ministry of Food Processing Industries' scheme built specifically to create modern infrastructure and an efficient supply chain from the farm gate to the retail outlet. RKVY funds broader agricultural development, PM-KMY is a farmer pension scheme, and PKVY promotes organic farming — none targets farm-to-retail infrastructure the way PMKSY does.

Questions 21–30

21.
Economy

Which one among the following financial institutions reports the monthly Purchasing Managers’ Index (PMI) for services in India?

(a)HSBC
(b)RBI
(c)HDFC
(d)IDBI

Answer: (a) HSBC

HSBC sponsors the S&P Global PMI series for India, surveying around 350 private service-sector companies each month.

22.
Economy

Which one among the following statements is not correct?

(a)The Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC) was set up in 2010.
(b)The National Logistics Policy (NLP) was launched in 2022.
(c)The Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF) was instituted in NABARD during 1995-96.
(d)The G20 was formed in 2001 as a forum of Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors.

Answer: (d) is NOT correct

The G20 was formed in 1999, not 2001. The other three statements are correct.

Related: IntlRel0038 — G20

23.
Economy

The Union Budget for which of the following years announced the issue of Sovereign Green Bonds to reduce the carbon intensity of the economy?

(a)2022-23
(b)2021-22
(c)2023-24
(d)2019-20

Answer: (a) 2022-23

Sovereign Green Bonds were announced in Budget 2022-23, with the framework released that November and the first auction in January 2023.

24.
Economy

Which one among the following is the estimated fiscal deficit as a percentage of GDP of India in the Budget Estimates of 2025-26?

(a)4.8 percent
(b)4.4 percent
(c)5.0 percent
(d)5.6 percent

Answer: (b) 4.4 percent

The Budget Estimates for 2025-26 set India’s fiscal deficit target at 4.4% of GDP, lower than the 4.8% revised estimate for 2024-25.

25.
Economy

The Code on Wages was notified by the Government of India in the year

(a)2019
(b)2020
(c)2021
(d)2022

Answer: (a) 2019

The Code on Wages, 2019 consolidated four earlier wage-related laws.

26.
History & Culture

Match List-I with List-II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I (Act of the British Parliament)	List-II (Key Provision)
A. The Pitt’s India Act, 1784	1. Enlargement of the Governor-General’s Legislative Council
B. The Charter Act, 1813	2. Discrimination against Indians removed in matters of employment and higher service
C. The Charter Act, 1833	3. Board set up by the Crown to control affairs of India
D. The Charter Act, 1853	4. Termination of monopoly of East India Company over Indian trade

Code:

	A	B	C	D
(a)	1	4	2	3
(b)	1	2	4	3
(c)	3	4	2	1
(d)	3	2	4	1

Answer: (c) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1

Pitt's India Act set up the Board of Control. The 1813 Charter Act ended the Company's trade monopoly. The 1833 Charter Act removed employment discrimination. The 1853 Charter Act enlarged the Legislative Council.

27.
History & Culture

Consider the following statements regarding the Government of India Act, 1919:

1.It divided the subjects of administration in two categories — central and provincial.
2.The central subjects were divided into ‘reserved’ and ‘transferred’ subjects.
3.Provincial Governments were granted the power to make their own budgets and levy taxes.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

Dyarchy (reserved and transferred subjects) applied to provincial subjects, not central ones. Statement 2 is wrong.

28.
Polity & Governance

From amongst the following, identify the correct option that captures the changes made in Article 74(1) of the Constitution of India through the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976.

(a)Executive powers of the Union shall be vested with the President of India.
(b)The Prime Minister has the duty to brief the President about decisions of the Council of Ministers.
(c)The President shall exercise his/her functions on the advice of the Council of Ministers, headed by the Prime Minister.
(d)The President shall have the right to summon or prorogue the Houses of the Parliament.

Answer: (c)

The 42nd Amendment (1976) added the words that the President shall act on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers. Option (c) captures this change directly.

29.
Polity & Governance

Consider the following statements about the powers and duties of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India:

1.He audits and reports on all expenditures from the Consolidated Fund of India.
2.He controls the issue and receipt of money from the Consolidated Fund of India.
3.He audits and reports on the expenditure of all bodies substantially financed from the Union or State revenues.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (1 and 3)

The CAG audits and reports on expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India (1, correct) and on bodies substantially financed from Union/State revenues (3, correct). But he does NOT control the issue and receipt of money from the Fund (2, wrong) — that is the executive’s job. So (1 and 3).

30.
Polity & Governance

Match List-I with List-II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I (Name of the Committee)	List-II (Key Recommendation)
A. Balwantrai Mehta Committee	1. Constitutional status for Panchayati Raj
B. Ashok Mehta Committee	2. Creation of post of District Development Commissioner
C. G. V. K. Rao Committee	3. Creation of Zilla Parishad and Mandal Panchayat
D. L. M. Singhvi Committee	4. Creation of Zilla Parishad, Panchayat Samiti and Gram Panchayat

Code:

	A	B	C	D
(a)	4	3	2	1
(b)	4	2	3	1
(c)	1	3	2	4
(d)	1	2	3	4

Answer: (a) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

Balwantrai Mehta gave the three-tier system, Ashok Mehta the two-tier system, G.V.K. Rao the District Development Commissioner, and L.M. Singhvi the constitutional status recommendation.

Questions 31–40

31.
Int'l Relations & Defence

Based on the year of their establishment, arrange the following regional organizations in correct chronological order:

1.The Shanghai Cooperation Organization
2.The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation
3.The Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation
4.The Association of Southeast Asian Nations

Select the answer using the code given below.

(a)3-2-1-4
(b)4-2-3-1
(c)3-1-2-4
(d)4-3-2-1

Answer: (b) 4-2-3-1

ASEAN (1967) → SAARC (1985) → APEC (1989) → SCO (2001).

32.
Environment & Ecology

The United Nations Carbon Offset Platform is an e-commerce platform to compensate greenhouse gas emissions by purchasing carbon credits. Who among the following can buy these carbon credits?

1.A company
2.An organization
3.A citizen

Select the answer using the code given below.

(a)1, 2 and 3
(b)1 and 2 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1 only

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3

Per UNFCCC’s own description of the platform, it is open to individuals, businesses and organisations alike, letting anyone offset their carbon footprint by buying credits — not restricted to companies only.

33.
History & Culture

Who among the following was the founder of ‘Sikkim Praja Mandal’?

(a)Kazi Lhendup Dorji Khangsarpa
(b)Angami Zapu Phizo
(c)Laldenga
(d)Nar Bahadur Bhandari

Answer: (a) Kazi Lhendup Dorji Khangsarpa

He founded the Sikkim Praja Mandal in 1945 and later became Sikkim's first Chief Minister.

34.
Polity & Governance

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a)The Supreme Court of India is a Court of Record.
(b)High Courts in India are Courts of Record.
(c)Subordinate Courts in India are Courts of Record.
(d)All Courts in India are not Courts of Record.

Answer: (c) is NOT correct

Only the Supreme Court and High Courts are Courts of Record. Subordinate courts are not.

35.
Int'l Relations & Defence

Consider the following statements about international events:

1.The First Gulf War was related to the Iraq invasion of Kuwait.
2.Mikhail Gorbachev was the President of the Soviet Union at the time of its disintegration.
3.Boris Yeltsin was the first elected President of Russia.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a)Nil
(b)1
(c)2
(d)3

Answer: (d) 3

All three are correct: the Gulf War followed Iraq's invasion of Kuwait, Gorbachev was Soviet President when the USSR dissolved, and Yeltsin was Russia's first elected President.

36.
Int'l Relations & Defence

Consider the following statements:

1.WTO was set up as the successor to GATT.
2.IAEA teams inspect nuclear facilities all over the world.
3.Amnesty International is an NGO.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a)Nil
(b)1
(c)2
(d)3

Answer: (d) 3

All three are correct: WTO succeeded GATT in 1995, IAEA inspects nuclear facilities worldwide, and Amnesty International is an NGO.

37.
History & Culture

Which of the following statements about the Bhoodan Movement are correct?

1.It was aimed at attaining a non-violent society.
2.It included schemes such as ‘Sampattidan’ and ‘Shramdan’.
3.It began in a village in Andhra Pradesh in 1951.

Select the answer using the code given below.

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

The Bhoodan Movement, started by Vinoba Bhave in 1951 at Pochampally in Andhra Pradesh, aimed at a non-violent society and included schemes like Sampattidan (gift of wealth) and Shramdan (gift of labour). All three statements are correct.

Related: Land Reforms in India

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38.
Int'l Relations & Defence

Which one among the following statements about the Department of Defence (DoD) is not correct?

(a)It is headed by the Defence Secretary.
(b)It deals with defence policy and planning.
(c)It facilitates the restructuring of military commands for optimal utilization of resources.
(d)It is responsible for defence cooperation with foreign countries.

39.
History & Culture

Which Hindustani classical Raag is sung as an invitation to rain?

(a)Raag Yaman
(b)Raag Bahar
(c)Raag Malhar
(d)Raag Bhairavi

Answer: (c) Raag Malhar

Raag Malhar, and its variants like Miyan ki Malhar and Megh Malhar, are the monsoon ragas of Hindustani music. Legend credits Tansen, Akbar’s court musician, with singing Miyan ki Malhar to summon rain.

40.
History & Culture

Who among the following classical poets is the author of the book Kiratarjuniyam?

(a)Thiruvalluvar
(b)Bharavi
(c)Valmiki
(d)Panini

Answer: (b) Bharavi

Bharavi wrote Kiratarjuniyam, an epic based on Arjuna's fight with Shiva disguised as a hunter.

Questions 41–50

41.
History & Culture

Which one of the following ancient towns is known for the evidence of a ploughed field from its early Harappan levels, with two sets of furrows at right angles to each other, suggesting two different crops grown together?

(a)Dholavira
(b)Rakhigarhi
(c)Kunal
(d)Kalibangan

Answer: (d) Kalibangan

Kalibangan, on the dry bed of the Ghaggar-Hakra river in Rajasthan, has yielded the world’s earliest known ploughed field, from its early Harappan levels.

Its two sets of furrows, crossing at right angles, suggest two different crops were grown together in the same field, a pattern still used by farmers nearby today.

42.
History & Culture

Krishnadevaraya, a king of Vijayanagara, composed a work on statecraft known as Amuktamalyada in

(a)Telugu
(b)Kannada
(c)Tamil
(d)Sanskrit

Answer: (a) Telugu

Krishnadevaraya composed the Amuktamalyada, a work on statecraft, in Telugu. It tells the story of Andal and is considered one of the great works of classical Telugu literature. Related: MedHist0045 — Krishnadeva Raya.

43.
History & Culture

Who among the following travellers reported the use of seed drill on the Karnataka coast which is considered to be the earliest reference of the presence of the device in India?

(a)Duarte Barbosa
(b)Abdur Razzaq
(c)Afanasy Nikitin
(d)Niccolo Conti

Answer: (a) Duarte Barbosa

Barbosa, a Portuguese official active in India 1500-1516, gave the earliest known description of a seed drill on the Karnataka coast.

44.
History & Culture

Which of the following are the main features of ‘Saracenic’ architecture?

1.Arch
2.Vault and dome
3.Lintel and beam
4.Application of lime cement

Select the answer using the code given below.

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3
(c)1, 2 and 4
(d)1, 3 and 4

Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 4

Saracenic architecture uses true arches, vaults/domes, and lime mortar. Lintel and beam belongs to the older indigenous trabeate style it replaced.

45.
History & Culture

With reference to ancient South India, the terms ‘Vichitrachitta’, ‘Chitrakarapuli’ and ‘Chaityakari’ refer to

(a)markets
(b)temples
(c)titles
(d)centres of colour making

Answer: (c) titles

These are personal titles of the Pallava king Mahendravarman I. Vichitrachitta means “of curious/extraordinary mind”; Chitrakarapuli, “tiger among painters”; Chaityakarapuli (Chaityakari), “temple builder,” for his patronage of rock-cut temple architecture.

46.
History & Culture

Which one of the following Harappan sites has yielded evidence of a wash basin in the toilet of a house?

(a)Banawali
(b)Rakhigarhi
(c)Dholavira
(d)Lothal

Answer: (a) Banawali

A wealthy merchant's house at Banawali had a raised pottery jar in the toilet corner acting as a wash basin.

47.
History & Culture

Who among the following British Commanders suffered defeat in the famous Battle of Chinhat during the 1857 Revolt?

(a)Henry Lawrence
(b)Captain Hearsey
(c)Francois Sisten
(d)Charles Ball

Answer: (a) Henry Lawrence

Lawrence, Chief Commissioner of Oude, was defeated at Chinhat on 30 June 1857 and mortally wounded.

48.
History & Culture

With reference to the history of Orissa, consider the following statements:

1.Anantavarman Chodaganga consolidated Orissa into a powerful kingdom and was patron of Sanskrit and Telugu literature.
2.Anantavarman Chodaganga built the great temple of the Sun God at Konark in Puri district.
3.Narasimha I effectively checked the external invasion and maintained prosperity in the kingdom.

How many statements given above are correct?

(a)1
(b)2
(c)3
(d)None

Answer: (b) 2

Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Chodaganga built the Jagannath Temple, not Konark; Narasimha I built Konark decades later.

49.
History & Culture

Consider the following pairs:

Literary Work — Author

1.Rigarthadipika : Madhava Yogi
2.Kataka : Venkata Madhava
3.Damayanti-Katha : Trivikrama Bhatta
4.Yashastilaka Champu : Somadeva

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a)1
(b)2
(c)3
(d)4

Answer: (d) 4

All four pairs are correctly matched.

50.
History & Culture

Consider the following pairs:

King — Dynasty

1.Lakshmikarna : Pala
2.Bhima I : Chalukyas of Gujarat
3.Jayapala : Shahiya dynasty
4.Lalitaditya Muktapida : Utpala dynasty of Kashmir

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a)1
(b)2
(c)3
(d)4

Answer: (b) 2

Lakshmikarna was Kalachuri, not Pala. Lalitaditya Muktapida was Karkota, not Utpala. Only pairs 2 and 3 are correct.

Questions 51–60

51.
History & Culture

Consider the following statements:

1.The first meeting of the All India Depressed Classes Conference was held at Poona in 1926 under the presidency of M. C. Rajah.
2.The All India Depressed Classes Association was formed at Nagpur in 1928 with Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar as its first elected President.
3.The All India Depressed Classes Congress was founded by Dr. B. S. Munje at a conference in Bombay in 1936.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1, 2 and 3
(d)None

Answer: (d) None

The first conference was actually 1920 Delhi under Lala Lajpat Rai. M.C. Rajah, not Ambedkar, was the Association's first president. Ambedkar, not B.S. Munje, founded the Congress.

52.
History & Culture

With reference to the ancient architectural development in the hills of North Indian States, consider the following statements:

1.The temple ‘Garbhagriha’ and ‘Shikhara’ were made in a Rekha-prasada or Latina style.
2.The Pandrethan Temple in Kashmir is built on a plinth in the middle of a tank.
3.The Jageshwar Temple is located in Garhwal region.
4.The Lakshana Devi Mandir shows the influence of the post-Gupta tradition.

How many statements given above are correct?

(a)1
(b)2
(c)3
(d)4

Answer: (c) 3

Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: Jageshwar Temple is in the Kumaon region, near Almora, not Garhwal.

53.
History & Culture

The indentured system in tea gardens of Assam was abolished in

(a)1926
(b)1934
(c)1938
(d)1946

Answer: (a) 1926

The system was dismantled in 1926, after the earlier repeal of the Workmen's Breach of Contract Act, 1859.

54.
History & Culture

With reference to the Indo-Roman trade, who among the following referred to the drain of Roman gold into India?

1.Strabo
2.Pliny
3.Ptolemy
4.Dio Chrysostom

Select the answer using the code given below.

(a)1 and 2
(b)2 and 3
(c)2 and 4
(d)1 and 3

Answer: (c) 2 and 4

Pliny and Dio Chrysostom both complained about Roman gold draining out to India for trade. Strabo and Ptolemy wrote mainly on geography.

55.
History & Culture

With reference to the history of India, the ‘Katapayadi system’, the ‘Parahita system’ and the ‘Dridganita system’ are associated with

(a)astronomy
(b)surgery
(c)chemistry
(d)music and dance

Answer: (a) astronomy

All three are ancient Kerala-school systems for astronomical calculation: Katapayadi encodes numbers, Parahita and Dridganita track planetary positions.

56.
Reasoning & Aptitude

For any three natural numbers a, b and c, if (bc+1)/(abc+a+c) = 11/43, then the value of abc is

(a)30
(b)45
(c)60
(d)75

Answer: (a) 30

Write it as a + 1/(b+1/c) = 43/11. Since 43/11 = 3 + 10/11, a=3. Then b+1/c = 11/10, so b=1, c=10. So abc = 30.

57.
Reasoning & Aptitude

If n is an integer larger than 1, then what is the least value of the integer n + n^(1/2) + n^(1/3)?

(a)1
(b)3
(c)76
(d)785

Answer: (c) 76

n must be a perfect square and a perfect cube, so a perfect sixth power. The smallest one above 1 is 64. So 64+8+4=76.

58.
Reasoning & Aptitude

The unit digit of (3×1 + 4×2×1 + 5×3×2×1 + … + 20×18×17×…×2×1) is

(a)2
(b)3
(c)4
(d)5

Answer: (d) 5

Each term is n times (n-2)! for n from 3 to 20. Adding all terms gives a sum whose last digit is 5.

59.
Reasoning & Aptitude

A point P on the ground is on the same line as the bases and the tips of a pair of trees A and B such that P is on the left of both these trees. The ratio of heights of A and B is 1:3. If the distance between P and A is a metre, then the distance between A and B, in metre, is

(a)a
(b)2a
(c)3a
(d)4a

Answer: (b) 2a

By similar triangles, PA/PB equals the height ratio 1:3, so PB=3a. Then AB = PB – PA = 2a.

60.
Reasoning & Aptitude

Four cylindrical drums, each of radius 1 m, are placed such that each one touches other two drums. A sewer pipe is to be placed through the gap of these drums. What could be the maximum possible radius for this pipe?

(a)(sqrt(2) + 1) m
(b)(sqrt(2) – 1) m
(c)(πsqrt(2) – 1) m
(d)(πsqrt(2) + 1) m

Answer: (b) (sqrt(2) – 1) m

The four drum centres form a 2 m square. The gap’s centre is sqrt(2) m from each drum centre, so the pipe radius is sqrt(2) – 1 m.

Questions 61–70

61.
Reasoning & Aptitude

P and Q are two points on a highway, 300 km apart. Two bikers A and B start at the same time from P towards Q. The speed of B is 12 km/h less than that of A. On reaching point Q, biker A immediately returns towards P. He meets B on the road at a place 60 km away from Q. What is the speed of A?

(a)38 km/h
(b)30 km/h
(c)36 km/h
(d)35 km/h

Answer: (c) 36 km/h

At the meeting point A has covered 360 km and B 240 km in the same time. Solving 360/v = 240/(v-12) gives v=36.

62.
Reasoning & Aptitude

A clock is set right at 8:00 AM in the morning. The minute hand and the hour hand of the clock come together after every 65 minutes. What is the actual time when the clock shows 8:00 PM, approximated to the nearest minutes?

(a)8:05 PM
(b)8:00 PM
(c)7:55 PM
(d)8:02 PM

Answer: (c) 7:55 PM

A correct clock’s hands meet every 65 5/11 minutes. Meeting every 65 real minutes means the clock runs fast, so by clock-time 8 PM, only 7:55 PM has truly passed.

63.
Reasoning & Aptitude

A triangle of sides 18 cm, 24 cm and 30 cm is inscribed in a circle. The ratio of the area of the circle to that of the triangle is approximately

(a)1 : π
(b)sqrt(π) : 1
(c)π : 1
(d)sqrt(π) : 2

Answer: (c) π : 1

18-24-30 is a right triangle, so the hypotenuse 30 is the circle’s diameter. The area ratio works out to about 3.27, closest to π : 1.

64.
Reasoning & Aptitude

If a/b = 2, b/c = 3, c/d = 4, d/e = 3, e/f = 2 and f/g = 1.5, what is the value of (a+b+c)/(e-f+g)?

(a)144
(b)216
(c)225
(d)120

Answer: (a) 144

Setting g=1 gives f=1.5, e=3, d=9, c=36, b=108, a=216. Then (a+b+c)/(e-f+g) = 360/2.5 = 144.

65.
Reasoning & Aptitude

Which one of the following years will have identical calendar with the year 2025?

(a)2028
(b)2029
(c)2030
(d)2031

Answer: (d) 2031

2025 starts on Wednesday and is not a leap year. Counting the odd days through the intervening years (including leap year 2028), 2031 also starts on Wednesday and is not a leap year, so it matches.

66.
Reasoning & Aptitude

Two trains A and B are entering a railway platform from opposite direction. The length of the platform is 300 m. The speed of B is two times the speed of A. The time taken by B to cross the platform is one-third of the time taken by A to cross the platform. If the sum of the lengths of A and B is 500 m, what is the difference in their lengths?

(a)220 m
(b)250 m
(c)200 m
(d)300 m

Answer: (a) 220 m

Using the crossing-time and length equations gives La=360 m and Lb=140 m, so the difference is 220 m.

67.
Reasoning & Aptitude

The sum of two numbers is 168. If their HCF is 14, how many such pairs of numbers are possible?

(a)1
(b)2
(c)3
(d)0

Answer: (b) 2

Write the numbers as 14x and 14y with x,y coprime and x+y=12. Only (1,11) and (5,7) work, giving 2 valid pairs.

68.
Reasoning & Aptitude

There are four bulbs A, B, C and D in a room. A glows for 2 minutes, then goes off for 1 minute and the process continues in this manner. Similarly, B glows for 3 minutes and then goes off for 1 minute and the process continues. For C, it is 4 minutes and 1 minute, while for D, it is 5 minutes and 1 minute respectively for glowing and going off. A man enters the room and comes out of it as soon as he completes an hour. What is the maximum number of times that he may face complete darkness in the room?

(a)3
(b)2
(c)0
(d)1

Answer: (b) 2

All four bulbs go dark together only once per 60-minute cycle, in the final minute. Timing entry to catch the tail of one dark minute and the head of the next cycle’s gives 2 encounters.

69.
Reasoning & Aptitude

If a^(2x) = b^(3y) = c^(5z) and b = a^2 c, then which one of the following is true?

(a)2/x + 3/y = 5/z
(b)1/x – 3/(5z) = 1/(3y)
(c)1/x + 1/(5z) = 1/(3y)
(d)2/x – 5/z = 3/y

Answer: (c) 1/x + 1/(5z) = 1/(3y)

Setting a^(2x)=b^(3y)=c^(5z)=k and substituting into b=a^2c gives 1/x + 1/(5z) = 1/(3y).

70.
Reasoning & Aptitude

The value at the tenth place of a three-digit number is twice the value at the unit’s place. The value at the hundredth place is 75% of the value at the unit’s place. How many such numbers are possible?

(a)0
(b)1
(c)2
(d)3

Answer: (b) 1

Only the digits 3 (hundreds), 8 (tens), 4 (units) satisfy both conditions, giving the single number 384.

Questions 71–80

71.
Geography

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1.The time at 180° longitude is exactly 12 hours from the 0° longitude, irrespective of whether one travels westward or eastward from the Prime Meridian.
2.A person moving eastward on Tuesday will count the day as Wednesday once the International Date Line is crossed.

Select the answer using the code given below.

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: eastward crossing of the Date Line subtracts a day, so Tuesday becomes Monday, not Wednesday.

72.
Geography

Consider the following statements with reference to salt weathering:

1.Salts in rocks expand due to thermal action, hydration and crystallization.
2.Salts like calcium, sodium, magnesium and barium have a tendency to expand.
3.Salt weathering is a typical example of chemical weathering.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)1 and 2 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: salt weathering is mechanical, not chemical, weathering.

Related: WorldGeo0001 — Geomorphology

73.
Geography

Which of the following types of mass movements are categorized as rapid movements?

1.Creep
2.Mudflow
3.Solifluction
4.Slump

Select the answer using the code given below.

(a)1 and 2
(b)1 and 3
(c)2 and 4
(d)3 and 4

Answer: (c) 2 and 4

Mudflow and slump are rapid mass movements. Creep and solifluction are slow movements.

Related: WorldGeo0001 — Geomorphology

74.
Geography

Which of the following statements with reference to stratovolcanoes is/are correct?

1.Stratovolcanoes are tall, steep cones built of layers of felsic lava and volcanic ash.
2.They can erupt explosively as felsic lavas from stratovolcanoes hold large amounts of gas under high pressure.

Select the answer using the code given below.

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Stratovolcanoes build up from layers of viscous felsic lava and ash, and this thick lava traps gas that can trigger explosive eruptions.

Related: WorldGeo0001 — Geomorphology

75.
Geography

Which one of the following is the main method by which potholes are created in bedrocks by the flowing stream?

(a)Abrasion
(b)Attrition
(c)Corrosion
(d)Solifluction

Answer: (a) Abrasion

Swirling eddies spin pebbles that grind into the bedrock through abrasion, gradually deepening a pothole.

76.
Geography

Which of the following ocean trenches are not located in the Pacific Ocean?

1.Bonin Trench
2.Cayman Trench
3.Kermadec Trench
4.South Sandwich Trench

Select the answer using the code given below.

(a)1 and 2
(b)1 and 3
(c)2 and 3
(d)2 and 4

Answer: (d) 2 and 4

Bonin and Kermadec are Pacific trenches. Cayman Trench is in the Caribbean Sea, and South Sandwich Trench is in the South Atlantic.

77.
Geography

Consider the following statements with reference to neap tides:

1.Normally, there is a seven-day interval between two neap tides.
2.At this time, the Sun and the Moon are at right angles to each other.
3.The Moon’s attraction is diminished by the counteracting force of the Sun’s gravitational pull.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)1 and 2
(d)2 and 3

Answer: (d) 2 and 3

The seven-day gap is spring-to-neap, not neap-to-neap. Statements 2 and 3 are correct.

78.
Geography

Consider the following pairs with reference to National Waterways (NW) in India and the associated rivers:

NW No. — River

1.NW-1 : Ganga
2.NW-10 : Amba
3.NW-100 : Tapi

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a)1 only
(b)1 and 2 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

All three pairs are correctly matched. NW-1 runs on the Ganga, NW-10 on the Amba, and NW-100 on the Tapi. Related: IndGeo0089 — The Tapi River.

79.
Environment & Ecology

Which one of the following has launched the environmental project ‘Shaheed-e-Azam Sardar Bhagat Singh Hariawal Lehar’?

(a)Uttar Pradesh
(b)Madhya Pradesh
(c)Punjab
(d)Delhi

Answer: (c) Punjab

Punjab launched this afforestation drive, named after freedom fighter Bhagat Singh, planting saplings across its assembly segments.

80.
Geography

Which of the following statements with reference to raster data format is/are correct?

1.It has a simple data structure which is compatible with remote sensing imagery.
2.The relationship between cell size and number of cells is expressed as the resolution of the raster.

Select the answer using the code given below.

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Raster’s grid structure matches pixel-based remote sensing imagery, and its cell size relative to number of cells determines resolution.

Questions 81–90

81.
Geography

Which of the following are components of Geographic Information System (GIS)?

1.Data
2.Hardware
3.Software
4.People

Select the answer using the code given below.

(a)1 and 4 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1, 2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

A GIS has five core components: hardware, software, data, people, and methods. All four listed here are genuine components.

82.
Geography

Which of the following are included in Bharatmala Pariyojana?

1.Road connectivity to border areas
2.Development of coastal roads
3.Connectivity for non-major ports
4.Integration with Sagarmala

Select the answer using the code given below.

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)3 and 4 only
(c)1, 2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Bharatmala Pariyojana’s scope genuinely covers all four: border and international connectivity roads, coastal and port connectivity roads, links to non-major ports, and integration with the Sagarmala port-led development programme. Related: IndGeo0074 — India’s National Highway Network.

83.
Science & Tech

Which one among the following institutes was established first?

(a)The Indian Institute of Technology, Delhi
(b)The Indian Institute of Science Education and Research, Pune
(c)The Indian Petroleum Institute, Dehradun
(d)The Indian Institute of Management, Ahmedabad

Answer: (c) The Indian Petroleum Institute, Dehradun

Founded in 1960, it predates IIT Delhi and IIM Ahmedabad (both 1961) and IISER Pune (2006).

84.
Geography

Which one of the following statements with reference to Jal Jeevan Mission is not correct?

(a)It was established in the year 2016.
(b)It aims to improve quality of life in rural areas.
(c)It is to provide functional tap water connections to every rural household.
(d)It is a centrally sponsored scheme.

Answer: (a) It was established in the year 2016.

Jal Jeevan Mission was actually launched on 15 August 2019, not 2016. It genuinely does aim to improve rural quality of life, provide functional tap water connections to every rural household, and run as a centrally sponsored scheme. Confirmed via jaljeevanmission.gov.in. Related: EnvEco0044 — Catch the Rain: India’s Jal Shakti Water Conservation Campaign · IndGov0039 — DDWS.

85.
Geography

The cities of Hiroshima and Nagasaki are situated on which of the following islands?

(a)Kyushu and Shikoku respectively
(b)Kyushu and Honshu respectively
(c)Honshu and Kyushu respectively
(d)Honshu and Shikoku respectively

Answer: (c) Honshu and Kyushu respectively

Hiroshima is on Honshu, Japan’s largest island. Nagasaki is on Kyushu, in the southwest.

Related: WorldHist0065 — Imperial Japan: Empire, War and Postwar Rebuild, covering the 1945 atomic bombings of these two cities.

86.
General Science

The spindle fibre is attached to which of the following specific regions of the chromosomes?

(a)Kinetochore
(b)Chromonema
(c)Telomere
(d)Centriole

Answer: (a) Kinetochore

The kinetochore is a protein structure at the centromere, where spindle fibres attach to pull chromosomes apart.

87.
General Science

Which one among the following statements about facilitated transport in plants is correct?

(a)All passive transports are types of facilitated transport.
(b)Facilitated transport is an example of active transport.
(c)Water moves across plasma membrane by active transport.
(d)Facilitated transport requires assistance of carrier proteins.

Answer: (d) Facilitated transport requires assistance of carrier proteins.

Facilitated transport is passive but needs carrier/channel proteins. Not all passive transport is facilitated, and water usually moves by osmosis, a passive process.

88.
General Science

Transport of Na+ and Ca2+ across the plasma membrane is an example of

(a)antiport
(b)symport
(c)uniport
(d)aquaporins

Answer: (a) antiport

The Na+/Ca2+ exchanger moves the two ions in opposite directions, which defines antiport.

89.
General Science

Which one of the following statements regarding allosteric enzymes is correct?

(a)Like other enzymes, allosteric enzymes also obey Michaelis-Menten kinetics.
(b)The velocity versus substrate concentration graph is a hyperbolic graph, like any other enzyme.
(c)They are always one-subunit enzymes.
(d)Each subunit of allosteric enzyme also contains a regulatory site in addition to the active site.

Answer: (d) Each subunit of allosteric enzyme also contains a regulatory site in addition to the active site.

Allosteric enzymes are multi-subunit, give a sigmoidal (not hyperbolic) curve, and don’t follow standard Michaelis-Menten kinetics.

90.
General Science

Out of different types of tissues found in plants, which one of the following is a complex tissue?

(a)Parenchyma
(b)Sclerenchyma
(c)Xylem
(d)Collenchyma

Answer: (c) Xylem

Xylem is a complex tissue, made of several cell types working together. The others are simple, single-cell-type tissues.

Questions 91–100

91.
General Science

Which one of the following regions in plants is responsible for the growth of its roots and shoots?

(a)Collenchyma
(b)Endodermis
(c)Cortex
(d)Apical meristem

Answer: (d) Apical meristem

The apical meristem at root and shoot tips has actively dividing cells that drive growth in length.

92.
General Science

Which one of the following arteries supplies blood to the human heart muscle?

(a)Pulmonary artery
(b)Renal artery
(c)Coronary artery
(d)Hepatic artery

Answer: (c) Coronary artery

The coronary arteries branch off the aorta to supply the heart muscle itself with oxygenated blood.

93.
General Science

Which one of the following classes demonstrates double circulation of blood?

(a)Invertebrates
(b)Fishes
(c)Amphibians
(d)Mammals

Answer: (d) Mammals

Mammals have a four-chambered heart giving complete double circulation. Fishes have single circulation, and amphibians have only incomplete double circulation.

94.
General Science

Cholesterol is a type of

(a)carbohydrate
(b)protein
(c)lipid
(d)nucleic acid

Answer: (c) lipid

Cholesterol is a sterol, a class of lipid, and is a key component of animal cell membranes.

95.
General Science

Plants adapted to grow in deserts and other dry habitats are called

(a)xerophytes
(b)mesophytes
(c)hydrophytes
(d)halophytes

Answer: (a) xerophytes

Xerophytes are adapted to deserts and other water-scarce habitats.

96.
General Science

Which one among the following statements regarding gypsum is not correct?

(a)On heating gypsum at 373 K, it loses water molecules and becomes CaSO4.H2O.
(b)On mixing with water, plaster of Paris changes to gypsum.
(c)Plaster of Paris is used for supporting fractured bones.
(d)Although gypsum possesses water of crystallization, it is not a liquid at room temperature.

Answer: (a)

Heating gypsum at 373 K actually gives CaSO4.half-H2O (Plaster of Paris), not CaSO4.H2O.

97.
General Science

Which of the following statements relating to carbon and its compounds are correct?

1.1-Propyne has three double bonds.
2.The boiling point of acetic acid is higher than methane.
3.Ethanol reacts with sodium metal and produces hydrogen gas.
4.Esters give effervescence on reaction with sodium bicarbonate.

Select the answer using the code given below.

(a)1 and 3
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 2
(d)2, 3 and 4

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

1-Propyne has one triple bond, not three double bonds. Esters do not give effervescence with sodium bicarbonate, only carboxylic acids do.

98.
General Science

Which of the following reagents can cause oxidation of an alcohol?

1.Hot concentrated H2SO4
2.Alkaline KMnO4
3.Acidified K2Cr2O7
4.Acidified KMnO4

Select the answer using the code given below.

(a)1, 2 and 3
(b)1, 3 and 4
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)4 only

99.
General Science

Which one among the following statements is not correct?

(a)The reaction of methane and chlorine in sunlight produces hydrogen gas.
(b)Palladium catalyzes the addition of hydrogen gas on an alkene.
(c)Ethanol burns in oxygen to give carbon dioxide, water and releases heat and light.
(d)Unsaturated hydrocarbons burn with a sooty flame.

Answer: (a)

Methane and chlorine react in sunlight to give chloromethane and hydrogen chloride (HCl), not hydrogen gas.

100.
General Science

Which one of the following is not an exothermic reaction?

(a)Dissolution of calcium oxide in water
(b)Decomposition of vegetable matter into compost
(c)Decomposition of lead nitrate
(d)Dilution of sodium hydroxide with water

Answer: (c) Decomposition of lead nitrate

This needs continuous heating, making it endothermic. The other three release heat.

Questions 101–110

101.
General Science

Match List-I with List-II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I (Compound)	List-II (Chemical Formula)
A. Nitrolim	1. CO(NH2)2
B. Ammonium Nitrate	2. KNO3
C. Urea	3. CaNCN
D. Potassium Nitrate	4. NH4NO3

Code:

	A	B	C	D
(a)	1	4	3	2
(b)	3	4	1	2
(c)	3	2	1	4
(d)	1	2	3	4

Answer: (b) 3, 4, 1, 2

Nitrolim is CaNCN, ammonium nitrate is NH4NO3, urea is CO(NH2)2, and potassium nitrate is KNO3.

102.
General Science

Which of the following triads was not given by Dobereiner?

(a)Ca, Sr, Ba
(b)Cl, Br, I
(c)N, P, As
(d)Be, Mg, Ca

Answer: (c) N, P, As

This trio fails Dobereiner’s rule since the average atomic mass of N and As is far from P’s. The other three are genuine triads.

103.
General Science

Consider the following statements:

1.The circulation of nitrogen from the inorganic compounds in the soil to form protein in plants and animals and back again is known as the nitrogen cycle.
2.The preparation of ammonia by Haber process is an endothermic reaction.
3.Urea is synthetically made by the action of ammonia and carbon dioxide under high temperature and high pressure.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

(a)1 and 3
(b)2 and 3
(c)2 only
(d)1 only

Answer: (c) 2 only

The Haber process is exothermic, not endothermic. Statements 1 and 3 are correct.

104.
General Science

Match List-I with List-II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I (Reaction)	List-II (Type of Reaction)
A. CH4 + 2O2 -> CO2 + 2H2O + heat and light	1. Combustion
B. Mg + H2SO4 -> MgSO4 + H2	2. Double displacement
C. 2NaOH + H2SO4 -> Na2SO4 + 2H2O	3. Displacement
D. NaCl + AgNO3 -> NaNO3 + AgCl	4. Neutralization

Code:

	A	B	C	D
(a)	1	3	4	2
(b)	1	4	3	2
(c)	2	3	4	1
(d)	2	4	3	1

Answer: (a) 1, 3, 4, 2

A is combustion, B is displacement, C is neutralization, D is double displacement.

105.
General Science

Consider the following statements:

1.Potassium carbonate is a salt of a weak acid and a weak base.
2.Ammonium nitrate is a salt of a strong acid and a weak base.
3.Ammonium acetate is a salt of a weak acid and a weak base.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a)1 and 3 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 2 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Potassium carbonate is from a strong base and weak acid, not two weak parents. Ammonium nitrate and ammonium acetate are correctly described.

106.
General Science

Which one of the following principles of physics is primarily used in sonography, a medical diagnostic process?

(a)Resonance
(b)Superposition of waves
(c)Doppler effect
(d)Standing wave

Answer: (c) Doppler effect

Reflected ultrasound waves shift in frequency based on tissue or blood motion, and sonography reads that shift.

107.
General Science

Which one among the following laws states that magnetic monopoles do not exist?

(a)Gauss’ law
(b)Newton’s law
(c)Pascal’s law
(d)Ampere’s law

Answer: (a) Gauss’ law

Gauss’ law for magnetism states net magnetic flux through any closed surface is zero, meaning no isolated monopoles exist.

108.
General Science

The larger area under the hysteresis curve (B-H) of a ferromagnetic material depicts

(a)maximum magnetization
(b)extent of demagnetization
(c)extent of lagging
(d)minimum energy

Answer: (c) extent of lagging

A larger loop area means B lags H more, dissipating more energy per cycle.

109.
General Science

The working principle of refrigerator is based on the

(a)first law of thermodynamics
(b)second law of thermodynamics
(c)Planck’s radiation law
(d)Rayleigh-Jeans law

Answer: (b) second law of thermodynamics

Moving heat from a cold interior to a warmer room needs external work, per the second law.

110.
General Science

When sunlight (white light) falls on a triangular glass prism, a band of colours called a spectrum is obtained. Which one among the following represents this effect appropriately?

(a)Reflection
(b)Diffraction
(c)Refraction
(d)Dispersion

Answer: (d) Dispersion

Each colour bends by a different amount through the prism, splitting white light into a spectrum — this is dispersion.

Questions 111–120

111.
General Science

Which one among the following statements related to human eye is correct?

(a)For a person suffering from short-sight defect, the image of a distant object is focused behind the retina.
(b)Short-sight defect can be corrected by a converging spectacle lens.
(c)For a person suffering from long-sight defect, the image of a near object is focused behind the retina.
(d)Long-sight defect can be corrected by a diverging spectacle lens.

Answer: (c)

In long-sightedness, a near object’s image forms behind the retina; a converging lens corrects it.

112.
General Science

The potential difference between the terminals of an electrical heating device is 40 V, when it draws a current of 2 A from the source. Which one of the following is the correct value of current drawn by the heating device if the potential is increased to 140 V?

(a)7 A
(b)5 A
(c)4 A
(d)2 A

Answer: (a) 7 A

Resistance = 40/2 = 20 ohms. At 140 V, current = 140/20 = 7 A.

113.
General Science

A beam of positively charged particles, say A, is going from north to south. On the other hand, a beam of negatively charged particles, say B, is going from south to north. Which one of the following in this respect is correct?

(a)B is deflected towards A.
(b)B is deflected away from A.
(c)B is deflected upwards.
(d)B is deflected downwards.

Answer: (a) B is deflected towards A.

Both beams represent conventional current flowing south. Parallel currents in the same direction attract.

114.
General Science

Match List-I with List-II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I (Device)	List-II (Phenomenon)
A. Periscope	1. Conduction and convection minimization
B. Lightning conductors	2. Moment of a force
C. Thermos flask	3. Reflection by plane mirrors
D. Levers	4. Static electricity

Code:

	A	B	C	D
(a)	2	4	1	3
(b)	3	1	4	2
(c)	3	4	1	2
(d)	2	1	4	3

Answer: (c) 3, 4, 1, 2

Periscope=reflection, lightning conductor=static electricity, thermos=insulation, lever=moment of force.

115.
General Science

Consider the following statements regarding mechanical properties of solids:

1.The ratio of tensile stress to longitudinal strain is defined as bulk modulus.
2.The ratio of hydraulic stress to corresponding hydraulic strain is called Young’s modulus.
3.The ratio of shearing stress to corresponding shearing strain is called modulus of rigidity.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 3 only

Statements 1 and 2 swap the correct definitions. Tensile stress/strain is actually Young’s modulus, and hydraulic stress/strain is bulk modulus. Only statement 3 is correctly defined.

116.
Science & Tech

Which one among the following computer languages is the oldest?

(a)Prolog
(b)C++
(c)Java
(d)Fortran

Answer: (d) Fortran

Fortran (1957) predates Prolog (1972), C++ (1985), and Java (1995).

117.
Science & Tech

Which one of the following is an application of Artificial Intelligence?

(a)Database management system
(b)Operating system
(c)Natural language processing
(d)Register

Answer: (c) Natural language processing

NLP, letting computers understand and generate human language, is a core AI application area.

118.
Science & Tech

What is the correct term used for a set of wires used to connect different internal components of the computer system for the purpose of transferring data as well as addresses amongst them?

(a)Hub
(b)Port
(c)Router
(d)Bus

Answer: (d) Bus

A bus is the internal wiring that carries data, addresses, and control signals between components.

119.
Science & Tech

Consider the following:

1.Small memory
2.Less expensive memory
3.Fast memory

Which of the above are the characteristics of the cache memory?

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

Cache memory is small and fast, but more expensive per byte than main memory, not less.

120.
Science & Tech

1 gigabyte in binary system is equivalent to

(a)1000 kilobytes
(b)1024 megabytes
(c)1200 megabytes
(d)10000 kilobytes

Answer: (b) 1024 megabytes

Binary storage units scale by 1024, so 1 GB equals 1024 MB.

Questions 121–125

121.
Geography

The seasonal variations in the amount of solar energy that any place on the Earth receives are influenced by

(a)the speed of rotation of the Earth
(b)pollution
(c)cloudiness
(d)the inclination of the Earth about its axis

Answer: (d) the inclination of the Earth about its axis

Earth’s axial tilt of about 23.5 degrees changes the angle at which sunlight strikes any given place through the year, producing the seasons and the resulting swings in solar energy received — not the Earth’s rotation speed, pollution or cloud cover.

122.
Environment & Ecology

The Ramsar Convention is an intergovernmental treaty which provides the framework for national action and international cooperation for the conservation of

(a)fish
(b)wildlife
(c)wetland
(d)art and culture

Answer: (c) wetland

The Ramsar Convention, signed in Ramsar, Iran in 1971, is dedicated specifically to wetland conservation and wise use. · IndGeo0053 — Ramsar Wetlands of India

123.
Environment & Ecology

Consider the following statements about the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC):

1.It is an international body for assessing the science related to climate change.
2.It was set up in the year 1988 by the World Meteorological Organization (WMO).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

The IPCC assesses climate science and was set up in 1988, with WMO as a founding organization (alongside UNEP).

124.
Environment & Ecology

India’s key climate targets include

1.reduction of 33%-35% in greenhouse gas emissions intensity by 2030
2.increase in non-fossil fuel energy capacity to 500 GW
3.achieving net-zero emissions by 2070

Select the answer using the code given below.

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1, 2 and 3
(d)1 only

Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3

All three are genuine: the original 2015 NDC target, and the 500 GW and 2070 Panchamrit pledges from COP26.

125.
Environment & Ecology

Which one among the following is not a greenhouse gas?

(a)Sulphur dioxide
(b)Methane
(c)Nitrous oxide
(d)Fluorinated gas

Answer: (a) Sulphur dioxide

Sulphur dioxide is an air pollutant but not a greenhouse gas. Methane, nitrous oxide, and fluorinated gases are all greenhouse gases.

English-language questions transcribed from the official C.A.P.F. (ACs) Examination-2025 question booklet (FKKB-O-GAIT/39A, Series A), General Ability and Intelligence paper. Hindi text omitted. Answer key not included.

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