General Studies — Paper I
Economy
“Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which one of the following?
- (a)Asian Development Bank
- (b)International Monetary Fund
- (c)United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative
- (d)World Bank
Answer: (b) International Monetary Fund
The Rapid Financing Instrument gives urgent balance-of-payments assistance to any member facing a shock. The Rapid Credit Facility is a similar, concessional facility specifically for low-income countries.
Related: Economy0010 — The IMF · View this question →
Economy
With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:
- 1.An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of rupee.
- 2.An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness.
- 3.An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER.
Which of the above statements are correct?
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)1 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only
A rise in NEER does indicate rupee appreciation. A rise in REER actually signals worsening trade competitiveness, not an improvement, since domestic goods become relatively more expensive abroad. Rising domestic inflation relative to trading partners widens the gap between NEER and REER, since REER adjusts NEER for that inflation differential.
Related: Economy0008 — International Trade and Balance of Payments · View this question →
Economy
With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:
- 1.If the inflation is too high, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities.
- 2.If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market.
- 3.If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)1 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
To control high inflation, the RBI sells government securities to absorb liquidity — it does not buy them, so statement 1 is false. RBI does sell dollars to support a rapidly depreciating rupee. If US/EU interest rates fall, capital tends to flow into India, pushing the rupee up — RBI then buys dollars to prevent excessive appreciation.
Related: IndEco0057 — Monetary Policy and RBI Tools · View this question →
Economy
With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements:
- 1.It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club.
- 2.It is an initiative to support Low Income Countries with unsustainable debt.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
The Common Framework for Debt Treatment is jointly endorsed by the G20 and the Paris Club, designed to help Low Income Countries facing unsustainable debt restructure it in a structured way.
Related: IntlRel0038 — G20 · View this question →
Economy
With reference to the Indian economy, what are the advantages of “Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs)”?
- 1.Government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs.
- 2.IIBs provide protection to the investors from uncertainty regarding inflation.
- 3.The interest received as well as capital gains on IIBs are not taxable.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)1 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Because IIBs shift inflation risk to the investor, the government can offer a lower coupon rate. IIBs also protect investors from inflation uncertainty. Statement 3 is false — interest and capital gains on IIBs are fully taxable, with no special exemption.
Related: IndEco0309 — Inflation-Indexed Bonds · View this question →
Economy
With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- 1.They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as market-places.
- 2.The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Under India’s FDI policy, foreign e-commerce firms in the marketplace model cannot sell their own goods.
They must act only as platforms connecting buyers and sellers, so statement 1 is wrong.
These firms cannot own or control sellers on their platforms at all, not just to a limited degree.
Therefore neither statement is correct.
Related: IndEco0124 — E-Commerce in India
Economy
Which of the following activities constitute real sector in the economy?
- 1.Farmers harvesting their crops
- 2.Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics
- 3.A commercial bank lending money to a trading company
- 4.A corporate body issuing Rupee Denominated Bonds overseas
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)2, 3 and 4 only
- (c)1, 3 and 4 only
- (d)1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
The real sector covers the production of goods and services in the economy.
Farmers harvesting crops and textile mills converting cotton into fabric are production activities.
Bank lending and issuing rupee-denominated bonds are financial-sector activities that move funds, not produce output.
So only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Economy
Which one of the following situations best reflects “Indirect Transfers” often talked about in media recently with reference to India?
- (a)An Indian company investing in a foreign enterprise and paying taxes to the foreign country on the profits arising out of its investment
- (b)A foreign company investing in India and paying taxes to the country of its base on the profits arising out of its investment
- (c)An Indian company purchases tangible assets in a foreign country and sells such assets after their value increases and transfers the proceeds to India
- (d)A foreign company transfers shares and such shares derive their substantial value from assets located in India
Answer: (d)
An indirect transfer happens when a foreign company’s shares are transferred, and those shares derive substantial value from assets located in India — exactly the situation India’s Section 9 rules were amended to tax, following the Vodafone dispute.
Related: IndEco0310 — Indirect Transfers Taxation · View this question →
Economy
With reference to the expenditure made by an organisation or a company, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- 1.Acquiring new technology is capital expenditure.
- 2.Debt financing is considered capital expenditure, while equity financing is considered revenue expenditure.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Acquiring new technology creates a long-term asset, so it is capital expenditure. Debt and equity financing are both ways of raising capital receipts, not classifications of expenditure.
Related: IndEco0061 — Budget, Tax and Fiscal Policy · View this question →
Economy
With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:
- 1.A share of the household financial savings goes towards government borrowings.
- 2.Dated securities issued at market-related rates in auctions form a large component of internal debt.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Household financial savings, including bank deposits and insurance, indirectly fund government borrowing. Market-auctioned dated securities are a large, standard component of India’s internal debt.
Related: IndEco0061 — Budget, Tax and Fiscal Policy · View this question →
Polity & Governance
Consider the following statements:
- 1.Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed.
- 2.The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves.
- 3.The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt.
- 4.In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)1, 2 and 4
- (c)3 and 4 only
- (d)3 only
Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 4
The H.N. Sanyal Committee’s report did lead to the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971. The Constitution (Articles 129 and 215) does empower the Supreme Court and High Courts, as Courts of Record, to punish contempt of themselves. Parliament does hold law-making power over contempt of court. All three are true. But it is the 1971 Act, not the Constitution itself, that defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt — Statement 3 is false.
Related: Polity0094 — Contempt of Court: Law and Debates · View this question →
Polity & Governance
With reference to India, consider the following statements:
- 1.Government law officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.
- 2.Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
The Advocates Act, 1961 defines “advocate” as anyone enrolled on a State Bar Council roll, without categorically excluding corporate lawyers — Statement 1’s framing doesn’t hold. Bar Councils genuinely do set rules on legal education and law-college recognition — Statement 2 is correct.
Related: Polity0319 — Bar Council of India (BCI) · View this question →
Polity & Governance
Consider the following statements:
- 1.A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India.
- 2.When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent.
- 3.A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)1 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
No prior Presidential recommendation is needed for a Constitution Amendment Bill, unlike a Money Bill — Statement 1 is false. Presidential assent is genuinely obligatory once passed — Statement 2 is true. There is genuinely no joint-sitting provision — Statement 3 is true.
Related: Polity0017 — Amending the Constitution and the Basic Structure Doctrine · View this question →
Polity & Governance
Consider the following statements:
- 1.The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.
- 2.The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
The four ministerial ranks are convention, not constitutional text — Statement 1 is false. The 15% cap under Article 75(1A) is a genuine constitutional requirement — Statement 2 is true.
Related: Polity0249 — Article 75(1A): The 15% Cap on the Council of Ministers · View this question →
Polity & Governance
Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha?
- 1.To ratify the declaration of Emergency
- 2.To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers
- 3.To impeach the President of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a)1 and 2
- (b)2 only
- (c)1 and 3
- (d)3 only
Answer: (b) 2 only
No-confidence motions are genuinely Lok Sabha-exclusive. Ratifying an Emergency proclamation needs both Houses, and impeachment can start in either House — neither is Lok Sabha-exclusive.
Related: Polity0049 — The PM, Council of Ministers and Attorney General · View this question →
Polity & Governance
With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements:
- 1.The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.
- 2.The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
The rule actually runs the opposite way from Statement 1’s claim: a nominated legislator CAN join a party within six months of taking their seat without being disqualified; disqualification only applies if they join AFTER that window. Statement 1 is false. The law genuinely sets no time-frame for a presiding officer to decide a defection case — Statement 2 is true, and this gap has let real cases drag on for years.
Related: Polity0090 — The Anti-Defection Law · View this question →
Polity & Governance
Consider the following statements:
- 1.Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.
- 2.According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Every Minister has the same Article 88 speaking right, whether or not a member of that House — Statement 1 is false. The Attorney General resigning when the government resigns is convention, not a constitutional requirement — Statement 2 is false.
Related: Polity0049 — The PM, Council of Ministers and Attorney General · View this question →
Polity & Governance
With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements:
- 1.Mandamus will not lie against a private organisation unless it is entrusted with a public duty.
- 2.Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company.
- 3.Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)1 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Mandamus requires a public duty — it will not lie against a private organisation unless one is entrusted to it, and, separately, it will not lie against a company merely because it happens to be a Government company. Quo Warranto is unusually open: any public-minded person can petition for it, not only someone personally aggrieved. All three statements are correct.
Related: Polity0294 — Article 32 of the Constitution · View this question →
Polity & Governance
With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements:
- 1.Private and public hospitals must adopt it.
- 2.As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately.
- 3.It has seamless portability across the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)3 only
- (c)1 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 3 only
Adoption by hospitals is voluntary, not mandatory — Statement 1 is false. Individual enrolment is opt-in, not a guarantee of universal citizen coverage — Statement 2 is false/overstated. Seamless portability across the country is a genuine, official design goal — Statement 3 is true.
Related: Polity0111 — Ayushman Bharat (PM-JAY) · View this question →
Polity & Governance
With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:
- 1.As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.
- 2.There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
- 3.The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.
- 4.The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a)1 and 3 only
- (b)1, 2 and 3
- (c)3 and 4 only
- (d)2 and 4 only
Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only
The election-date-by-Speaker rule and the quasi-Speaker presiding powers are both real. There is no mandatory rule tying the post to opposition or ruling party (Statement 2 false), and no established practice of the Speaker moving the motion with the PM seconding it (Statement 4 false).
Related: Polity0253 — Article 93: The Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha · View this question →
Environment & Ecology
Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide?
- (a)Cotton
- (b)Rice
- (c)Sugarcane
- (d)Wheat
Related: EnvEco0187 – Rice: The Crop Behind Both Methane and Nitrous Oxide
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Environment & Ecology
“System of Rice Intensification” of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practised, results in:
- 1.Reduced seed requirement
- 2.Reduced methane production
- 3.Reduced electricity consumption
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)1 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Related: EnvEco0188 – System of Rice Intensification: Less Seed, Less Methane
Geography
Which one of the following lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert?
- (a)Lake Victoria
- (b)Lake Faguibine
- (c)Lake Oguta
- (d)Lake Volta
Answer: (b) Lake Faguibine
Lake Faguibine, in Mali, has largely dried up into desert-like terrain. Drought and siltation of its Niger River feeder channel cut off its water supply. Lake Victoria sits in East Africa, not West Africa. Lake Volta and Lake Oguta both remain real, existing lakes.
Related: WorldGeo0062 — Lake Faguibine: West Africa’s Vanishing Lake
Geography
Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers?
- (a)Cauvery
- (b)Manjira
- (c)Pennar
- (d)Tungabhadra
Answer: (c) Pennar
The Pennar (Penna) River carved Gandikota canyon, cutting through the Erramala Hills in Kadapa district, Andhra Pradesh, earning it the nickname “Grand Canyon of India.”
Related: IndGeo0138 — Gandikota Canyon
Geography
Consider the following pairs:
| Peak | Mountains |
|---|---|
| 1. Namcha Barwa | Garhwal Himalaya |
| 2. Nanda Devi | Kumaon Himalaya |
| 3. Nokrek | Sikkim Himalaya |
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
- (a)1 and 2
- (b)2 only
- (c)1 and 3
- (d)3 only
Answer: (b) 2 only
Nanda Devi genuinely sits in the Kumaon Himalaya. Namcha Barwa is actually in the Eastern Himalaya, near the Yarlung Tsangpo’s Great Bend, not Garhwal. Nokrek is the highest peak of the Garo Hills, Meghalaya, not the Sikkim Himalaya.
Geography
The term “Levant” often heard in the news roughly corresponds to which of the following regions?
- (a)Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores
- (b)Region along North African shores stretching from Egypt to Morocco
- (c)Region along Persian Gulf and Horn of Africa
- (d)The entire coastal areas of Mediterranean Sea
Answer: (a) Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores
The Levant refers to the region along the eastern Mediterranean shores in West Asia, including Syria, Lebanon, Jordan, Israel, and Palestine.
Related: WorldGeo0056 — The Levant
Geography
Consider the following countries:
- 1.Azerbaijan
- 2.Kyrgyzstan
- 3.Tajikistan
- 4.Turkmenistan
- 5.Uzbekistan
Which of the above have borders with Afghanistan?
- (a)1, 2 and 5 only
- (b)1, 2, 3 and 4 only
- (c)3, 4 and 5 only
- (d)1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer: (c) 3, 4 and 5 only
Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, and Uzbekistan all genuinely border Afghanistan. Azerbaijan and Kyrgyzstan don’t share a border with Afghanistan at all.
Related: WorldGeo0057 — Afghanistan’s Neighbouring Countries
Geography
With reference to India, consider the following statements:
- 1.Monazite is a source of rare earths.
- 2.Monazite contains thorium.
- 3.Monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands in India.
- 4.In India, Government bodies only can process or export monazite.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a)1, 2 and 3 only
- (b)1, 2 and 4 only
- (c)3 and 4 only
- (d)1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
Monazite genuinely is a rare-earth source and contains thorium. It does not occur across the “entire” Indian coastline, only in specific coastal states (Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha). Only government-authorized bodies like IREL can process or export it.
Geography
In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the year normally occurs in the:
- (a)First half of the month of June
- (b)Second half of the month of June
- (c)First half of the month of July
- (d)Second half of the month of July
Answer: (b) Second half of the month of June
The June solstice, the longest day in the Northern Hemisphere, consistently falls on 20-21 June — the second half of the month, not the first.
Related: WorldGeo0002 — Climatology: Atmosphere, Weather and Climate
Geography
Consider the following pairs:
| Wetland/Lake | Location |
|---|---|
| 1. Hokera Wetland | Punjab |
| 2. Renuka Wetland | Himachal Pradesh |
| 3. Rudrasagar Lake | Tripura |
| 4. Sasthamkotta Lake | Tamil Nadu |
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
- (a)Only one pair
- (b)Only two pairs
- (c)Only three pairs
- (d)All four pairs
Answer: (b) Only two pairs
Renuka Wetland genuinely sits in Himachal Pradesh, and Rudrasagar Lake genuinely sits in Tripura. Hokera Wetland is actually in Jammu and Kashmir, not Punjab. Sasthamkotta Lake is actually in Kerala, not Tamil Nadu.
Science & Tech
Consider the following:
- 1.Aarogya Setu
- 2.CoWIN
- 3.DigiLocker
- 4.DIKSHA
Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms?
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)2, 3 and 4 only
- (c)1, 3 and 4 only
- (d)1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Aarogya Setu, CoWIN, DigiLocker and DIKSHA are all built on open-source digital platforms.
Open-source building blocks speed up the creation of India’s digital public infrastructure.
Therefore all four statements are correct.
Related: IndGov0019 — Mobile Governance and e-Governance Success Stories in India
Science & Tech
With reference to Web 3.0, consider the following statements:
- 1.Web 3.0 technology enables people to control their own data.
- 2.In Web 3.0 world, there can be blockchain based social networks.
- 3.Web 3.0 is operated by users collectively rather than a corporation.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)1 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Web 3.0 gives users control over their own data, unlike Web 2.0 platforms.
Blockchain-based social networks and user-owned, decentralised operation are core Web 3.0 ideas.
All three statements are correct.
Related: SciTech0145 — Emerging Tech Glossary: Metaverse, Web3, Digital Twin, NFT
Science & Tech
With reference to “Software as a Service (SaaS)”, consider the following statements:
- 1.SaaS buyers can customise the user interface and can change data fields.
- 2.SaaS users can access their data through their mobile devices.
- 3.Outlook, Hotmail and Yahoo! Mail are forms of SaaS.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)1 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
SaaS buyers can customise the user interface and change data fields within the software’s limits.
Users access SaaS applications and their data from any mobile device over the internet.
Webmail services like Outlook, Hotmail and Yahoo! Mail are classic SaaS examples.
Related: SciTech0006 — Information Technology: Concepts and Impact
Science & Tech
Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media?
- (a)A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space.
- (b)A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions.
- (c)A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth.
- (d)A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same speed and places a probe on its surface.
Answer: (c)
A Fractional Orbital Bombardment System places a missile in low Earth orbit and deorbits it over the target.
Such weapons can approach from unexpected directions, complicating missile defence.
Options (a), (b) and (d) describe other space-related concepts.
Science & Tech
Which one of the following is the context in which the term “qubit” is mentioned?
- (a)Cloud Services
- (b)Quantum Computing
- (c)Visible Light Communication Technologies
- (d)Wireless Communication Technologies
Answer: (b) Quantum Computing
A qubit is the basic unit of quantum information, like a bit in classical computing.
It can exist in a superposition of 0 and 1 states at the same time.
The term is used in the quantum-computing context.
Science & Tech
Consider the following communication technologies:
- 1.Closed-circuit Television
- 2.Radio Frequency Identification
- 3.Wireless Local Area Network
Which of the above are considered Short-Range devices/technologies?
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)1 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
CCTV, RFID and WLAN all operate over short distances.
CCTV works within a facility, RFID within centimetres to metres, and WLAN within about a hundred metres.
All three qualify as short-range technologies.
Related: SciTech0162 — Near Field Communication (NFC): The Centimetre-Range Technology
General Science
Consider the following statements:
- 1.Biofilms can form on medical implants within human tissues.
- 2.Biofilms can form on food and food processing surfaces.
- 3.Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)1 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
All three statements are correct. Biofilms form on medical implants and cause hard-to-treat infections, they form on food-processing surfaces raising contamination risk, and bacteria within them show heightened antibiotic resistance. Related: GenSci0006 — Nutrition and Microorganisms Fundamentals.
General Science
Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics:
- 1.Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast.
- 2.The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut.
- 3.Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)1 and 3
- (d)2 and 3
Answer: (c) 1 and 3
Probiotics include both bacteria and yeast, and they help digest milk sugars — both true. But common probiotic strains like Lactobacillus already occur naturally in the human gut, so statement 2 is false. Related: GenSci0006 — Nutrition and Microorganisms Fundamentals.
Science & Tech
In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements:
- 1.The Serum Institute of India produced COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using mRNA platform.
- 2.Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using vector based platform.
- 3.COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen based vaccine.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)1 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Covishield is a viral-vector vaccine, not an mRNA vaccine, so statement 1 is wrong.
Sputnik V uses an adenoviral vector platform, and COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen vaccine.
Statements 2 and 3 are therefore correct.
Science & Tech
If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth?
- 1.GPS and navigation systems could fail.
- 2.Tsunamis could occur at equatorial regions.
- 3.Power grids could be damaged.
- 4.Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth.
- 5.Forest fires could take place over much of the planet.
- 6.Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed.
- 7.Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a)1, 2, 4 and 5 only
- (b)2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only
- (c)1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only
- (d)1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
Answer: (c) 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only
Solar storms disrupt GPS, damage power grids and disturb satellite orbits.
They cause intense auroras and can interrupt shortwave radio over polar regions.
Tsunamis and planet-wide forest fires are not solar-storm effects.
Related: EnvEco0152 — Earth’s Magnetic Field and Early Atmosphere
Environment & Ecology
“Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a:
- (a)Database created by coalition of research organisations
- (b)Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change”
- (c)Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change”
- (d)Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank
Answer: (a) Database created by coalition of research organisations
The Climate Action Tracker is an independent database created by Climate Analytics and NewClimate Institute, not a UN, IPCC, or World Bank body. Related: EnvEco0103 — Climate Action Tracker.
Environment & Ecology
Consider the following statements:
- 1.“The Climate Group” is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them.
- 2.The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”.
- 3.EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals.
- 4.Some Indian companies are members of EP100.
- 5.The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a)1, 2, 4 and 5
- (b)1, 3 and 4 only
- (c)2, 3 and 5 only
- (d)1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer: (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
The Climate Group and EP100’s real purpose are correctly described, and Indian companies genuinely are EP100 members. But the IEA didn’t launch EP100 and isn’t the Under2 Coalition’s Secretariat — the Climate Group holds both roles itself. Related: EnvEco0104 — The Climate Group, EP100, and the Under2 Coalition.
Environment & Ecology
“If rainforests and tropical forests are the lungs of the Earth, then surely wetlands function as its kidneys.” Which one of the following functions of wetlands best reflects the above statement?
- (a)The water cycle in wetlands involves surface runoff, subsoil percolation and evaporation.
- (b)Algae form the nutrient base upon which fish, crustaceans, molluscs, birds, reptiles and mammals thrive.
- (c)Wetlands play a vital role in maintaining sedimentation balance and soil stabilization.
- (d)Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients.
Related: EnvEco0189 – Wetlands as Earth’s Kidneys: How the Filtration Works
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Environment & Ecology
In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements:
- 1.The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 μg/m3 and annual mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 μg/m3.
- 2.In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during the periods of inclement weather.
- 3.PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream.
- 4.Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a)1, 3 and 4
- (b)1 and 4 only
- (c)2, 3 and 4
- (d)1 and 2 only
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