UPSC CSP 2022 — General Studies Paper I (Full Question Paper)

History & CultureGeographyEnvironment & EcologyGeneral ScienceScience & TechPolity & GovernanceEconomyInt’l Relations & DefenceEthics & Aptitude

Questions 1–10

1.
Economy

“Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which one of the following?

(a)Asian Development Bank
(b)International Monetary Fund
(c)United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative
(d)World Bank

Answer: (b) International Monetary Fund

The Rapid Financing Instrument gives urgent balance-of-payments assistance to any member facing a shock. The Rapid Credit Facility is a similar, concessional facility specifically for low-income countries.

2.
Economy

With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:

1.An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of rupee.
2.An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness.
3.An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

A rise in NEER does indicate rupee appreciation. A rise in REER actually signals worsening trade competitiveness, not an improvement, since domestic goods become relatively more expensive abroad. Rising domestic inflation relative to trading partners widens the gap between NEER and REER, since REER adjusts NEER for that inflation differential.

3.
Economy

With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:

1.If the inflation is too high, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities.
2.If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market.
3.If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

To control high inflation, the RBI sells government securities to absorb liquidity — it does not buy them, so statement 1 is false. RBI does sell dollars to support a rapidly depreciating rupee. If US/EU interest rates fall, capital tends to flow into India, pushing the rupee up — RBI then buys dollars to prevent excessive appreciation.

4.
Economy

With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements:

1.It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club.
2.It is an initiative to support Low Income Countries with unsustainable debt.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

The Common Framework for Debt Treatment is jointly endorsed by the G20 and the Paris Club, designed to help Low Income Countries facing unsustainable debt restructure it in a structured way.

5.
Economy

With reference to the Indian economy, what are the advantages of “Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs)”?

1.Government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs.
2.IIBs provide protection to the investors from uncertainty regarding inflation.
3.The interest received as well as capital gains on IIBs are not taxable.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Because IIBs shift inflation risk to the investor, the government can offer a lower coupon rate. IIBs also protect investors from inflation uncertainty. Statement 3 is false — interest and capital gains on IIBs are fully taxable, with no special exemption.

Related: IndEco0009 — Inflation

6.
Economy

With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1.They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as market-places.
2.The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Under India’s FDI policy, foreign e-commerce firms in the marketplace model cannot sell their own goods.

They must act only as platforms connecting buyers and sellers, so statement 1 is wrong.

These firms cannot own or control sellers on their platforms at all, not just to a limited degree.

Therefore neither statement is correct.

7.
Economy

Which of the following activities constitute real sector in the economy?

1.Farmers harvesting their crops
2.Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics
3.A commercial bank lending money to a trading company
4.A corporate body issuing Rupee Denominated Bonds overseas

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2, 3 and 4 only
(c)1, 3 and 4 only
(d)1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

The real sector covers the production of goods and services in the economy.

Farmers harvesting crops and textile mills converting cotton into fabric are production activities.

Bank lending and issuing rupee-denominated bonds are financial-sector activities that move funds, not produce output.

So only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

8.
Economy

Which one of the following situations best reflects “Indirect Transfers” often talked about in media recently with reference to India?

(a)An Indian company investing in a foreign enterprise and paying taxes to the foreign country on the profits arising out of its investment
(b)A foreign company investing in India and paying taxes to the country of its base on the profits arising out of its investment
(c)An Indian company purchases tangible assets in a foreign country and sells such assets after their value increases and transfers the proceeds to India
(d)A foreign company transfers shares and such shares derive their substantial value from assets located in India

Answer: (d)

An indirect transfer happens when a foreign company’s shares are transferred, and those shares derive substantial value from assets located in India — exactly the situation India’s Section 9 rules were amended to tax, following the Vodafone dispute.

9.
Economy

With reference to the expenditure made by an organisation or a company, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1.Acquiring new technology is capital expenditure.
2.Debt financing is considered capital expenditure, while equity financing is considered revenue expenditure.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Acquiring new technology creates a long-term asset, so it is capital expenditure. Debt and equity financing are both ways of raising capital receipts, not classifications of expenditure.

10.
Economy

With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:

1.A share of the household financial savings goes towards government borrowings.
2.Dated securities issued at market-related rates in auctions form a large component of internal debt.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Questions 11–20

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Household financial savings, including bank deposits and insurance, indirectly fund government borrowing. Market-auctioned dated securities are a large, standard component of India’s internal debt.

11.
Polity & Governance

Consider the following statements:

1.Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed.
2.The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves.
3.The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt.
4.In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)1, 2 and 4
(c)3 and 4 only
(d)3 only

Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 4

The H.N. Sanyal Committee’s report did lead to the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971. The Constitution (Articles 129 and 215) does empower the Supreme Court and High Courts, as Courts of Record, to punish contempt of themselves. Parliament does hold law-making power over contempt of court. All three are true. But it is the 1971 Act, not the Constitution itself, that defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt — Statement 3 is false.

12.
Polity & Governance

With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1.Government law officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.
2.Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

The Advocates Act, 1961 defines “advocate” as anyone enrolled on a State Bar Council roll, without categorically excluding corporate lawyers — Statement 1’s framing doesn’t hold. Bar Councils genuinely do set rules on legal education and law-college recognition — Statement 2 is correct.

13.
Polity & Governance

Consider the following statements:

1.A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India.
2.When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent.
3.A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

No prior Presidential recommendation is needed for a Constitution Amendment Bill, unlike a Money Bill — Statement 1 is false. Presidential assent is genuinely obligatory once passed — Statement 2 is true. There is genuinely no joint-sitting provision — Statement 3 is true.

14.
Polity & Governance

Consider the following statements:

1.The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.
2.The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

The four ministerial ranks are convention, not constitutional text — Statement 1 is false. The 15% cap under Article 75(1A) is a genuine constitutional requirement — Statement 2 is true.

15.
Polity & Governance

Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha?

1.To ratify the declaration of Emergency
2.To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers
3.To impeach the President of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1 and 2
(b)2 only
(c)1 and 3
(d)3 only

Answer: (b) 2 only

No-confidence motions are genuinely Lok Sabha-exclusive. Ratifying an Emergency proclamation needs both Houses, and impeachment can start in either House — neither is Lok Sabha-exclusive.

16.
Polity & Governance

With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements:

1.The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.
2.The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

The rule actually runs the opposite way from Statement 1’s claim: a nominated legislator CAN join a party within six months of taking their seat without being disqualified; disqualification only applies if they join AFTER that window. Statement 1 is false. The law genuinely sets no time-frame for a presiding officer to decide a defection case — Statement 2 is true, and this gap has let real cases drag on for years.

17.
Polity & Governance

Consider the following statements:

1.Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.
2.According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Every Minister has the same Article 88 speaking right, whether or not a member of that House — Statement 1 is false. The Attorney General resigning when the government resigns is convention, not a constitutional requirement — Statement 2 is false.

18.
Polity & Governance

Related Article: Polity0002 — Fundamental Rights

With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements:

1.Mandamus will not lie against a private organisation unless it is entrusted with a public duty.
2.Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company.
3.Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Mandamus requires a public duty — it will not lie against a private organisation unless one is entrusted to it, and, separately, it will not lie against a company merely because it happens to be a Government company. Quo Warranto is unusually open: any public-minded person can petition for it, not only someone personally aggrieved. All three statements are correct.

19.
Polity & Governance

With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements:

1.Private and public hospitals must adopt it.
2.As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately.
3.It has seamless portability across the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 3 only

Adoption by hospitals is voluntary, not mandatory — Statement 1 is false. Individual enrolment is opt-in, not a guarantee of universal citizen coverage — Statement 2 is false/overstated. Seamless portability across the country is a genuine, official design goal — Statement 3 is true.

20.
Polity & Governance

With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:

1.As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.
2.There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
3.The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.
4.The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a)1 and 3 only
(b)1, 2 and 3
(c)3 and 4 only
(d)2 and 4 only

Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only

The election-date-by-Speaker rule and the quasi-Speaker presiding powers are both real. There is no mandatory rule tying the post to opposition or ruling party (Statement 2 false), and no established practice of the Speaker moving the motion with the PM seconding it (Statement 4 false).

Questions 21–30

21.
Environment & Ecology

Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide?

(a)Cotton
(b)Rice
(c)Sugarcane
(d)Wheat

Answer: (b) Rice

22.
Environment & Ecology

“System of Rice Intensification” of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practised, results in:

1.Reduced seed requirement
2.Reduced methane production
3.Reduced electricity consumption

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

23.
Geography

Which one of the following lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert?

(a)Lake Victoria
(b)Lake Faguibine
(c)Lake Oguta
(d)Lake Volta

Answer: (b) Lake Faguibine

Lake Faguibine, in Mali, has largely dried up into desert-like terrain. Drought and siltation of its Niger River feeder channel cut off its water supply. Lake Victoria sits in East Africa, not West Africa. Lake Volta and Lake Oguta both remain real, existing lakes.

24.
Geography

Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers?

(a)Cauvery
(b)Manjira
(c)Pennar
(d)Tungabhadra

Answer: (c) Pennar

The Pennar (Penna) River carved Gandikota canyon, cutting through the Erramala Hills in Kadapa district, Andhra Pradesh, earning it the nickname “Grand Canyon of India.”

Related: IndGeo0138 — Gandikota Canyon

View this question →

25.
Geography

Consider the following pairs:

Peak	Mountains
1. Namcha Barwa	Garhwal Himalaya
2. Nanda Devi	Kumaon Himalaya
3. Nokrek	Sikkim Himalaya

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a)1 and 2
(b)2 only
(c)1 and 3
(d)3 only

Answer: (b) 2 only

Nanda Devi genuinely sits in the Kumaon Himalaya. Namcha Barwa is actually in the Eastern Himalaya, near the Yarlung Tsangpo’s Great Bend, not Garhwal. Nokrek is the highest peak of the Garo Hills, Meghalaya, not the Sikkim Himalaya.

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26.
Geography

The term “Levant” often heard in the news roughly corresponds to which of the following regions?

(a)Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores
(b)Region along North African shores stretching from Egypt to Morocco
(c)Region along Persian Gulf and Horn of Africa
(d)The entire coastal areas of Mediterranean Sea

Answer: (a) Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores

The Levant refers to the region along the eastern Mediterranean shores in West Asia, including Syria, Lebanon, Jordan, Israel, and Palestine.

Related: WorldGeo0056 — The Levant

View this question →

27.
Geography

Consider the following countries:

1.Azerbaijan
2.Kyrgyzstan
3.Tajikistan
4.Turkmenistan
5.Uzbekistan

Which of the above have borders with Afghanistan?

(a)1, 2 and 5 only
(b)1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(c)3, 4 and 5 only
(d)1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: (c) 3, 4 and 5 only

Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, and Uzbekistan all genuinely border Afghanistan. Azerbaijan and Kyrgyzstan don’t share a border with Afghanistan at all.

View this question →

28.
Geography

With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1.Monazite is a source of rare earths.
2.Monazite contains thorium.
3.Monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands in India.
4.In India, Government bodies only can process or export monazite.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a)1, 2 and 3 only
(b)1, 2 and 4 only
(c)3 and 4 only
(d)1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 4 only

Monazite genuinely is a rare-earth source and contains thorium. It does not occur across the “entire” Indian coastline, only in specific coastal states (Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha). Only government-authorized bodies like IREL can process or export it.

View this question →

29.
Geography

In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the year normally occurs in the:

(a)First half of the month of June
(b)Second half of the month of June
(c)First half of the month of July
(d)Second half of the month of July

Answer: (b) Second half of the month of June

The June solstice, the longest day in the Northern Hemisphere, consistently falls on 20-21 June — the second half of the month, not the first.

View this question →

30.
Geography

Consider the following pairs:

Wetland/Lake	Location
1. Hokera Wetland	Punjab
2. Renuka Wetland	Himachal Pradesh
3. Rudrasagar Lake	Tripura
4. Sasthamkotta Lake	Tamil Nadu

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a)Only one pair
(b)Only two pairs
(c)Only three pairs
(d)All four pairs

Answer: (b) Only two pairs

Renuka Wetland genuinely sits in Himachal Pradesh, and Rudrasagar Lake genuinely sits in Tripura. Hokera Wetland is actually in Jammu and Kashmir, not Punjab. Sasthamkotta Lake is actually in Kerala, not Tamil Nadu.

View this question →

Questions 31–40

31.
Science & Tech

Consider the following:

1.Aarogya Setu
2.CoWIN
3.DigiLocker
4.DIKSHA

Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms?

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2, 3 and 4 only
(c)1, 3 and 4 only
(d)1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Aarogya Setu, CoWIN, DigiLocker and DIKSHA are all built on open-source digital platforms.

Open-source building blocks speed up the creation of India’s digital public infrastructure.

Therefore all four statements are correct.

32.
Science & Tech

With reference to Web 3.0, consider the following statements:

1.Web 3.0 technology enables people to control their own data.
2.In Web 3.0 world, there can be blockchain based social networks.
3.Web 3.0 is operated by users collectively rather than a corporation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Web 3.0 gives users control over their own data, unlike Web 2.0 platforms.

Blockchain-based social networks and user-owned, decentralised operation are core Web 3.0 ideas.

All three statements are correct.

33.
Science & Tech

With reference to “Software as a Service (SaaS)”, consider the following statements:

1.SaaS buyers can customise the user interface and can change data fields.
2.SaaS users can access their data through their mobile devices.
3.Outlook, Hotmail and Yahoo! Mail are forms of SaaS.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

SaaS buyers can customise the user interface and change data fields within the software’s limits.

Users access SaaS applications and their data from any mobile device over the internet.

Webmail services like Outlook, Hotmail and Yahoo! Mail are classic SaaS examples.

34.
Science & Tech

Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media?

(a)A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space.
(b)A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions.
(c)A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth.
(d)A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same speed and places a probe on its surface.

Answer: (c)

A Fractional Orbital Bombardment System places a missile in low Earth orbit and deorbits it over the target.

Such weapons can approach from unexpected directions, complicating missile defence.

Options (a), (b) and (d) describe other space-related concepts.

35.
Science & Tech

Which one of the following is the context in which the term “qubit” is mentioned?

(a)Cloud Services
(b)Quantum Computing
(c)Visible Light Communication Technologies
(d)Wireless Communication Technologies

Answer: (b) Quantum Computing

A qubit is the basic unit of quantum information, like a bit in classical computing.

It can exist in a superposition of 0 and 1 states at the same time.

The term is used in the quantum-computing context.

36.
Science & Tech

Consider the following communication technologies:

1.Closed-circuit Television
2.Radio Frequency Identification
3.Wireless Local Area Network

Which of the above are considered Short-Range devices/technologies?

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

CCTV, RFID and WLAN all operate over short distances.

CCTV works within a facility, RFID within centimetres to metres, and WLAN within about a hundred metres.

All three qualify as short-range technologies.

37.
General Science

Consider the following statements:

1.Biofilms can form on medical implants within human tissues.
2.Biofilms can form on food and food processing surfaces.
3.Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

All three statements are correct. Biofilms form on medical implants and cause hard-to-treat infections, they form on food-processing surfaces raising contamination risk, and bacteria within them show heightened antibiotic resistance. Related: GenSci0006 — Nutrition and Microorganisms Fundamentals.

View this question →

38.
General Science

Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics:

1.Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast.
2.The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut.
3.Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)1 and 3
(d)2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 3

Probiotics include both bacteria and yeast, and they help digest milk sugars — both true. But common probiotic strains like Lactobacillus already occur naturally in the human gut, so statement 2 is false. Related: GenSci0006 — Nutrition and Microorganisms Fundamentals.

View this question →

39.
Science & Tech

In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements:

1.The Serum Institute of India produced COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using mRNA platform.
2.Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using vector based platform.
3.COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen based vaccine.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Covishield is a viral-vector vaccine, not an mRNA vaccine, so statement 1 is wrong.

Sputnik V uses an adenoviral vector platform, and COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen vaccine.

Statements 2 and 3 are therefore correct.

40.
Science & Tech

If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth?

1.GPS and navigation systems could fail.
2.Tsunamis could occur at equatorial regions.
3.Power grids could be damaged.
4.Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth.
5.Forest fires could take place over much of the planet.
6.Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed.
7.Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1, 2, 4 and 5 only
(b)2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only
(c)1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only
(d)1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7

Answer: (c) 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only

Solar storms disrupt GPS, damage power grids and disturb satellite orbits.

They cause intense auroras and can interrupt shortwave radio over polar regions.

Tsunamis and planet-wide forest fires are not solar-storm effects.

Questions 41–50

41.
Environment & Ecology

“Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a:

(a)Database created by coalition of research organisations
(b)Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change”
(c)Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change”
(d)Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank

Answer: (a) Database created by coalition of research organisations

The Climate Action Tracker is an independent database created by Climate Analytics and NewClimate Institute, not a UN, IPCC, or World Bank body. Related: EnvEco0103 — Climate Action Tracker.

View this question →

42.
Environment & Ecology

Consider the following statements:

1.“The Climate Group” is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them.
2.The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”.
3.EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals.
4.Some Indian companies are members of EP100.
5.The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a)1, 2, 4 and 5
(b)1, 3 and 4 only
(c)2, 3 and 5 only
(d)1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: (b) 1, 3 and 4 only

The Climate Group and EP100’s real purpose are correctly described, and Indian companies genuinely are EP100 members. But the IEA didn’t launch EP100 and isn’t the Under2 Coalition’s Secretariat — the Climate Group holds both roles itself. Related: EnvEco0104 — The Climate Group, EP100, and the Under2 Coalition.

View this question →

43.
Environment & Ecology

“If rainforests and tropical forests are the lungs of the Earth, then surely wetlands function as its kidneys.” Which one of the following functions of wetlands best reflects the above statement?

(a)The water cycle in wetlands involves surface runoff, subsoil percolation and evaporation.
(b)Algae form the nutrient base upon which fish, crustaceans, molluscs, birds, reptiles and mammals thrive.
(c)Wetlands play a vital role in maintaining sedimentation balance and soil stabilization.
(d)Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients.

Answer: (d) Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients

44.
Environment & Ecology

In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements:

1.The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 μg/m3 and annual mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 μg/m3.
2.In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during the periods of inclement weather.
3.PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream.
4.Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a)1, 3 and 4
(b)1 and 4 only
(c)2, 3 and 4
(d)1 and 2 only

Answer: (b) 1 and 4 only

45.
Environment & Ecology

With reference to “Gucchi” sometimes mentioned in the news, consider the following statements:

1.It is a fungus.
2.It grows in some Himalayan forest areas.
3.It is commercially cultivated in the Himalayan foothills of north-eastern India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)3 only
(c)1 and 2
(d)2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 2

46.
Environment & Ecology

With reference to polyethylene terephthalate, the use of which is so widespread in our daily lives, consider the following statements:

1.Its fibres can be blended with wool and cotton fibres to reinforce their properties.
2.Containers made of it can be used to store any alcoholic beverage.
3.Bottles made of it can be recycled into other products.
4.Articles made of it can be easily disposed of by incineration without causing greenhouse gas emissions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a)1 and 3
(b)2 and 4
(c)1 and 4
(d)2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 3

47.
Environment & Ecology

Which of the following is not a bird?

(a)Golden Mahseer
(b)Indian Nightjar
(c)Spoonbill
(d)White Ibis

Answer: (a) Golden Mahseer.

The Golden Mahseer is a large, endangered Himalayan river fish, not a bird. Indian Nightjar, Spoonbill, and White Ibis are all genuine birds.

48.
Environment & Ecology

Which of the following are nitrogen-fixing plants?

1.Alfalfa
2.Amaranth
3.Chickpea
4.Clover
5.Purslane (Kulfa)
6.Spinach

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1, 3 and 4 only
(b)1, 3, 5 and 6 only
(c)2, 4, 5 and 6 only
(d)1, 2, 4, 5 and 6

Answer: (a) 1, 3 and 4 only

49.
Environment & Ecology

“Biorock technology” is talked about in which one of the following situations?

(a)Restoration of damaged coral reefs
(b)Development of building materials using plant residues
(c)Identification of areas for exploration/extraction of shale gas
(d)Providing salt licks for wild animals in forests/protected areas

Answer: (a) Restoration of damaged coral reefs

50.
Environment & Ecology

The “Miyawaki method” is well known for the:

(a)Promotion of commercial farming in arid and semi-arid areas
(b)Development of gardens using genetically modified flora
(c)Creation of mini forests in urban areas
(d)Harvesting wind energy on coastal areas and on sea surfaces

Answer: (c) Creation of mini forests in urban areas
Related: EnvEco0195 – The Miyawaki Method: Fast, Dense Mini Forests in Cities

Questions 51–60

51.
History & Culture

In the Government of India Act 1919, the functions of Provincial Government were divided into “Reserved” and “Transferred” subjects. Which of the following were treated as “Reserved” subjects?

1.Administration of Justice
2.Local Self-Government
3.Land Revenue
4.Police

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1, 2 and 3
(b)2, 3 and 4
(c)1, 3 and 4
(d)1, 2 and 4

Answer: (c) 1, 3 and 4

Under the 1919 Act, administration of justice, land revenue and police were reserved subjects.

Local self-government was a transferred subject handled by Indian ministers.

So statement 2 is the odd one out.

52.
History & Culture

In medieval India, the term “Fanam” referred to:

(a)Clothing
(b)Coins
(c)Ornaments
(d)Weapons

Answer: (b) Coins

Fanam was a small gold or silver coin used in medieval South India.

It circulated widely in the Vijayanagara empire and along coastal trade routes.

It was not clothing, ornaments or weapons.

53.
History & Culture

Consider the following freedom fighters:

1.Barindra Kumar Ghosh
2.Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee
3.Rash Behari Bose

Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party?

(a)1 and 2
(b)2 only
(c)1 and 3
(d)3 only

Answer: (d) 3 only

Only Rash Behari Bose was actively associated with the Ghadar Party, helping plan the 1915 Ghadar Mutiny. Barindra Kumar Ghosh’s revolutionary work was Bengal-based, through Jugantar. Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee was a founding member of the separate Hindustan Republican Association.

54.
History & Culture

With reference to the proposals of Cripps Mission, consider the following statements:

1.The Constituent Assembly would have members nominated by the Provincial Assemblies as well as the Princely States.
2.Any Province, which is not prepared to accept the new Constitution would have the right to sign a separate agreement with Britain regarding its future status.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

The Cripps proposals had the Constituent Assembly elected by provincial assemblies with princely-state nominees.

Provinces unwilling to join could sign a separate agreement with Britain on their future status.

Both statements are correct.

Related: ModHist0082 — Cripps Mission

55.
History & Culture

With reference to Indian history, consider the following texts:

1.Nettipakarana
2.Parishishtaparvan
3.Avadanashataka
4.Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana

Which of the above are Jaina texts?

(a)1, 2 and 3
(b)2 and 4 only
(c)1, 3 and 4
(d)2, 3 and 4

Answer: (b) 2 and 4 only

Parishishtaparvan by Hemachandra and Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana by Jinasena are Jaina texts.

Nettipakarana and Avadanashataka are Buddhist works.

Hence only statements 2 and 4 are Jaina.

56.
History & Culture

With reference to Indian history, consider the following pairs:

Historical person	Known as
1. Aryadeva	Jaina scholar
2. Dignaga	Buddhist scholar
3. Nathamuni	Vaishnava scholar

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a)None of the pairs
(b)Only one pair
(c)Only two pairs
(d)All three pairs

Answer: (c) Only two pairs

Dignaga was indeed a Buddhist scholar and Nathamuni a Vaishnava scholar.

Aryadeva was a Buddhist philosopher, not a Jaina scholar.

So only two pairs are correctly matched.

57.
History & Culture

With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements:

1.The first Mongol invasion of India happened during the reign of Jalal-ud-din Khalji.
2.During the reign of Ala-ud-din Khalji, one Mongol assault marched up to Delhi and besieged the city.
3.Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq temporarily lost portions of north-west of his kingdom to Mongols.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 and 2
(b)2 only
(c)1 and 3
(d)3 only

Answer: (b) 2 only

The first Mongol invasion came during Iltutmish’s reign, not Jalal-ud-din Khalji’s.

Under Ala-ud-din Khalji, a Mongol force marched to Delhi and besieged the city in 1303.

Statement 3 overstates Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq’s losses, so only statement 2 holds.

58.
History & Culture

With reference to Indian history, who of the following were known as “Kulah-Daran”?

(a)Arab merchants
(b)Qalandars
(c)Persian calligraphists
(d)Sayyids

Answer: (d) Sayyids

Kulah-Daran means cap-wearers, a term applied to the Sayyids in medieval India.

They wore a distinctive headgear marking their descent from the Prophet.

It did not refer to merchants, qalandars or calligraphists.

59.
History & Culture

With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements:

1.The Dutch established their factories/warehouses on the east coast on lands granted to them by Gajapati rulers.
2.Alfonso de Albuquerque captured Goa from the Bijapur Sultanate.
3.The English East India Company established a factory at Madras on a plot of land leased from a representative of the Vijayanagara empire.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Albuquerque captured Goa from the Bijapur Sultanate in 1510, and Madras was leased from a Vijayanagara representative.

The Dutch secured their east-coast factory lands from the Chandragiri ruler, not the Gajapati kings.

So statement 1 is wrong and statements 2 and 3 are correct.

60.
History & Culture

According to Kautilya’s Arthashastra, which of the following are correct?

1.A person could be a slave as a result of a judicial punishment.
2.If a female slave bore her master a son, she was legally free.
3.If a son born to a female slave was fathered by her master, the son was entitled to the legal status of the master’s son.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

UPSC’s official key does not accept Statement 1 as correct.

A female slave who bore her master’s son became legally free.

That son also held his father’s legal status, same as a free-born son.

So only Statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Questions 61–70

61.
Economy

Consider the following statements:

1.Tight monetary policy of US Federal Reserve could lead to capital flight.
2.Capital flight may increase the interest cost of firms with existing External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs).
3.Devaluation of domestic currency decreases the currency risk associated with ECBs.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

A tight US Federal Reserve policy pulls investor capital toward higher US yields, triggering capital flight from emerging markets like India. This makes Statement 1 correct. That capital flight weakens the rupee, so a firm repaying a dollar-denominated ECB needs more rupees for the same payment, raising its effective interest cost. This makes Statement 2 correct too. Statement 3 reverses the real relationship: devaluation of the rupee increases the currency risk on an ECB, since an unhedged borrower needs even more rupees to service the same foreign-currency debt. It does not decrease that risk.

62.
Geography

Consider the following States:

1.Andhra Pradesh
2.Kerala
3.Himachal Pradesh
4.Tripura

How many of the above are generally known as tea-producing States?

(a)Only one State
(b)Only two States
(c)Only three States
(d)All four States

Answer: (d) All four States

Andhra Pradesh, Kerala, Himachal Pradesh, and Tripura are all genuinely recognised tea-producing states. Assam and West Bengal are India’s two largest tea belts, but they are not the only ones. Kangra tea from Himachal Pradesh even carries a Geographical Indication (GI) tag. Kerala and Tripura both run real, if smaller, tea-growing regions of their own.

63.
Economy

Consider the following statements:

1.In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by Reserve Bank of India.
2.The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company.
3.Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Credit rating agencies in India are regulated by SEBI, under the SEBI (Credit Rating Agencies) Regulations, 1999 — not by RBI, so Statement 1 is wrong. ICRA is a public limited company listed on the stock exchanges, making Statement 2 correct. Brickwork Ratings is a SEBI-registered Indian credit rating agency, making Statement 3 correct too.

64.
Economy

With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements are correct?

1.The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB.
2.BBB recommends for the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks.
3.BBB helps the Public Sector Banks in developing strategies and capital raising plans.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

BBB’s Chairman was a government appointee, not the RBI Governor — Vinod Rai, former CAG, was its first Chairman in 2016. This makes Statement 1 wrong. BBB did recommend the selection of top management for public sector banks, making Statement 2 correct. It also helped public sector banks develop strategies and capital-raising plans, making Statement 3 correct too. BBB was itself replaced by the Financial Services Institutions Bureau (FSIB) from 1 July 2022, just after this question was asked.

65.
Economy

With reference to Convertible Bonds, consider the following statements:

1.As there is an option to exchange the bond for equity, Convertible Bonds pay a lower rate of interest.
2.The option to convert to equity affords the bondholder a degree of indexation to rising consumer prices.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Convertible bonds pay a lower coupon because the option to convert into equity has real value to the investor, so bondholders accept a lower fixed return in exchange — statement 1 is correct. That same conversion option gives the bondholder some protection against rising prices, since the equity side can move up with inflation while a fixed coupon can’t — statement 2 is correct too.

66.
Int’l Relations & Defence

Consider the following:

1.Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
2.Missile Technology Control Regime
3.Shanghai Cooperation Organisation

India is a member of which of the above?

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)3 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

India is a founding member of AIIB (2016), joined MTCR as its 35th member (2016), and joined SCO as a full member (2017).

67.
Int’l Relations & Defence

Consider the following statements:

1.Vietnam has been one of the fastest growing economies in the world in the recent years.
2.Vietnam is led by a multi-party political system.
3.Vietnam’s economic growth is linked to its integration with global supply chains and focus on exports.
4.For a long time Vietnam’s low labour costs and stable exchange rates have attracted global manufacturers.
5.Vietnam has the most productive e-service sector in the Indo-Pacific region.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a)2 and 4
(b)3 and 5
(c)1, 3 and 4
(d)1 and 2

Answer: (c) 1, 3 and 4

Vietnam is among the fastest-growing economies, its growth links to global supply chains and exports, and low labour costs plus stable exchange rates attracted manufacturers. Vietnam is not a multi-party system, and its e-service claim is unsubstantiated.

68.
Economy

In India, which one of the following is responsible for maintaining price stability by controlling inflation?

(a)Department of Consumer Affairs
(b)Expenditure Management Commission
(c)Financial Stability and Development Council
(d)Reserve Bank of India

Answer: (d) Reserve Bank of India

Under the RBI Act, 1934 (as amended in 2016), RBI’s monetary policy has the primary statutory objective of maintaining price stability, while keeping growth in mind. The Monetary Policy Committee, chaired by the RBI Governor, sets the repo rate to keep inflation within the government-set target band.

69.
Science & Tech

With reference to Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs), consider the following statements:

1.They enable the digital representation of physical assets.
2.They are unique cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain.
3.They can be traded or exchanged at equivalency and therefore can be used as a medium of commercial transactions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

NFTs act as digital proof of ownership and can represent physical assets digitally.

Each token is unique and lives on a blockchain, as statement 2 says.

They are non-fungible, so they cannot be exchanged at equivalency, making statement 3 wrong.

70.
Geography

Consider the following pairs:

Reservoirs	States
1. Ghataprabha	Telangana
2. Gandhi Sagar	Madhya Pradesh
3. Indira Sagar	Andhra Pradesh
4. Maithon	Chhattisgarh

How many pairs given above are not correctly matched?

(a)Only one pair
(b)Only two pairs
(c)Only three pairs
(d)All four pairs

Answer: (c) Only three pairs

Only Gandhi Sagar–Madhya Pradesh is correctly matched. Ghataprabha is actually in Karnataka, Indira Sagar is actually in Madhya Pradesh (not Andhra Pradesh), and Maithon is actually in Jharkhand.

View this question →

Questions 71–80

71.
Economy

In India, which one of the following compiles information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments and lay-offs in factories employing workers?

(a)Central Statistics Office
(b)Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade
(c)Labour Bureau
(d)National Technical Manpower Information System

Answer: (c) Labour Bureau

The Labour Bureau, an office under the Ministry of Labour and Employment, compiles this data. It publishes an annual report on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments and lay-offs, built from monthly voluntary returns filed by state Labour Departments and Regional Labour Commissioners. The Central Statistics Office, DPIIT, and the National Technical Manpower Information System handle different statistical domains and are not the source for this dataset.

72.
Economy

In India, what is the role of the Coal Controller’s Organization (CCO)?

1.CCO is the major source of Coal Statistics in Government of India.
2.It monitors progress of development of Captive Coal/Lignite blocks.
3.It hears any objection to the Government’s notification relating to acquisition of coal-bearing areas.
4.It ensures that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end users in the prescribed time.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1, 2 and 3
(b)3 and 4 only
(c)1 and 2 only
(d)1, 2 and 4

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3

The Coal Controller’s Organisation is Government of India’s main statutory source of coal and lignite statistics, so statement 1 is correct. It also monitors development progress on captive coal and lignite blocks, confirming statement 2. Under the Coal Bearing Areas (Acquisition and Development) Act, 1957, it hears objections to the Central Government’s land-acquisition notifications, confirming statement 3. Ensuring timely coal delivery to end users is not a CCO function — that falls to coal companies and their supply/linkage agreements, so statement 4 is wrong.

73.
Polity & Governance

If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it?

(a)This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.
(b)This would create a local self-governing body in that area.
(c)This would convert that area into a Union Territory.
(d)The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State.

Answer: (a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.

Fifth Schedule areas carry land-alienation restriction as their core practical consequence; it does not itself create a local body, a UT, or Special Category State status.

74.
Polity & Governance

Consider the following statements:

1.The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable sanitation and is funded by the Government of India and the World Health Organization.
2.The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an apex body of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs in Government of India and provides innovative solutions to address the challenges of Urban India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

The India Sanitation Coalition isn’t Government-of-India-and-WHO-funded — it’s a broad NGO/corporate/foundation coalition. NIUA is usually described as an autonomous think-tank under MoHUA, not strictly its “apex body,” which is apparently why the official key also marked Statement 2 false.

75.
Environment & Ecology

Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?

(a)Central Water Commission
(b)Central Ground Water Board
(c)Central Ground Water Authority
(d)National Water Development Agency

Answer: (c) Central Ground Water Authority

The CGWA was constituted in 1997 under Section 3(3) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. The other three bodies trace their authority elsewhere. Related: EnvEco0092 — The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

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76.
Int’l Relations & Defence

With reference to the “United Nations Credentials Committee”, consider the following statements:

1.It is a committee set up by the UN Security Council and works under its supervision.
2.It traditionally meets in March, June and September every year.
3.It assesses the credentials of all UN members before submitting a report to the General Assembly for approval.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)3 only
(b)1 and 3
(c)2 and 3
(d)1 and 2

Answer: (a) 3 only

The Credentials Committee is set up by the General Assembly, not the Security Council. It meets in November/December, not March, June, and September. It does assess member credentials and report to the GA.

77.
Int’l Relations & Defence

Which one of the following statements best describes the ‘Polar Code’?

(a)It is the international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters.
(b)It is the agreement of the countries around the North Pole regarding the demarcation of their territories in the polar region.
(c)It is a set of norms to be followed by the countries whose scientists undertake research studies in the North Pole and South Pole.
(d)It is a trade and security agreement of the member countries of the Arctic Council.

Answer: (a) It is the international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters.

Developed by the IMO, it is mandatory under SOLAS and MARPOL, entering into force 1 January 2017.

78.
Int’l Relations & Defence

With reference to the United Nations General Assembly, consider the following statements:

1.The UN General Assembly can grant observer status to the non-member States.
2.Inter-governmental organisations can seek observer status in the UN General Assembly.
3.Permanent Observers in the UN General Assembly can maintain missions at the UN headquarters.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

The GA can grant observer status to non-member states. Inter-governmental organisations can also seek observer status. Permanent Observers can maintain missions at UN headquarters.

79.
Economy

With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements:

1.The Tea Board is a statutory body.
2.It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
3.The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru.
4.The Board has overseas offices at Dubai and Moscow.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a)1 and 3
(b)2 and 4
(c)3 and 4
(d)1 and 4

Answer: (d) 1 and 4

The Tea Board is a statutory body under the Tea Act 1953, attached to the Commerce Ministry.

Its head office is in Kolkata, and it has overseas offices including Dubai and Moscow.

Statements 2 and 3 are wrong.

80.
Environment & Ecology

Which one of the following best describes the term “greenwashing”?

(a)Conveying a false impression that a company’s products are eco-friendly and environmentally sound
(b)Non-inclusion of ecological/environmental costs in the Annual Financial Statements of a country
(c)Ignoring the disastrous ecological consequences while undertaking infrastructure development
(d)Making mandatory provisions for environmental costs in a government project/programme

Answer: (a) Conveying a false impression that a company’s products are eco-friendly and environmentally sound

Greenwashing specifically refers to misleading environmental claims, not financial-statement omissions or ignoring ecological costs in infrastructure. Related: Ethics0029 — Corporate Governance and Business Ethics.

View this question →

Questions 81–90

81.
Environment & Ecology

Consider the following statements:

1.High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth.
2.Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus cause warming effect.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

High clouds actually cause net warming, not cooling, since they trap outgoing infrared more than they reflect sunlight. Low clouds actually cause net cooling, not warming, since they reflect sunlight strongly. Related: EnvEco0129 — High Clouds vs Low Clouds.

View this question →

82.
Int’l Relations & Defence

Consider the following statements:

1.Bidibidi is a large refugee settlement in north-western Kenya.
2.Some people who fled from South Sudan civil war live in Bidibidi.
3.Some people who fled from civil war in Somalia live in Dadaab refugee complex in Kenya.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 and 2
(b)2 only
(c)2 and 3
(d)3 only

Answer: (c) 2 and 3

Statement 1 is wrong: Bidibidi is in Uganda, not Kenya. Statements 2 and 3 are correct: Bidibidi hosts South Sudanese refugees, and Dadaab in Kenya hosts Somali refugees.

View this question →

83.
Int’l Relations & Defence

Consider the following countries:

1.Armenia
2.Azerbaijan
3.Croatia
4.Romania
5.Uzbekistan

Which of the above are members of the Organization of Turkic States?

(a)1, 2 and 4
(b)1 and 3
(c)2 and 5
(d)3, 4 and 5

Answer: (c) 2 and 5

Only Azerbaijan and Uzbekistan, among the given countries, are members of the Organization of Turkic States. Armenia, Croatia, and Romania are not.

View this question →

84.
Environment & Ecology

Consider the following statements:

1.Gujarat has the largest solar park in India.
2.Kerala has a fully solar powered International Airport.
3.Goa has the largest floating solar photovoltaic project in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 and 2
(b)2 only
(c)1 and 3
(d)3 only

Answer: (b) 2 only

85.
Int’l Relations & Defence

With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements:

1.A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from baseline determined in accordance with the convention.
2.Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea.
3.The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

All three statements match UNCLOS as written: Article 3 sets the 12-nautical-mile territorial sea limit, Article 17 gives ships of all states (coastal or land-locked) the right of innocent passage through it, and Article 57 caps the Exclusive Economic Zone at 200 nautical miles from the same baseline.

86.
Int’l Relations & Defence

Which one of the following statements best reflects the issue with Senkaku Islands, sometimes mentioned in the news?

(a)It is generally believed that they are artificial islands made by a country around South China Sea.
(b)China and Japan engage in maritime disputes over these islands in East China Sea.
(c)A permanent American military base has been set up there to help Taiwan to increase its defence capabilities.
(d)Though International Court of Justice declared them as no man’s land, some South-East Asian countries claim them.

Answer: (b) China and Japan engage in maritime disputes over these islands in East China Sea.

The islands are natural, uninhabited features administered by Japan, in the East China Sea, not the South China Sea, with China and Taiwan also claiming them.

View this question →

87.
Int’l Relations & Defence

Consider the following pairs:

Country	Important reason for being in the news recently
1. Chad	Setting up of permanent military base by China
2. Guinea	Suspension of Constitution and Government by military
3. Lebanon	Severe and prolonged economic depression
4. Tunisia	Suspension of Parliament by President

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a)Only one pair
(b)Only two pairs
(c)Only three pairs
(d)All four pairs

Answer: (c) Only three pairs

Pairs 2, 3, and 4 are correct. Pair 1 is wrong: China’s only overseas military base is in Djibouti, not Chad.

View this question →

88.
Geography

Consider the following pairs:

Region often mentioned in the news	Country
1. Anatolia	Turkey
2. Amhara	Ethiopia
3. Cabo Delgado	Spain
4. Catalonia	Italy

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a)Only one pair
(b)Only two pairs
(c)Only three pairs
(d)All four pairs

Answer: (b) Only two pairs

Anatolia–Turkey and Amhara–Ethiopia are correct. Cabo Delgado is actually a province of Mozambique, not Spain. Catalonia is actually an autonomous region of Spain, not Italy.

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89.
Environment & Ecology

With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements:

1.Wild animals are the sole property of the government.
2.When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled for equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside.
3.Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 and 2
(b)2 only
(c)1 and 3
(d)3 only

Answer: (b) 2 only.

Protection applies equally inside and outside reserves. Wild animals are not ALL government property (vermin/Schedule V excluded), and mere apprehension of danger is not sufficient ground for capture or killing.

90.
Environment & Ecology

Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi?

(a)Ant
(b)Cockroach
(c)Crab
(d)Spider

Answer: (a) Ant.

Leafcutter ants actively cultivate fungus as a food source, a genuine mutualistic relationship. Cockroaches, crabs, and spiders do not farm fungus.

Questions 91–100

91.
History & Culture

Consider the following pairs:

Site of Ashoka’s major rock edicts	Location in the State of
1. Dhauli	Odisha
2. Erragudi	Andhra Pradesh
3. Jaugada	Madhya Pradesh
4. Kalsi	Karnataka

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a)Only one pair
(b)Only two pairs
(c)Only three pairs
(d)All four pairs

Answer: (b) Only two pairs

Dhauli in Odisha and Erragudi in Andhra Pradesh are correctly matched.

Jaugada is in Odisha, not Madhya Pradesh, and Kalsi is in Uttarakhand, not Karnataka.

So only two pairs are correct.

92.
History & Culture

Consider the following pairs:

King	Dynasty
1. Nannuka	Chandela
2. Jayashakti	Paramara
3. Nagabhata II	Gurjara-Pratihara
4. Bhoja	Rashtrakuta

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a)Only one pair
(b)Only two pairs
(c)Only three pairs
(d)All four pairs

Answer: (b) Only two pairs

Nannuka founded the Chandela dynasty, and Nagabhata II belonged to the Gurjara-Pratiharas.

Jayashakti was a Chandela ruler, and Bhoja was a Paramara ruler.

So only two pairs are correctly matched.

93.
History & Culture

Which one of the following statements about Sangam literature in ancient South India is correct?

(a)Sangam poems are devoid of any reference to material culture.
(b)The social classification of Varna was known to Sangam poets.
(c)Sangam poems have no reference to warrior ethic.
(d)Sangam literature refers to magical forces as irrational.

Answer: (b)

Sangam poems do show knowledge of the varna social classification.

They are full of material-culture references and celebrate the warrior ethic.

Option (b) is the correct statement.

94.
History & Culture

“Yogavasistha” was translated into Persian by Nizamuddin Panipati during the reign of:

(a)Akbar
(b)Humayun
(c)Shahjahan
(d)Aurangzeb

Answer: (a) Akbar

Nizamuddin Panipati translated the Yogavasistha into Persian as Jug Basisht under Akbar’s patronage.

Akbar commissioned Persian versions of major Sanskrit texts for his court.

So the translation belongs to Akbar’s reign.

95.
History & Culture

The world’s second tallest statue in sitting pose of Ramanuja was inaugurated by the Prime Minister of India at Hyderabad recently. Which one of the following statements correctly represents the teachings of Ramanuja?

(a)The best means of salvation was devotion.
(b)Vedas are eternal, self-existent and wholly authoritative.
(c)Logical arguments were essential means for the highest bliss.
(d)Salvation was to be obtained through meditation.

Answer: (a)

Ramanuja taught that devotion to a personal God is the best means of salvation.

His Vishishtadvaita philosophy centred on loving surrender, or bhakti.

The other options describe different philosophical schools.

96.
History & Culture

The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple at Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple?

1.Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines.
2.A description of Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni.
3.Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Somnath is one of the twelve Jyotirlinga shrines, and Al-Biruni described it in his account.

The 1951 Pran Pratishtha was done by President Rajendra Prasad, not Radhakrishnan.

So statements 1 and 2 are correct.

97.
General Science

Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body?

(a)They protect the body from environmental allergens.
(b)They alleviate the body’s pain and inflammation.
(c)They act as immunosuppressants in the body.
(d)They protect the body from the diseases caused by pathogens.

Answer: (d) They protect the body from the diseases caused by pathogens.

B cells make antibodies that neutralize specific pathogens. T cells detect and destroy body cells that are already infected. Together, this is their core defensive role — not allergy control, pain relief, or immunosuppression. Related: GenSci0007 — Human Body Systems: An Overview.

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98.
Science & Tech

Consider the following statements:

1.Other than those made by humans, nanoparticles do not exist in nature.
2.Nanoparticles of some metallic oxides are used in the manufacture of some cosmetics.
3.Nanoparticles of some commercial products which enter the environment are unsafe for humans.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)3 only
(c)1 and 2
(d)2 and 3

Answer: (d) 2 and 3

Nanoparticles occur naturally, for example in volcanic ash and sea spray, so statement 1 is wrong.

Metallic-oxide nanoparticles are used in some cosmetics like sunscreens.

Some nanoparticles that enter the environment can harm humans, making statement 3 correct.

99.
Science & Tech

Consider the following statements:

DNA Barcoding can be a tool to:

1.assess the age of a plant or animal.
2.distinguish among species that look alike.
3.identify undesirable animal or plant materials in processed foods.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)3 only
(c)1 and 2
(d)2 and 3

Answer: (d) 2 and 3

DNA barcoding identifies species by comparing short DNA sequences, so it can separate look-alike species.

It can also detect unwanted animal or plant material in processed foods.

It cannot assess an organism’s age, making statement 1 wrong.

100.
Environment & Ecology

Consider the following:

1.Carbon monoxide
2.Nitrogen oxide
3.Ozone
4.Sulphur dioxide

Excess of which of the above in the environment is/are cause(s) of acid rain?

(a)1, 2 and 3
(b)2 and 4 only
(c)4 only
(d)1, 3 and 4

English-language questions transcribed from the official Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination, 2022 question booklet (VGYH-U-FGT), General Studies Paper I. Hindi text omitted. Answer key not included.

Answer: (b) 2 and 4 only
Related: EnvEco0197 – Acid Rain: Which Gases Actually Cause It

UPSC CSP 2022 — General Studies Paper I (Full Question Paper)

General Studies — Paper I

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