With reference to Mughal India, what is/are the difference/differences between Jagirdar and Zamindar?
1.Jagirdars were holders of land assignments in lieu of judicial and police duties, whereas Zamindars were holders of revenue rights without obligation to perform any duty other than revenue collection.
2.Land assignments to Jagirdars were hereditary and revenue rights of Zamindars were not hereditary.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: jagirdars held land assignments in lieu of service, while zamindars held revenue rights. Statement 2 is wrong because jagir assignments were not hereditary and zamindari rights often were. Jagirs lapsed to the crown on the jagirdar’s death.
With reference to land reforms in independent India, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a)The ceiling laws were aimed at family holdings and not individual holdings.
(b)The major aim of land reforms was providing agricultural land to all the landless.
(c)It resulted in cultivation of cash crops as a predominant form of cultivation.
(d)Land reforms permitted no exemptions to the ceiling limits.
Answer: (b) The major aim of land reforms was providing agricultural land to all the landless.
Ceiling laws applied to family holdings, not just individual ones, after 1972 national guidelines. States also allowed exemptions to the ceiling, for example for plantations such as tea, coffee, and rubber.
The Global Competitiveness Report is published by the
(a)International Monetary Fund
(b)United Nations Conference on Trade and Development
(c)World Economic Forum
(d)World Bank
Answer: (c) World Economic Forum
The World Economic Forum publishes the Global Competitiveness Report. It ran annually from 1979 to 2019, ranking countries on productivity and economic competitiveness.
Consider the following statements about 'the Charter Act of 1813':
1.It ended the trade monopoly of the East India Company in India except for trade in tea and trade with China.
2.It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Indian territories held by the Company.
3.The revenues of India were now controlled by the British Parliament.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Statement 1 is right: the 1813 Act ended the Company’s trade monopoly except for tea and China trade. Statement 2 is also right, since the Act asserted Crown sovereignty over the Company’s Indian territories. Statement 3 is wrong, as Parliament gained control of Indian revenues only in 1833.
With reference to Swadeshi Movement, consider the following statements:
1.It contributed to the revival of the indigenous artisan crafts and industries.
2.The National Council of Education was established as a part of Swadeshi Movement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
The Swadeshi Movement revived indigenous crafts and industries through the boycott of foreign goods. The National Council of Education was indeed founded in 1906 as part of the movement. Both statements are therefore correct.
Consider the following pairs: (Movement/Organization — Leader)
1.All India Anti-Untouchability League — Mahatma Gandhi
2.All India Kisan Sabha — Swami Sahajanand Saraswati
3.Self-Respect Movement — E. V. Ramaswami Naicker
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a)1 only
(b)1 and 2 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
All three pairs are correctly matched. Gandhi founded the All India Anti-Untouchability League in 1932. Swami Sahajanand Saraswati was the founding president of the All India Kisan Sabha in 1936. E.V. Ramaswami Naicker (Periyar) founded the Self-Respect Movement in 1925.
Which one of the following is not a Harappan site?
(a)Chanhudaro
(b)Kot Diji
(c)Sohgaura
(d)Desalpur
Answer: (c) Sohgaura
Chanhudaro, Kot Diji and Desalpur are all confirmed Harappan settlements. Sohgaura in Uttar Pradesh is an early historic site, known for its copper-plate inscription. It is therefore not a Harappan site.
In which of the following relief sculpture inscriptions is 'Ranyo Ashoka' (King Ashoka) mentioned along with the stone portrait of Ashoka?
(a)Kanganahalli
(b)Sanchi
(c)Shahbazgarhi
(d)Sohgaura
Answer: (a) Kanganahalli
The Kanganahalli Buddhist site in Karnataka bears a sculpture with the label “Ranyo Ashoka”. It shows King Ashoka with his stone portrait, the only such labelled image. The other listed sites have no such inscription.
With reference to forced labour (Vishti) in India during the Gupta period, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a)It was considered a source of income for the State, a sort of tax paid by the people.
(b)It was totally absent in the Madhya Pradesh and Kathiawar regions of the Gupta Empire.
(c)The forced labourer was entitled to weekly wages.
(d)The eldest son of the labourer was sent as the forced labourer.
Answer: (a) It was considered a source of income for the State, a sort of tax paid by the people.
Vishti was forced labour exacted by the state from the people of the Gupta Empire. It functioned as a form of tax, a source of income for the state. The other statements about wages and regional absence are unsupported.
Building 'Kalyaana Mandapas' was a notable feature in the temple construction in the kingdom of
(a)Chalukya
(b)Chandela
(c)Rashtrakuta
(d)Vijayanagara
Answer: (d) Vijayanagara
Kalyaana Mandapas, or pillared marriage halls, were a hallmark of Vijayanagara temple construction. They appear in temples like the Virupaksha and Vithala complexes at Hampi. Chalukya, Chandela and Rashtrakuta temples lack this feature.
1.In the revenue administration of Delhi Sultanate, the in-charge of revenue collection was known as 'Amil'.
2.The Iqta system of Sultans of Delhi was an ancient indigenous institution.
3.The office of 'Mir Bakshi' came into existence during the reign of Khalji Sultans of Delhi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)1 and 2 only
(c)3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 only
The Amil was indeed the revenue-collection officer under the Delhi Sultanate. The Iqta system was borrowed from Central Asia, not an indigenous institution. Mir Bakshi was a Mughal office, not a Khalji-era creation.
2.Saint Kabir was greatly influenced by Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Nimbarka was a thirteenth-century Vaishnava saint, centuries before Akbar. Kabir lived in the fifteenth century and predated Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi, so no influence is possible. Both statements are false.
With reference to the British colonial rule in India, consider the following statements:
1.Mahatma Gandhi was instrumental in the abolition of the system of 'indentured labour'.
2.In Lord Chelmsford's 'War Conference', Mahatma Gandhi did not support the resolution on recruiting Indians for World War.
3.Consequent upon the breaking of Salt Law by Indian people, the Indian National Congress was declared illegal by the colonial rulers.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a)1 and 2 only
(b)1 and 3 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only
Gandhi helped abolish indentured labour in 1917, and Congress was declared illegal after the Salt Law was broken, in 1930 and again in 1932. Gandhi actually supported recruiting Indians at the 1918 War Conference, so statement 2 is wrong.
With reference to Indian National Movement, consider the following pairs: (Person — Position held)
1.Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru — President, All India Liberal Federation
2.K. C. Neogy — Member, The Constituent Assembly
3.P. C. Joshi — General Secretary, Communist Party of India
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a)1 only
(b)1 and 2 only
(c)3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Sapru did preside over the All India Liberal Federation. K.C. Neogy was a member of the Constituent Assembly. P.C. Joshi served as General Secretary of the Communist Party of India from 1935 to 1947.
With reference to Mian Tansen, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a)Tansen was the title given to him by Emperor Akbar.
(b)Tansen composed Dhrupads on Hindu gods and goddesses.
(c)Tansen composed songs on his patrons.
(d)Tansen invented many Ragas.
Answer: (a) Tansen was the title given to him by Emperor Akbar.
Tansen’s original name was Ramtanu, and Akbar conferred the title “Miyan” upon him. He composed dhrupads on deities, songs for patrons, and invented many ragas. The title “Tansen” was not given by Akbar, so statement (a) is not correct.
Who among the following Mughal Emperors shifted emphasis from illustrated manuscripts to album and individual portrait?
(a)Humayun
(b)Akbar
(c)Jahangir
(d)Shah Jahan
Answer: (c) Jahangir
Jahangir shifted Mughal painting’s focus from illustrated manuscripts to albums and individual portraits. He patronised naturalistic portraiture and studies of flora and fauna. Akbar’s ateliers had emphasised large illustrated manuscripts instead.
Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in the temperate alpine zone?
(a)Manas National Park
(b)Namdapha National Park
(c)Neora Valley National Park
(d)Valley of Flowers National Park
Answer: (d) Valley of Flowers National Park.
Valley of Flowers sits entirely in the high-altitude temperate alpine zone of the Western Himalayas, open only from June to October. Manas, Namdapha, and Neora Valley all span lower-elevation vegetation zones as well.
(d)Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
Answer: (c) NITI Aayog
The Atal Innovation Mission is a flagship initiative of NITI Aayog. It promotes innovation and entrepreneurship in schools and start-ups. It is not under the science, labour or skill-development ministries.
(a)does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle
(b)does not set below the horizon at Antarctic Circle
(c)shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator
(d)shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn
Answer: (a) does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle
On the June solstice, all points at or north of the Arctic Circle get continuous daylight. The Sun is overhead at the Tropic of Cancer that day, not the Equator or Tropic of Capricorn, and the Antarctic Circle sees polar night, not continuous day.
Which one of the following groups of plants was domesticated in the 'New World' and introduced into the 'Old World'?
(a)Tobacco, cocoa and rubber
(b)Tobacco, cotton and rubber
(c)Cotton, coffee and sugarcane
(d)Rubber, coffee and wheat
Answer: (a) Tobacco, cocoa and rubber
All three are genuinely New World plants, domesticated in the Americas and later introduced to the Old World. Cotton, coffee, and wheat are all Old World crops, ruling out the other options.
2.Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only.
3.One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only.
The Asiatic lion (Gir Forest) and the one-horned rhinoceros (Kaziranga and other floodplain grasslands) occur naturally only in India. The double-humped Bactrian camel is not India-exclusive — it is also naturally found across Central Asia and Mongolia.
Consider the following pairs: (Famous place — River)
1.Pandharpur — Chandrabhaga
2.Tiruchirappalli — Cauvery
3.Hampi — Malaprabha
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Pandharpur genuinely sits on the Chandrabhaga, the local name for the Bhima river there. Tiruchirappalli genuinely sits on the Cauvery. Hampi, though, actually sits on the Tungabhadra river, not the Malaprabha, which makes pair 3 incorrect.
In a given year in India, official poverty lines are higher in some States than in others because
(a)poverty rates vary from State to State
(b)price levels vary from State to State
(c)Gross State Product varies from State to State
(d)quality of public distribution varies from State to State
Answer: (b) price levels vary from State to State
India’s official poverty line follows a fixed consumption basket, then adjusts for each State’s own price level using CPI deflators. That is why the same real standard of living can produce a different nominal poverty line across States.
In the context of which of the following do some scientists suggest the use of cirrus cloud thinning technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol into stratosphere?
(a)Creating the artificial rains in some regions
(b)Reducing the frequency and intensity of tropical cyclones
(c)Reducing the adverse effects of solar wind on the Earth
In the context of which one of the following are the terms 'pyrolysis and plasma gasification' mentioned?
(a)Extraction of rare earth elements
(b)Natural gas extraction technologies
(c)Hydrogen fuel-based automobiles
(d)Waste-to-energy technologies
Answer: (d) Waste-to-energy technologies.
Pyrolysis heats waste without oxygen, and plasma gasification uses an ionised gas at extreme heat. Both turn waste into syngas instead of burning it, making them waste-to-energy technologies.
Which of the following are in Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve?
(a)Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve
(b)Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam and Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Silent Valley National Park
(c)Kaundinya, Gundla Brahmeswaram and Papikonda Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Mukurthi National Park
(d)Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve
Answer: (a) Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve.
These four protected areas span Kerala and Tamil Nadu and together form the Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve, a UNESCO-recognised reserve at the southern tip of the Western Ghats.
All four statements are correct. Adult green sea turtles, grass carp and parrotfish, manatees and dugongs, and many vipers and boas each break the usual pattern for their group.
Consider the following pairs: (Wildlife — Naturally found in)
1.Blue-finned Mahseer — Cauvery River
2.Irrawaddy Dolphin — Chambal River
3.Rusty-spotted Cat — Eastern Ghats
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only.
The Blue-finned Mahseer genuinely lives in the Cauvery River, and the Rusty-spotted Cat genuinely occurs in the Eastern Ghats. The Irrawaddy Dolphin is not found in the Chambal River; its main Indian population lives in Chilika Lake, Odisha, while the Chambal itself is home to the Gharial and the Gangetic River Dolphin.
Why is there a great concern about the 'microbeads' that are released into environment?
(a)They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems.
(b)They are considered to cause skin cancer in children.
(c)They are small enough to be absorbed by crop plants in irrigated fields.
(d)They are often found to be used as food adulterants.
Answer: (a) They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems.
Microbeads are tiny plastic particles used in cosmetics and toothpaste as exfoliants. Sewage treatment plants cannot filter out particles this small, so they wash into rivers and oceans. Marine animals often mistake them for food, so they harm marine ecosystems rather than crops or human skin.
Recently, there was a growing awareness in our country about the importance of Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia) because it is found to be a sustainable source of
(a)anti-malarial drug
(b)biodiesel
(c)pulp for paper industry
(d)textile fibre
Answer: (d) textile fibre.
Himalayan nettle grows wild across the Himalayan belt. Its stem yields a strong bast fibre, called allo in Nepal, that is hand-spun into cloth, not used for biodiesel or paper pulp.
For the measurement/estimation of which of the following are satellite images/remote sensing data used?
1.Chlorophyll content in the vegetation of a specific location
2.Greenhouse gas emissions from rice paddies of a specific location
3.Land surface temperatures of a specific location
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a)1 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Satellite sensors estimate chlorophyll content through vegetation indices like NDVI. Remote sensing can track methane emissions from flooded rice paddies. Land surface temperatures are also mapped from thermal satellite data.
With reference to the States mentioned above, in terms of percentage of forest cover to the total area of State, which one of the following is the correct ascending order?
(a)2-3-1-4
(b)2-3-4-1
(c)3-2-4-1
(d)3-2-1-4
Answer: (c) 3-2-4-1.
Ascending order of forest-cover percentage is Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, Chhattisgarh. Chhattisgarh has the highest share of its own area under forest, Maharashtra the lowest, per Forest Survey of India data.
Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of 'methane hydrate'?
1.Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits.
2.Large deposits of 'methane hydrate' are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor.
3.Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3.
All three statements are correct. Warming can release methane trapped in Arctic tundra and seafloor deposits, and atmospheric methane oxidises into carbon dioxide within roughly a decade or two.
Consider the following pairs: (Sea — Bordering country)
1.Adriatic Sea — Albania
2.Black Sea — Croatia
3.Caspian Sea — Kazakhstan
4.Mediterranean Sea — Morocco
5.Red Sea — Syria
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a)1, 2 and 4 only
(b)1, 3 and 4 only
(c)2 and 5 only
(d)1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer: (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
Adriatic–Albania, Caspian–Kazakhstan, and Mediterranean–Morocco are all correct. The Black Sea doesn’t border Croatia, and the Red Sea doesn’t border Syria.
Among the following, which one is the largest exporter of rice in the world in the last five years?
(a)China
(b)India
(c)Myanmar
(d)Vietnam
Answer: (b) India
India has been the world’s largest rice exporter since 2012, typically supplying 30–40% of global rice exports, well ahead of Thailand, Vietnam, and the other options here.
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a)1, 2 and 4
(b)1, 3 and 4
(c)2 and 5
(d)3 and 5
Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 4
Bandarpunch feeds the Yamuna, Bara Shigri feeds the Chenab, and Siachen feeds the Nubra — all correct. Milam actually feeds the Goriganga, not the Mandakini. Zemu actually feeds the Teesta, not the Manas.
In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehension. These chemicals are used as
(a)pesticides in agriculture
(b)preservatives in processed foods
(c)fruit-ripening agents
(d)moisturising agents in cosmetics
Answer: (a) pesticides in agriculture.
Carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate, and triazophos are all pesticides used on Indian farms. Two rank in the WHO’s most severe hazard class, and carbofuran was left out of India’s 2018 pesticide ban despite that rating.
1.Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India.
2.The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of Ramsar Convention.
3.The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c) 3 only.
The Ramsar Convention does not legally require India to protect every wetland in its territory. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed under India’s own Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, not on Ramsar’s recommendation. The Rules do cover the drainage/catchment area around a wetland, as the state authority determines.
What is common to the places known as Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati?
(a)Recently discovered uranium deposits
(b)Tropical rain forests
(c)Underground cave systems
(d)Water reservoirs
Answer: (d) Water reservoirs
Aliyar is a reservoir in Coimbatore district, Tamil Nadu, part of the Parambikulam Aliyar Project. Isapur is a reservoir on the Penganga river in Maharashtra, also called the Upper Painganga Dam. Kangsabati is a reservoir in Bankura district, West Bengal, held back by the Mukutmanipur Dam.
In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel for buses in public transport, consider the following statements:
1.The main advantage of the use of H-CNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide emissions.
2.H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions.
3.Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses.
4.H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)4 only
(d)1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
H-CNG genuinely reduces CO₂ and hydrocarbon emissions, and can blend hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume. It does not eliminate carbon monoxide, and is not cheaper than CNG. Related: EnvEco0128 — Hydrogen-Enriched CNG (H-CNG).
(a)Clouds absorb the radiation released from the Earth's surface.
(b)Clouds reflect back the Earth's radiation.
(c)The Earth's surface would have low temperature on cloudy nights.
(d)Clouds deflect the blowing wind to ground level.
Answer: (b) Clouds reflect back the Earth’s radiation.
Clouds absorb the Earth’s outgoing heat and radiate a large part of it back down, keeping the surface warmer than on a clear night. Since the surface never cools enough to reach the dew point, water vapour cannot condense into dew.
1.The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
2.The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
It was the 39th Amendment (1975) that inserted Article 329A, shielding the Prime Minister’s election from judicial review — the 44th Amendment later REPEALED that Article. Statement 1 is false. The Supreme Court did strike down the 99th Amendment (the NJAC Act) in 2015 as violating judicial independence. Statement 2 is true.
1.The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
2.The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what constitutes 'incapacity and proved misbehaviour' of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
3.The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
4.If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 and 2
(b)3 only
(c)3 and 4 only
(d)1, 3 and 4
Answer: (c) 3 and 4 only
The Speaker CAN refuse to admit a removal motion under the 1968 Act — Statement 1 is false. The Constitution does not define “misbehaviour” or “incapacity” — Statement 2 is false. The process details and voting-majority requirement (Statements 3 and 4) are both correct.
The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of
(a)Jawaharlal Nehru
(b)Lal Bahadur Shastri
(c)Indira Gandhi
(d)Morarji Desai
Answer: (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
The Ninth Schedule was introduced by the 1st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1951, during Jawaharlal Nehru’s prime ministership, primarily to protect land reform laws from judicial review.
1.Coal sector was nationalized by the Government of India under Indira Gandhi.
2.Now, coal blocks are allocated on lottery basis.
3.Till recently, India imported coal to meet the shortages of domestic supply, but now India is self-sufficient in coal production.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 only
Coal was nationalized under Indira Gandhi’s government (1972–73), so statement 1 is correct. Coal blocks are now allocated through competitive e-auctions, not by lottery, so statement 2 is wrong. India also still imports coal to meet demand and is not self-sufficient, so statement 3 is wrong too.
1.The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of 'Office of Profit'.
2.The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
3.The term 'Office of Profit' is well-defined in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 and 2 only
(b)3 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
The Act does exempt several posts and has been amended five times — statements 1 and 2 are correct. “Office of Profit” is NOT defined anywhere in the Constitution’s text — statement 3 is false.
Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?
(a)Third Schedule
(b)Fifth Schedule
(c)Ninth Schedule
(d)Twelfth Schedule
Answer: (b) Fifth Schedule
Para 5(2)(a) of the Fifth Schedule empowers the Governor to make regulations prohibiting or restricting land transfers by Scheduled Tribes members in Scheduled Areas, which can render such transfers null and void — reinforced by cases like Samatha v. Andhra Pradesh (1997).
Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India:
1.PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory.
2.A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status.
3.There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.
4.Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a)1, 2 and 3
(b)2, 3 and 4
(c)1, 2 and 4
(d)1, 3 and 4
Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 4
PVTGs are spread across 18 States and one Union Territory — Statement 1 is true. A stagnant or declining population is genuinely one of the criteria — Statement 2 is true. The real count is 75 PVTGs, not 95 — Statement 3 is false. Both the Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are on the official PVTG list — Statement 4 is true.
With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?
(a)The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.
(b)The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.
(c)In the event of grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet.
(d)State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of Union Legislature.
Answer: (b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.
Article 142 grants the Supreme Court plenary power to do “complete justice,” unconstrained by ordinary legislation Parliament has made.
With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements:
1.The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year.
2.When a State Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Article 176 requires the Governor’s customary address at the first session of the year — statement 1 is correct. But when a State Legislature lacks a rule, it follows rules made by its own Speaker or Chairman, not the Lok Sabha’s — statement 2 is false.
1.The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a 'Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air'.
2.The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument.
3.A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly.
4.The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its member States to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a)1 and 3 only
(b)2, 3 and 4 only
(c)2 and 4 only
(d)1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (c) 2 and 4 only
The migrant-smuggling protocol belongs to UNTOC, not UNCAC. The asset-recovery chapter belongs to UNCAC, not UNTOC. UNCAC is the first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument, and UNODC assists implementation of both.
1.As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown on forest areas.
2.As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce.
3.The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
The 2017 amendment’s felling right applies to bamboo on non-forest land, not forest areas, so statement 1 is false. Statements 2 and 3 about the Forest Rights Act, 2006 are correct. Related: EnvEco0112 — Bamboo Under the Forest Act.
Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one's right to marry the person of one's choice?
(a)Article 19
(b)Article 21
(c)Article 25
(d)Article 29
Answer: (b) Article 21
In Shafin Jahan v. Asokan K.M. (the Hadiya case, 2018), the Supreme Court held the right to choose one’s life partner is part of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21.
1.According to the Indian Patents Act, a biological process to create a seed can be patented in India.
2.In India, there is no Intellectual Property Appellate Board.
3.Plant varieties are not eligible to be patented in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 and 3 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c) 3 only
Statement 1 is false: Section 3(j) of the Patents Act, 1970 excludes biological processes to create seeds from patentability. Statement 2 was false at the time of this exam: the Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB) existed continuously from 2003 until it was abolished by the Tribunals Reforms Act, 2021 — so in 2019, India did have an IPAB, even though it does not today. Statement 3 is true: plant varieties are excluded from patents under Section 3(j) and are instead protected under the Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights (PPV&FR) Act, 2001.
Consider the following statements: The Environment Protection Act, 1986 empowers the Government of India to
1.state the requirement of public participation in the process of environmental protection, and the procedure and manner in which it is sought
2.lay down the standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Section 3(2) explicitly empowers laying down emission/discharge standards. It doesn’t itself state a public-participation requirement or procedure — that comes from subordinate Rules made under Section 6. Related: EnvEco0092 — The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in India, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a)Waste generator has to segregate waste into five categories.
(b)The Rules are applicable to notified urban local bodies, notified towns and all industrial townships only.
(c)The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities.
(d)It is mandatory on the part of waste generator that the waste generated in one district cannot be moved to another district.
Answer: (c)
The Rules provide exact, elaborate criteria for identifying landfill and waste-processing sites. Waste is segregated into three streams, not five, and the Rules apply far more broadly than notified ULBs alone. Related: EnvEco0011 — Solid and Hazardous Waste.
Consider the following statements: As per the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018
1.if rules for fixed-term employment are implemented, it becomes easier for the firms/companies to lay off workers
2.no notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary workman
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
The 2018 amendment let a fixed-term contract end automatically on expiry, with no notice or retrenchment compensation — easier than an ordinary layoff. No notice was ever required for a temporary workman either.
The Service Area Approach was implemented under the purview of
(a)Integrated Rural Development Programme
(b)Lead Bank Scheme
(c)Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme
(d)National Skill Development Mission
Answer: (b) Lead Bank Scheme
RBI introduced the Service Area Approach under the Lead Bank Scheme in 1975. It assigned each rural bank branch a specific cluster of villages for coordinated area-wise credit planning.
With reference to the management of minor minerals in India, consider the following statements:
1.Sand is a 'minor mineral' according to the prevailing law in the country.
2.State Governments have the power to grant mining leases of minor minerals, but the powers regarding the formation of rules related to the grant of minor minerals lie with the Central Government.
3.State Governments have the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 and 3 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only.
Sand is a minor mineral under the MMDR Act, 1957. Section 15 of the Act gives State Governments both the power to grant mining leases for minor minerals and the power to frame rules for them, including rules against illegal mining — so statement 2 is false.
1.Most of India's external debt is owed by governmental entities.
2.All of India's external debt is denominated in US dollars.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Government entities owe only about a fifth of India’s external debt. Most of it is owed by private-sector borrowers, not the government. The debt is also not all in US dollars. Around 55% is USD-denominated, with the rest in Indian rupees, Japanese yen, SDRs, and euros.
Which of the following is not included in the assets of a commercial bank in India?
(a)Advances
(b)Deposits
(c)Investments
(d)Money at call and short notice
Answer: (b) Deposits
A commercial bank’s deposits are money it owes back to depositors, so they sit on the liabilities side of its balance sheet, not the assets side. Advances, investments, and money at call and short notice are all assets, since they represent money the bank has lent out or invested.
In the context of India, which of the following factors is/are contributor/contributors to reducing the risk of a currency crisis?
1.The foreign currency earnings of India's IT sector
2.Increasing the government expenditure
3.Remittances from Indians abroad
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a)1 only
(b)1 and 3 only
(c)2 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only
IT-sector export earnings and remittances from Indians abroad are stable foreign-currency inflows. They build up reserves and reduce the chances of a currency crisis. Higher government expenditure works the other way. It tends to widen the fiscal deficit and the current account deficit together, a pattern called the twin-deficits problem. That raises, rather than reduces, currency-crisis risk.
Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?
(a)First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)
(b)Rajamannar Committee (1969)
(c)Sarkaria Commission (1983)
(d)National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)
Answer: (c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
Its report near-verbatim recommends the Governor be “eminent in some walk of life,” “from outside the state,” “a detached figure not too intimately connected with local politics,” and someone without recent political involvement.
Which of the following is issued by registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors who want to be part of the Indian stock market without registering themselves directly?
(a)Certificate of Deposit
(b)Commercial Paper
(c)Promissory Note
(d)Participatory Note
Answer: (d) Participatory Note
Registered Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs) issue Participatory Notes, or P-Notes. These are derivative instruments for indirect access to Indian securities. An overseas investor buys a P-Note from the FPI issuing it, gaining exposure to Indian markets without direct SEBI registration.
1.As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels.
2.People's participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
CAMPA genuinely exists at both National and State levels, per Sections 8 and 9 of the Act. But the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016 doesn’t mandate people’s participation. Related: EnvEco0114 — CAMPA.
In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.?
1.Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament
2.Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees
3.Finance Commission
4.Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission
5.NITI Aayog
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a)1 and 2
(b)1, 3 and 4
(c)3, 4 and 5
(d)2 and 5
Answer: (a) 1 and 2
Parliament reviews independent regulators via Ad Hoc Committees it sets up, and via the Departmentally Related Standing Committees. The Finance Commission, FSLRC, and NITI Aayog do not hold this ongoing oversight role.
With reference to India's Five-Year Plans, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1.From the Second Five-Year Plan, there was a determined thrust towards substitution of basic and capital good industries.
2.The Fourth Five-Year Plan adopted the objective of correcting the earlier trend of increased concentration of wealth and economic power.
3.In the Fifth Five-Year Plan, for the first time, the financial sector was included as an integral part of the Plan.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 only
(c)3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Statement 1 is true: from the Second Five-Year Plan onward, the Mahalanobis strategy gave a determined thrust to basic and capital goods industries.
Statement 2 is true: the Fourth Plan (1969-74) explicitly took up correcting the earlier rise in wealth and economic-power concentration, backed by the 1969 MRTP Act.
Statement 3 is false: the Fifth Plan’s genuine first was adopting poverty removal (Garibi Hatao) as a national objective, not financial-sector integration.
With reference to Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), consider the following statements:
1.AIIB has more than 80 member nations.
2.India is the largest shareholder in AIIB.
3.AIIB does not have any members from outside Asia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: AIIB had already crossed 80 member nations well before this 2019 exam, and had passed 100 members that same year. Statement 2 is wrong: China is AIIB’s largest shareholder, holding roughly 26.5% of voting power, against India’s roughly 7.6% as the second-largest. Statement 3 is wrong: AIIB does have members from outside Asia, including the United Kingdom, Germany, Canada, Australia, and several African and Latin American states.
What was the purpose of Inter-Creditor Agreement signed by Indian banks and financial institutions recently?
(a)To lessen the Government of India's perennial burden of fiscal deficit and current account deficit
(b)To support the infrastructure projects of Central and State Governments
(c)To act as independent regulator in case of applications for loans of Rs. 50 crore or more
(d)To aim at faster resolution of stressed assets of Rs. 50 crore or more which are under consortium lending
Answer: (d) To aim at faster resolution of stressed assets of Rs. 50 crore or more which are under consortium lending
The Inter-Creditor Agreement was signed in 2018 under Project Sashakt, the Sunil Mehta Committee's bad-loan resolution plan. It lets the lead lender frame a resolution plan for large stressed accounts under consortium lending. A plan backed by 66% of lenders by value binds all lenders, speeding up resolution for accounts of Rs. 50 crore or more.
The Chairmen of public sector banks are selected by the
(a)Banks Board Bureau
(b)Reserve Bank of India
(c)Union Ministry of Finance
(d)Management of concerned bank
Answer: (a) Banks Board Bureau
At the time this question was asked (UPSC CSP 2019), the Banks Board Bureau (BBB) recommended the selection of Chairmen and top management for public sector banks. The BBB itself was later replaced by the Financial Services Institutions Bureau (FSIB) from 1 July 2022, which now performs this role.
1.Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) is the first regulatory body set up by the Government of India.
2.One of the tasks of PNGRB is to ensure competitive markets for gas.
3.Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB go before the Appellate Tribunals for Electricity.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Statement 1 is false. PNGRB was set up under the PNGRB Act, 2006. TRAI (1997) and SEBI (1992) both predate it, so PNGRB is not India’s first regulatory body. Statement 2 is true — the PNGRB Act tasks the Board with promoting competitive gas markets. Statement 3 is true too. Section 30 of the PNGRB Act makes the Appellate Tribunal for Electricity the appellate authority for PNGRB’s orders.
With reference to communication technologies, what is/are the difference/differences between LTE (Long-Term Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice over Long-Term Evolution)?
1.LTE is commonly marketed as 3G and VoLTE is commonly marketed as advanced 3G.
2.LTE is data-only technology and VoLTE is voice-only technology.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) 3 only
The Act sets 26 weeks of total paid leave, not a simple 3-months-pre/3-months-post split — Statement 1 is false. Creche visits are mandated at four a day, not six — Statement 2 is false. A woman with two or more existing children does get a reduced 12-week entitlement for a further child — Statement 3 is true.
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017?
1.Pregnant women are entitled for three months pre-delivery and three months post-delivery paid leave.
2.Enterprises with creches must allow the mother minimum six creche visits daily.
3.Women with two children get reduced entitlements.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 only
(c)3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c) 3 only
The Act sets 26 weeks of total paid leave, not a simple 3-months-pre/3-months-post split — Statement 1 is false. Creche visits are mandated at four a day, not six — Statement 2 is false. A woman with two or more existing children does get a reduced 12-week entitlement for a further child — Statement 3 is true.
Which one of the following is not a sub-index of the World Bank's 'Ease of Doing Business Index'?
(a)Maintenance of law and order
(b)Paying taxes
(c)Registering property
(d)Dealing with construction permits
Answer: (a) Maintenance of law and order
‘Maintenance of law and order’ is not one of the Ease of Doing Business sub-indices, unlike paying taxes, registering property, and construction permits.
In India, 'extended producer responsibility' was introduced as an important feature in which of the following?
(a)The Bio-medical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1998
(b)The Recycled Plastic (Manufacturing and Usage) Rules, 1999
(c)The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011
(d)The Food Safety and Standard Regulations, 2011
Answer: (c) The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011
Extended producer responsibility was first introduced as an important feature of India’s e-Waste Rules, 2011, not the earlier bio-medical waste or plastic rules. Related: EnvEco0115 — Extended Producer Responsibility.
The economic cost of food grains to the Food Corporation of India is Minimum Support Price and bonus (if any) paid to the farmers plus
(a)transportation cost only
(b)interest cost only
(c)procurement incidentals and distribution cost
(d)procurement incidentals and charges for godowns
Answer: (c) procurement incidentals and distribution cost
FCI’s economic cost of foodgrain equals the MSP (plus any bonus paid to farmers), plus procurement incidentals (mandi tax, labour, gunny bags), plus distribution cost (freight, storage, handling, transit losses).
In the context of any country, which one of the following would be considered as part of its social capital?
(a)The proportion of literates in the population
(b)The stock of its buildings, other infrastructure and machines
(c)The size of population in the working age group
(d)The level of mutual trust and harmony in the society
Answer: (d) The level of mutual trust and harmony in the society
Social capital is the trust, networks, and shared norms that let people cooperate. The World Bank and OECD both define it this way. It is distinct from human capital (literacy, skills) and physical capital (buildings, machines).
With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
1.No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.
2.An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
The 42nd Amendment (1976) briefly barred High Courts from invalidating central laws, but the 43rd Amendment (1977) restored that power — statement 1 is false. The Supreme Court has repeatedly struck down constitutional amendments violating the basic structure — statement 2 is false.
1.Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) exchange rates are calculated by comparing the prices of the same basket of goods and services in different countries.
2.In terms of PPP dollars, India is the sixth largest economy in the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. PPP exchange rates are built by comparing the prices of the same basket of goods and services across countries.
Statement 2 is wrong. In PPP-dollar terms, India is the world’s third largest economy, behind only China and the United States — a rank it has held since around 2009. The “sixth largest” figure instead describes India’s nominal-GDP rank around 2017-18, a different measure entirely, which is likely what this statement confuses with PPP.
With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crops in India in the last five years, consider the following statements:
1.Area under rice cultivation is the highest.
2.Area under the cultivation of jowar is more than that of oilseeds.
3.Area of cotton cultivation is more than that of sugarcane.
4.Area under sugarcane cultivation has steadily decreased.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a)1 and 3 only
(b)2, 3 and 4 only
(c)2 and 4 only
(d)1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only
Rice has the largest Kharif-season area of any crop, and cotton’s area is roughly double sugarcane’s. Oilseeds cover far more Kharif area than jowar, and sugarcane area fluctuated over this period rather than steadily falling.
Among the agricultural commodities imported by India, which one of the following accounts for the highest imports in terms of value in the last five years?
(a)Spices
(b)Fresh fruits
(c)Pulses
(d)Vegetable oils
Answer: (d) Vegetable oils
India imports 55-60% of its edible oil demand, more than any other farm commodity by value.
In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?
(a)Protection against the tyranny of political rulers
(b)Absence of restraint
(c)Opportunity to do whatever one likes
(d)Opportunity to develop oneself fully
Answer: (d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully
This is the standard “positive liberty” definition (Laski) used in Indian polity texts, distinguishing liberty from mere absence of restraint or license.
Which one of the following is not the most likely measure the Government/RBI takes to stop the slide of Indian rupee?
(a)Curbing imports of non-essential goods and promoting exports
(b)Encouraging Indian borrowers to issue rupee denominated Masala Bonds
(c)Easing conditions relating to external commercial borrowing
(d)Following an expansionary monetary policy
Answer: (d) Following an expansionary monetary policy
An expansionary monetary policy increases the money supply and lowers interest rates. That makes rupee assets less attractive to foreign investors, which would weaken the rupee further rather than stop its slide.
Curbing non-essential imports cuts dollar demand. Masala Bonds shift repayment risk to foreign lenders instead of Indian borrowers needing dollars. Easing external commercial borrowing rules brings more foreign currency into the country. All three of these actually help defend the rupee.
Consider the following statements: The Reserve Bank of India's recent directives relating to 'Storage of Payment System Data', popularly known as data diktat, command the payment system providers that
1.they shall ensure that entire data relating to payment systems operated by them are stored in a system only in India
2.they shall ensure that the systems are owned and operated by public sector enterprises
3.they shall submit the consolidated system audit report to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India by the end of the calendar year
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)1 and 2 only
(c)3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: RBI’s directive genuinely requires payment-system data to be stored only in India. Statement 2 is wrong; it does not require public-sector ownership. Statement 3 is wrong; the consolidated system audit report goes to the RBI itself, not the CAG.
Which of the following adopted a law on data protection and privacy for its citizens known as 'General Data Protection Regulation' in April 2016 and started implementation of it from 25th May, 2018?
(a)Australia
(b)Canada
(c)The European Union
(d)The United States of America
Answer: (c) The European Union
The EU adopted GDPR on 14 April 2016 and began enforcement on 25 May 2018.
Recently, India signed a deal known as 'Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field' with which of the following countries?
(a)Japan
(b)Russia
(c)The United Kingdom
(d)The United States of America
Answer: (b) Russia
The Action Plan was signed at the 19th India-Russia Bilateral Summit, covering six new nuclear power units.
The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following?
(a)Increase in the cash reserve ratio
(b)Increase in the banking habit of the population
(c)Increase in the statutory liquidity ratio
(d)Increase in the population of the country
Answer: (b) Increase in the banking habit of the population
A stronger banking habit means people hold less cash and keep more money in bank deposits. Banks then have more deposits to lend and re-lend, so the money multiplier rises. A higher cash reserve ratio or statutory liquidity ratio does the opposite, locking up funds banks would otherwise lend. This same fact was retested in 2021 (Q11), with the answer options simply reordered.
In the context of digital technologies for entertainment, consider the following statements:
1.In Augmented Reality (AR), a simulated environment is created and the physical world is completely shut out.
2.In Virtual Reality (VR), images generated from a computer are projected onto real-life objects or surroundings.
3.AR allows individuals to be present in the world and improves the experience using the camera of smart-phone or PC.
4.VR closes the world, and transposes an individual, providing complete immersion experience.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 and 2 only
(b)3 and 4
(c)1, 2 and 3
(d)4 only
Answer: (b) 3 and 4
AR overlays computer images on the real world rather than shutting it out. VR immerses the user in a fully simulated environment, closing off the physical world. Statements 1 and 2 swap the two technologies, while 3 and 4 are correct.
The word 'Denisovan' is sometimes mentioned in media in reference to
(a)fossils of a kind of dinosaurs
(b)an early human species
(c)a cave system found in North-East India
(d)a geological period in the history of Indian subcontinent
Answer: (b) an early human species
Denisovans were an early human species identified from Denisova Cave in Siberia. They are known mainly from DNA recovered from fossil remains. The term does not refer to dinosaurs, a cave system or a geological period.
With reference to the recent developments in science, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a)Functional chromosomes can be created by joining segments of DNA taken from cells of different species.
(b)Pieces of artificial functional DNA can be created in laboratories.
(c)A piece of DNA taken out from an animal cell can be made to replicate outside a living cell in a laboratory.
(d)Cells taken out from plants and animals can be made to undergo cell division in laboratory petri dishes.
Answer: (a) Functional chromosomes can be created by joining segments of DNA taken from cells of different species.
Scientists can create pieces of artificial DNA and make DNA replicate outside living cells. Cells from plants and animals can divide in laboratory petri dishes. Joining DNA from different species into one working chromosome is not yet possible, so (a) is not correct.
Consider the following statements: A digital signature is
1.an electronic record that identifies the certifying authority issuing it
2.used to serve as a proof of identity of an individual to access information or server on Internet
3.an electronic method of signing an electronic document and ensuring that the original content is unchanged
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c) 3 only
A digital signature is an electronic method of authenticating an electronic document. It identifies the certifying authority and proves the signer’s identity for access to internet resources. It also ensures the original content remains unchanged.
In the context of wearable technology, which of the following tasks is/are accomplished by wearable devices?
1.Location identification of a person
2.Sleep monitoring of a person
3.Assisting the hearing impaired person
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a)1 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Wearables can identify a person’s location through GPS and other sensors. They monitor sleep through movement and heart-rate tracking. Devices can also assist hearing-impaired people, so all three tasks apply.
'RNA interference (RNAi)' technology has gained popularity in the last few years. Why?
1.It is used in developing gene silencing therapies.
2.It can be used in developing therapies for the treatment of cancer.
3.It can be used to develop hormone replacement therapies.
4.It can be used to produce crop plants that are resistant to viral pathogens.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a)1, 2 and 4
(b)2 and 3
(c)1 and 3
(d)1 and 4 only
Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 4
RNAi silences specific genes, enabling gene-silencing therapies. It is being explored for cancer treatment and can create virus-resistant crop plants. Hormone replacement therapy does not depend on RNAi, so statement 3 is wrong.
Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant 'blackholes' billions of light-years away from the Earth. What is the significance of this observation?
(a)'Higgs boson particles' were detected.
(b)'Gravitational waves' were detected.
(c)Possibility of inter-galactic space travel through 'wormhole' was confirmed.
(d)It enabled the scientists to understand 'singularity'.
Answer: (b) ‘Gravitational waves’ were detected.
LIGO detected gravitational waves from the merger of two giant black holes in 2015. The waves were generated billions of light-years away and confirmed general relativity. Higgs bosons, wormholes and singularity studies were not the significance.
Which of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India?
1.Genetic predisposition of some people
2.Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases
3.Using antibiotics in livestock farming
4.Multiple chronic diseases in some people
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a)1 and 2
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1, 3 and 4
(d)2, 3 and 4
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Incorrect antibiotic doses and antibiotic use in livestock farming breed resistant microbes. Multiple chronic diseases increase repeated antibiotic exposure, further driving resistance. Genetic predisposition of people is not among the stated reasons.
What is Cas9 protein that is often mentioned in news?
(a)A molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing
(b)A biosensor used in the accurate detection of pathogens in patients
(c)A gene that makes plants pest-resistant
(d)A herbicidal substance synthesized in genetically modified crops
Answer: (a) A molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing
Cas9 is an enzyme that cuts DNA at specific sequences guided by RNA. It forms the core of the CRISPR-Cas9 gene-editing system. This makes it a molecular scissors for targeted gene editing.
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a)Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV.
(b)Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine.
(c)Globally, the number of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses are several times more than those infected with HIV.
(d)Some of those infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses do not show the symptoms for many years.
Answer: (b) Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine.
Hepatitis B does have an effective vaccine, unlike Hepatitis C. The statement claiming otherwise is therefore not correct. HBV is transmitted much like HIV, and both infections often remain asymptomatic for years.
English-language questions transcribed from the official Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination, 2019 question booklet (BKL-F-GHP/54A), General Studies Paper I. Hindi text omitted. Answer key not included.
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