General Studies — Paper I
With reference to investments, consider the following:
How many of the above are treated as Alternative Investment Funds?
- 1.Bonds
- 2.Hedge Funds
- 3.Stocks
- 4.Venture Capital
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)Only three
- (d)All the four
Answer: (b) Only two
Hedge Funds and Venture Capital are Alternative Investment Funds; Bonds and Stocks are not.
Which of the following are the sources of income for the Reserve Bank of India?
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- 1.Buying and selling Government bonds
- 2.Buying and selling foreign currency
- 3.Pension fund management
- 4.Lending to private companies
- 5.Printing and distributing currency notes
- (a)I and II only
- (b)II, III and IV
- (c)I, III, IV and V
- (d)I, II and V
Answer: (a) I and II only
RBI earns income from government securities and its foreign exchange reserves, not pension management or private lending.
With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information :
| Organization | Some of its functions | It works under |
|---|---|---|
| I. Directorate of Enforcement | Enforcement of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 | Internal Security Division-I, Ministry of Home Affairs |
| II. Directorate of Revenue Intelligence | Enforces the Provisions of the Customs Act, 1962 | Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance |
| III. Directorate General of Systems and Data Management | Carrying out big data analytics to assist tax officers for better policy and nabbing tax evaders | Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance |
In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)All the three
- (d)None
Answer: (b) Only two
Rows II and III are correct; the ED works under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, not MHA.
Related: Polity0204 — Enforcement Directorate: Following the Money Trail
Consider the following statements :
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1.The Reserve Bank of India mandates all the listed companies in India to submit a Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR).
- 2.In India, a company submitting a BRSR makes disclosures in the report that are largely non-financial in nature.
- (a)I only
- (b)II only
- (c)Both I and II
- (d)Neither I nor II
Answer: (b) II only
SEBI, not RBI, mandates BRSR for the top 1,000 listed companies; its disclosures are largely non-financial (ESG).
Related: Polity0121 — SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India)
Consider the following statements :
- Statement I :In India, income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing in rural areas is exempted from any tax.
- Statement II :In India, rural agricultural land is not considered a capital asset under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a)Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
- (b)Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
- (c)Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
- (d)Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Answer: (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Poultry/wool rearing income is taxed as business income, not exempt; rural agricultural land is genuinely excluded from “capital asset.”
Related: IndEco0255 — Agricultural Income Tax Exemption in India
Consider the following statements :
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 1.India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership as a member.
- 2.India is a resource-rich country in all the 30 critical minerals that it has identified.
- 3.The Parliament in 2023 has amended the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 empowering the Central Government to exclusively auction mining lease and composite license for certain critical minerals.
- (a)I and II only
- (b)II and III only
- (c)I and III only
- (d)I, II and III
Answer: (c) I and III only
India joined the MSP and the 2023 MMDR amendment gave the Centre exclusive auction power; but India isn’t resource-rich in most of its 30 identified critical minerals.
Related: IndEco0175 — Critical and Strategic Minerals in India
Consider the following statements :
- Statement I :As regards returns from an investment in a company, generally, bondholders are considered to be relatively at lower risk than stockholders.
- Statement II :Bondholders are lenders to a company whereas stockholders are its owners.
- Statement III :For repayment purpose, bondholders are prioritized over stockholders by a company.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a)Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
- (b)Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement I explains Statement II
- (c)Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
- (d)Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer: (a) Both II and III correct and explain I
Bondholders are lenders, repaid before stockholders — both facts explain their lower risk.
Related: IndEco0008 — Capital Market
Consider the following statements :
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 1.India accounts for a very large portion of all equity option contracts traded globally thus exhibiting a great boom.
- 2.India’s stock market has grown rapidly in the recent past even overtaking Hong Kong’s at some point of time.
- 3.There is no regulatory body either to warn the small investors about the risks of options trading or to act on unregistered financial advisors in this regard.
- (a)I and II only
- (b)II and III only
- (c)I and III only
- (d)I, II and III
Answer: (a) I and II only
India accounts for a huge share of global equity options trading, and briefly overtook Hong Kong’s market cap; SEBI does actively regulate and warn investors.
Related: IndEco0008 — Capital Market
Consider the following statements :
- Statement I :Circular economy reduces the emissions of greenhouse gases.
- Statement II :Circular economy reduces the use of raw materials as inputs.
- Statement III :Circular economy reduces wastage in the production process.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a)Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
- (b)Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
- (c)Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
- (d)Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
Less raw material extraction/processing and less production waste both directly reduce the energy use (and emissions) behind them.
Related: EnvEco0001 — Pollution, Ecosystems and Biodiversity
Consider the following statements :
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 1.Capital receipts create a liability or cause a reduction in the assets of the Government.
- 2.Borrowings and disinvestment are capital receipts.
- 3.Interest received on loans creates a liability of the Government.
- (a)I and II only
- (b)II and III only
- (c)I and III only
- (d)I, II and III
Answer: (a) I and II only
Borrowings and disinvestment are genuine capital receipts; interest received on loans is a revenue receipt, not a liability.
Consider the following statements about Raja Ram Mohan Roy :
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1.He possessed great love and respect for the traditional philosophical systems of the East.
- 2.He desired his countrymen to accept the rational and scientific approach and the principle of human dignity and social equality of all men and women.
- (a)I only
- (b)II only
- (c)Both I and II
- (d)Neither I nor II
Answer: (c) Both I and II
Statement 1 is correct: Roy deeply respected Vedanta and traditional Eastern philosophy. Statement 2 is correct: he pushed his countrymen toward rational, scientific thought and equal human dignity.
Related: ModHist0059 — Raja Ram Mohan Roy and the Brahmo Samaj
Consider the following subjects with regard to Non-Cooperation Programme :
How many of the above were parts of Non-Cooperation Programme?
- 1.Boycott of law-courts and foreign cloth
- 2.Observance of strict non-violence
- 3.Retention of titles and honours without using them in public
- 4.Establishment of Panchayats for settling disputes
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)Only three
- (d)All the four
Answer: (c) Only three
Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: titles were surrendered, not merely retained without public use.
The irrigation device called ‘Araghatta’ was
- (a)a water bag made of leather pulled over a pulley
- (b)a large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes
- (c)a larger earthen pot driven by bullocks
- (d)a large water bucket pulled up by rope directly by hand
Answer: (b) a large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes
Araghatta comes from Sanskrit ara (spoke) and ghatta (pot) — the device is also known as the Persian Wheel.
Who among the following rulers in ancient India had assumed the titles ‘Mattavilasa’, ‘Vichitrachitta’ and ‘Gunabhara’?
- (a)Mahendravarman I
- (b)Simhavishnu
- (c)Narasimhavarman I
- (d)Simhavarman
Answer: (a) Mahendravarman I
Mahendravarman I (c. 600-630 CE) carried the epithets Mattavilasa, Vichitrachitta, and Gunabhara.
Related: AncHist0119 — Mahendravarman I and Narasimhavarman I
Fa-hien (Faxian), the Chinese pilgrim, travelled to India during the reign of
- (a)Samudragupta
- (b)Chandragupta II
- (c)Kumaragupta I
- (d)Skandagupta
Answer: (b) Chandragupta II
Fa-hien travelled through India 399-414 CE, during Chandragupta II’s reign (c. 375-415 CE).
Who among the following led a successful military campaign against the kingdom of Srivijaya, the powerful maritime State, which ruled the Malay Peninsula, Sumatra, Java and the neighbouring islands?
- (a)Amoghavarsha (Rashtrakuta)
- (b)Prataparudra (Kakatiya)
- (c)Rajendra I (Chola)
- (d)Vishnuvardhana (Hoysala)
Answer: (c) Rajendra I (Chola)
Rajendra I launched a naval expedition against the Srivijaya empire around 1025 CE, striking Kedah, Palembang, and other Srivijayan ports and capturing the Srivijayan king.
Related: AncHist0023 — Rashtrakutas, Chalukyas, Pallavas and Cholas
With reference to ancient India (600–322 BC), consider the following pairs :
| Territorial region | River flowing in the region |
|---|---|
| I. Asmaka | Godavari |
| II. Kamboja | Vipas |
| III. Avanti | Mahanadi |
| IV. Kosala | Sarayu |
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)Only three
- (d)All the four
Answer: (b) Only two
Asmaka–Godavari and Kosala–Sarayu are correctly matched; Kamboja–Vipas and Avanti–Mahanadi are not.
Related: AncHist0008 — The Mahajanapadas and the Rise of Magadha
The first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya, a music training school, was set up in 1901 by Vishnu Digambar Paluskar in
- (a)Delhi
- (b)Gwalior
- (c)Ujjain
- (d)Lahore
Answer: (d) Lahore
Vishnu Digambar Paluskar founded the first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya at Lahore in 1901.
Ashokan inscriptions suggest that the ‘Pradeshika’, ‘Rajuka’ and ‘Yukta’ were important officers at the
- (a)village-level administration
- (b)district-level administration
- (c)provincial administration
- (d)level of the central administration
Answer: (b) district-level administration
The Pradeshika, Rajuka, and Yukta were all district-level officers under the Mauryas.
Consider the following statements in respect of the Non-Cooperation Movement :
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1.The Congress declared the attainment of ‘Swaraj’ by all legitimate and peaceful means to be its objective.
- 2.It was to be implemented in stages with civil disobedience and non-payment of taxes for the next stage only if ‘Swaraj’ did not come within a year and the Government resorted to repression.
- (a)I only
- (b)II only
- (c)Both I and II
- (d)Neither I nor II
Answer: (c) Both I and II
The Nagpur session declared Swaraj by legitimate/peaceful means; the programme was staged, escalating only if needed.
Consider the following countries :
How many of the above are members of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization?
- 1.Austria
- 2.Bulgaria
- 3.Croatia
- 4.Serbia
- 5.Sweden
- 6.North Macedonia
- (a)Only three
- (b)Only four
- (c)Only five
- (d)All the six
Answer: (b) Only four
Bulgaria, Croatia, North Macedonia, and Sweden are NATO members; Austria and Serbia are not.
Related: IntlRel0088 — NATO (North Atlantic Treaty Organisation)
Consider the following countries :
Andes mountains pass through how many of the above countries?
- 1.Bolivia
- 2.Brazil
- 3.Colombia
- 4.Ecuador
- 5.Paraguay
- 6.Venezuela
- (a)Only two
- (b)Only three
- (c)Only four
- (d)Only five
Answer: (c) Only four
The Andes pass through Bolivia, Colombia, Ecuador, and Venezuela; Brazil and Paraguay lie east of the range.
Related: WorldGeo0027 — The Andes Mountains
Consider the following water bodies :
Through how many of them does the equator pass?
- 1.Lake Tanganyika
- 2.Lake Tonlé Sap
- 3.Patos Lagoon
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)All the three
- (d)None
Answer: (d) None
Lake Tanganyika, Lake Tonlé Sap, and Patos Lagoon all lie well away from the equator.
Related: WorldGeo0028 — The Equator
Consider the following statements about turmeric during the year 2022–23 :
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 1.India is the largest producer and exporter of turmeric in the world.
- 2.More than 30 varieties of turmeric are grown in India.
- 3.Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are major turmeric producing States in India.
- (a)I and II only
- (b)II and III only
- (c)I and III only
- (d)I, II and III
Answer: (d) I, II and III
India is the world’s largest turmeric producer and exporter, growing 30+ varieties across Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu.
Which of the following are the evidences of the phenomenon of continental drift?
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- 1.The belt of ancient rocks from Brazil coast matches with those from Western Africa.
- 2.The gold deposits of Ghana are derived from the Brazil plateau when the two continents lay side by side.
- 3.The Gondwana system of sediments from India is known to have its counterparts in six different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere.
- (a)I and III only
- (b)I and II only
- (c)I, II and III
- (d)II and III only
Answer: (c) I, II and III
All three are genuine evidences of continental drift: matching rocks, Ghana’s gold, and matching Gondwana sediments.
Related: WorldGeo0001 — Geomorphology: Earth’s Structure and Landforms
Consider the following statements :
- Statement I :The amount of dust particles in the atmosphere is more in subtropical and temperate areas than in equatorial and polar regions.
- Statement II :Subtropical and temperate areas have less dry winds.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a)Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
- (b)Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
- (c)Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
- (d)Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Answer: (c) Statement I correct, II not correct
Subtropical/temperate areas carry more dust because they have MORE dry winds, not less.
Related: WorldGeo0002 — Climatology: Atmosphere, Weather and Climate
Consider the following statements :
- Statement I :In January, in the Northern Hemisphere, the isotherms bend equatorward while crossing the landmasses, and poleward while crossing the oceans.
- Statement II :In January, the air over the oceans is warmer than that over the landmasses in the Northern Hemisphere.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a)Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
- (b)Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
- (c)Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
- (d)Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Answer: (a) Both correct, II explains I
Land cools faster than ocean in winter, so ocean air is warmer — explaining why isotherms bend equatorward over land, poleward over ocean.
Related: WorldGeo0002 — Climatology: Atmosphere, Weather and Climate
Consider the following statements :
- Statement I :In the context of effect of water on rocks, chalk is known as a very permeable rock whereas clay is known as quite an impermeable or least permeable rock.
- Statement II :Chalk is porous and hence can absorb water.
- Statement III :Clay is not at all porous.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a)Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
- (b)Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
- (c)Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
- (d)Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer: (c) Only II is correct, and it explains I
Chalk is porous and permeable; clay IS porous too, just poorly connected, which is why it’s impermeable.
Related: WorldGeo0001 — Geomorphology: Earth’s Structure and Landforms
Consider the following statements :
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 1.Without the atmosphere, temperature would be well below freezing point everywhere on the Earth’s surface.
- 2.Heat absorbed and trapped by the atmosphere maintains our planet’s average temperature.
- 3.Atmosphere’s gases, like carbon dioxide, are particularly good at absorbing and trapping radiation.
- (a)I and III only
- (b)I and II only
- (c)I, II and III
- (d)II and III only
Answer: (c) I, II and III
Without an atmosphere, Earth would be well below freezing; the atmosphere absorbs and traps heat, and CO2 is especially good at that.
Related: WorldGeo0002 — Climatology: Atmosphere, Weather and Climate
Consider the following statements about the Rashtriya Gokul Mission :
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1.It is important for the upliftment of rural poor as majority of low producing indigenous animals are with small and marginal farmers and landless labourers.
- 2.It was initiated to promote indigenous cattle and buffalo rearing and conservation in a scientific and holistic manner.
- (a)I only
- (b)II only
- (c)Both I and II
- (d)Neither I nor II
Answer: (c) Both I and II
Most low-producing indigenous animals belong to small/marginal farmers and landless labourers; the mission scientifically conserves indigenous breeds.
Consider the following statements :
- Statement I :Studies indicate that carbon dioxide emissions from cement industry account for more than 5% of global carbon emissions.
- Statement II :Silica-bearing clay is mixed with limestone while manufacturing cement.
- Statement III :Limestone is converted into lime during clinker production for cement manufacturing.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a)Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
- (b)Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
- (c)Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
- (d)Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer: (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
Both are true facts about cement manufacturing, but only limestone’s calcination into lime (Statement III) actually releases the CO2 described in Statement I; mixing in silica-bearing clay (Statement II) does not.
Consider the following statements :
- Statement I :At the 28th United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP28), India refrained from signing the ‘Declaration on Climate and Health’.
- Statement II :The COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health is a binding declaration; and if signed, it becomes mandatory to decarbonize health sector.
- Statement III :If India’s health sector is decarbonized, the resilience of its health-care system may be compromised.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a)Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
- (b)Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
- (c)Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
- (d)Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer: (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
India refrained from signing the COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health. The declaration is voluntary and non-binding, so Statement II is false. Statement III is correct — decarbonizing India’s cold-chain-dependent health sector could weaken its resilience, and that is why India held back.
Consider the following statements :
- Statement I :Scientific studies suggest that a shift is taking place in the Earth’s rotation and axis.
- Statement II :Solar flares and associated coronal mass ejections bombarded the Earth’s outermost atmosphere with tremendous amount of energy.
- Statement III :As the Earth’s polar ice melts, the water tends to move towards the equator.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a)Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
- (b)Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
- (c)Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
- (d)Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer: (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
Statement I is true — NASA-funded studies using GRACE satellite data confirm the Earth’s spin axis is drifting and its rotation rate is slowly changing. Statement III is true and explains it: melting polar ice redistributes water toward the equator, shifting Earth’s mass and changing its moment of inertia. Statement II is a true fact on its own, but solar flares and coronal mass ejections are absorbed by the magnetosphere and thermosphere — they affect space weather, not the solid Earth’s rotation axis.
Consider the following statements :
- Statement I :Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change is frequently discussed in global discussions on sustainable development and climate change.
- Statement II :Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change sets out the principles of carbon markets.
- Statement III :Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change intends to promote inter-country non-market strategies to reach their climate targets.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a)Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
- (b)Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
- (c)Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
- (d)Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
Article 6 of the Paris Agreement covers both market and non-market approaches to climate action. Article 6.2 and Article 6.4 set up carbon markets, letting countries trade emission-reduction credits. Article 6.8 separately promotes non-market cooperation, such as technology transfer and capacity building. Both parts explain why Article 6 is so widely discussed.
Which one of the following launched the ‘Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific’?
- (a)The Asian Development Bank (ADB)
- (b)The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)
- (c)The New Development Bank (NDB)
- (d)The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)
Answer: (a) The Asian Development Bank (ADB)
ADB launched the Nature Solutions Finance Hub (NSFH) for Asia and the Pacific in December 2023, at COP28. It aims to mobilise at least $5 billion in public and private finance for nature-based solutions across the region.
With reference to ‘Direct Air Capture’, an emerging technology, which of the following statements is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- 1.It can be used as a way of carbon sequestration.
- 2.It can be a valuable approach for plastic production and in food processing.
- 3.In aviation, it can be a source of carbon for combining with hydrogen to create synthetic low-carbon fuel.
- (a)I and II only
- (b)III only
- (c)I, II and III
- (d)None of the above statements is correct
Answer: (c) I, II and III
All three statements are correct. DAC can be used for carbon sequestration. Captured CO2 is a valuable industrial feedstock for plastic production and food processing. And in aviation, captured CO2 can combine with hydrogen to create synthetic low-carbon fuel.
Regarding Peacock tarantula (Gooty tarantula), consider the following statements :
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1.It is an omnivorous crustacean.
- 2.Its natural habitat in India is only limited to some forest areas.
- 3.In its natural habitat, it is an arboreal species.
- (a)I only
- (b)I and III
- (c)II only
- (d)II and III
Answer: (d) II and III
Statement 1 is false — the Gooty tarantula is a spider (arachnid), not a crustacean. Statement 2 is correct — its natural habitat in India is limited to only a small forest area in Andhra Pradesh. Statement 3 is correct — in its natural habitat it is arboreal.
Consider the following statements :
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1.Carbon dioxide (CO₂) emissions in India are less than 0·5 t CO₂/capita.
- 2.In terms of CO₂ emissions from fuel combustion, India ranks second in Asia-Pacific region.
- 3.Electricity and heat producers are the largest sources of CO₂ emissions in India.
- (a)I and III only
- (b)II only
- (c)II and III only
- (d)I, II and III
Answer: (c) II and III only
Statement 1 is false — India’s per-capita CO2 emissions are roughly 2 tonnes, well above 0.5 t CO2/capita. Statement 2 is correct — India ranks second in the Asia-Pacific region for CO2 emissions from fuel combustion, behind China. Statement 3 is correct — electricity and heat producers are the largest single source of India’s CO2 emissions.
Consider the following pairs :
| Plant | Description |
|---|---|
| I. Cassava | Woody shrub |
| II. Ginger | Herb with pseudostem |
| III. Malabar spinach | Herbaceous climber |
| IV. Mint | Annual shrub |
| V. Papaya | Woody shrub |
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- (a)Only two
- (b)Only three
- (c)Only four
- (d)All the five
Answer: (b) Only three
Cassava (woody shrub), Ginger (herb with pseudostem), and Malabar spinach (herbaceous climber) are correctly matched. Mint is a herbaceous perennial, not an annual shrub. Papaya is a giant herb with a soft, hollow trunk, not a true woody shrub.
With reference to the planet Earth, consider the following statements :
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1.Rain forests produce more oxygen than that produced by oceans.
- 2.Marine phytoplankton and photosynthetic bacteria produce about 50% of world’s oxygen.
- 3.Well-oxygenated surface water contains several folds higher oxygen than that in atmospheric air.
- (a)I and II
- (b)II only
- (c)I and III
- (d)None of the above statements is correct
Answer: (b) II only
Statement 1 is false — rainforests do not produce more oxygen than oceans; a mature rainforest’s net oxygen output is close to zero. Statement 2 is correct — marine phytoplankton and photosynthetic bacteria produce about 50% of world’s oxygen. Statement 3 is false — well-oxygenated surface water holds far LESS oxygen than atmospheric air, not several folds more.
Consider the following types of vehicles :
How many of the above are considered as alternative powertrain vehicles?
- 1.Full battery electric vehicles
- 2.Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles
- 3.Fuel cell-electric hybrid vehicles
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)All the three
- (d)None
Answer: (c) All the three
Full battery electric vehicles, hydrogen fuel cell vehicles, and fuel cell-electric hybrid vehicles are all alternative powertrain vehicles. Each replaces or bypasses the conventional petrol/diesel engine — batteries, an onboard hydrogen fuel cell, or a fuel cell paired with a battery.
With reference to Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), consider the following statements :
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- 1.All types of UAVs can do vertical landing.
- 2.All types of UAVs can do automated hovering.
- 3.All types of UAVs can use battery only as a source of power supply.
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)All the three
- (d)None
Answer: (d) None
Each statement claims all UAVs behave the same way, and none of the three holds. Only rotary-wing and hybrid VTOL UAVs can land vertically or hover; fixed-wing UAVs need forward airspeed and a runway or launch/recovery system. UAVs also don’t run on battery power alone — many long-endurance types use petrol/AVGAS engines, and some use hybrid-electric, solar, or hydrogen fuel-cell power.
In the context of electric vehicle batteries, consider the following elements :
How many of the above usually make up battery cathodes?
- 1.Cobalt
- 2.Graphite
- 3.Lithium
- 4.Nickel
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)Only three
- (d)All the four
Answer: (c) Only three
Lithium, cobalt, and nickel are the metals typically used in EV battery cathodes, as in NMC (nickel-manganese-cobalt) and NCA (nickel-cobalt-aluminium) chemistries. Graphite is the standard anode material, not a cathode component.
Consider the following :
How many of them contain plastic?
- 1.Cigarette butts
- 2.Eyeglass lenses
- 3.Car tyres
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)All the three
- (d)None
Answer: (c) All the three
Cigarette filters are made of cellulose acetate, a plastic. Most modern eyeglass lenses use plastics like CR-39 or polycarbonate. Car tyres contain synthetic rubber, and tyre wear is a major source of microplastic pollution.
Consider the following substances :
Coal gasification technology can be used in the production of how many of them?
- 1.Ethanol
- 2.Nitroglycerine
- 3.Urea
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)All the three
- (d)None
Answer: (b) Only two
Coal gasification converts coal into syngas (carbon monoxide + hydrogen). Syngas can be converted into ethanol, and it can also be converted into ammonia via the Haber-Bosch process, which combines with carbon dioxide to make urea. Nitroglycerine has no connection to coal chemistry — it is made by nitrating glycerol with concentrated nitric and sulfuric acid.
Related: IndEco0123 — Coal Sector in India: From Nationalisation to the Coal Exchange
What is the common characteristic of the chemical substances generally known as CL-20, HMX and LLM-105, which are sometimes talked about in media?
- (a)These are alternatives to hydro-fluorocarbon refrigerants
- (b)These are explosives in military weapons
- (c)These are high-energy fuels for cruise missiles
- (d)These are fuels for rocket propulsion
Answer: (b) These are explosives in military weapons
CL-20, HMX, and LLM-105 are all high-energy explosive compounds developed for military munitions.
Consider the following statements :
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 1.It is expected that Majorana 1 chip will enable quantum computing.
- 2.Majorana 1 chip has been introduced by Amazon Web Services (AWS).
- 3.Deep learning is a subset of machine learning.
- (a)I and II only
- (b)II and III only
- (c)I and III only
- (d)I, II and III
Answer: (c) I and III only
Majorana 1 is expected to enable quantum computing, and deep learning is a subset of machine learning. Statement II is false — Majorana 1 was introduced by Microsoft, not AWS.
With reference to monoclonal antibodies, often mentioned in news, consider the following statements :
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 1.They are man-made proteins.
- 2.They stimulate immunological function due to their ability to bind to specific antigens.
- 3.They are used in treating viral infections like that of Nipah virus.
- (a)I and II only
- (b)II and III only
- (c)I and III only
- (d)I, II and III
Answer: (d) I, II and III
All three statements are correct: monoclonal antibodies are man-made proteins, they stimulate immunological function via specific antigen binding, and they are used in treating viral infections like Nipah virus.
Consider the following statements :
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- 1.No virus can survive in ocean waters.
- 2.No virus can infect bacteria.
- 3.No virus can change the cellular transcriptional activity in host cells.
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)All the three
- (d)None
Answer: (d) None
All three statements are false. Statement 1 is false — marine viruses are the most abundant biological entities in the ocean, with an estimated 1030+ virus particles. Statement 2 is false — bacteriophages are viruses that specifically infect bacteria. Statement 3 is false — many viruses actively alter host transcriptional activity to hijack the cell’s machinery for replication.
Consider the following statements :
- Statement I :Activated carbon is a good and an attractive tool to remove pollutants from effluent streams and to remediate contaminants from various industries.
- Statement II :Activated carbon exhibits a large surface area and a strong potential for adsorbing heavy metals.
- Statement III :Activated carbon can be easily synthesized from environmental wastes with high carbon content.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a)Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
- (b)Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
- (c)Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
- (d)Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
Statement II is correct — activated carbon has a large surface area and strong adsorption potential for heavy metals. Statement III is correct — it can be readily synthesised from carbon-rich environmental wastes. Together they explain Statement I: II explains why activated carbon works well, and III explains why it is cheap and practical (“attractive”) to produce.
With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements :
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 1.An Ordinance can amend any Central Act.
- 2.An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right.
- 3.An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date.
- (a)I and II only
- (b)II and III only
- (c)I and III only
- (d)I, II and III
Answer: (c) I and III only
An Ordinance under Article 123 has the same legal force as an Act of Parliament. It can amend or repeal any Central Act, and can be given retrospective, back-dated effect. But it is subject to the same constitutional limits as an ordinary Act, so it cannot abridge a Fundamental Right.
Related: Polity0244 — Article 123: President’s Ordinance-Making Power
Consider the following pairs :
| State | Description |
|---|---|
| I. Arunachal Pradesh | The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks |
| II. Nagaland | The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act |
| III. Tripura | Initially a Part ‘C’ State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State |
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)All the three
- (d)None
Answer: (c) All the three
Itanagar, Arunachal Pradesh’s capital, is named after Ita Fort, and the state has two National Parks (Namdapha and Mouling). The Constitution (Thirteenth Amendment) Act, 1962 laid the foundation for Nagaland’s statehood alongside the State of Nagaland Act, 1962; Nagaland became India’s 16th state on 1 December 1963. Tripura was a Part ‘C’ State, became a centrally administered Union Territory with the 1956 States Reorganisation, and became a full state in 1972.
Related: ModHist0041 — Nagaland’s Path to Statehood: Insurgency and Negotiation
With reference to India, consider the following :
How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?
- 1.The Inter-State Council
- 2.The National Security Council
- 3.Zonal Councils
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)All the three
- (d)None
Answer: (a) Only one
Only the Inter-State Council has a constitutional basis: Article 263 empowers the President to establish it. The National Security Council was set up by an executive order in 1998, with no constitutional or statutory basis. Zonal Councils are statutory bodies, constituted under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956.
Related: Polity0019 — Centre-State Relations and the Federal Structure
Consider the following statements :
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1.The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion.
- 2.The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned.
- (a)I only
- (b)II only
- (c)Both I and II
- (d)Neither I nor II
Answer: (a) I only
Article 163(1) explicitly says the Governor acts on ministerial advice, except where the Constitution requires him to act in his own discretion. But under Article 200, a bill can only reach the President for consideration if the Governor first reserves and forwards it; the President has no independent power to pull in a State bill the Governor hasn’t reserved.
Consider the following pairs :
| Provision in the Constitution of India | Stated under |
|---|---|
| I. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State | The Directive Principles of the State Policy |
| II. Valuing and preserving of the rich heritage of our composite culture | The Fundamental Duties |
| III. Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories | The Fundamental Rights |
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)All the three
- (d)None
Answer: (c) All the three
Article 50 (Directive Principle) directs separation of judiciary from executive. Article 51A(f) (Fundamental Duty) asks citizens to value and preserve India’s composite culture. Article 24 (Fundamental Right) prohibits employing children below 14 in factories.
Related: Polity0001 — Fundamental Duties of Indian Citizens: A Complete Guide · Polity0085 — Fundamental Rights vs. Fundamental Duties
Consider the following statements : With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1.the State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration
- 2.the Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor
- (a)I only
- (b)II only
- (c)Both I and II
- (d)Neither I nor II
Answer: (d) Neither I nor II
Declaring an area a Scheduled Area doesn’t strip the State of its executive power there; the State continues to administer it, subject to the Fifth Schedule’s special provisions. The Union’s role is limited to giving directions to the State (based on the Governor’s report), not taking over total administration.
Related: IndSoc0042 — Tribal Groups and Welfare in India: PVTGs and Protection
With reference to India, consider the following pairs :
| Organization | Union Ministry |
|---|---|
| I. The National Automotive Board | Ministry of Commerce and Industry |
| II. The Coir Board | Ministry of Heavy Industries |
| III. The National Centre for Trade Information | Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises |
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)All the three
- (d)None
Answer: (d) None
All three pairs are swapped. The National Automotive Board is under Ministry of Heavy Industries, not Commerce and Industry. The Coir Board is under Ministry of MSME, not Heavy Industries. The National Centre for Trade Information is under Ministry of Commerce and Industry, not MSME.
Related: IndEco0257 — National Automotive Board, IndEco0258 — The Coir Board, IndEco0259 — National Centre for Trade Information
Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India :
For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?
- 1.List I—Union List, in the Seventh Schedule
- 2.Extent of the executive power of a State
- 3.Conditions of the Governor’s office
- (a)I and II only
- (b)II and III only
- (c)I and III only
- (d)I, II and III
Answer: (a) I and II only
Under the proviso to Article 368(2), amendments affecting any Seventh Schedule List (statement 1) or the extent of executive power of the Union/State — Articles 73/162 (statement 2) — require ratification by half the State Legislatures. Conditions of the Governor’s office (Article 158) are not in this entrenched list; Parliament alone can amend it by special majority.
With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements :
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 1.The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office.
- 2.No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office.
- 3.Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House.
- (a)I and II only
- (b)II and III only
- (c)I and III only
- (d)I, II and III
Answer: (d) I, II and III
Article 361(1) shields the Governor from being answerable to any court for official powers and duties. Article 361(2) bars criminal proceedings against the Governor during their term. Article 194(2) protects State Legislature members from court proceedings over anything said in the House. All three are correct.
Related: Polity0239 — Article 361: Immunity of President and Governors
Consider the following activities :
How many of the above activities are regulated by the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board in our country?
- 1.Production of crude oil
- 2.Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum
- 3.Marketing and sale of petroleum products
- 4.Production of natural gas
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)Only three
- (d)All the four
Answer: (b) Only two
The PNGRB Act, 2006 mandates the Board to regulate refining, storage, transportation, distribution, marketing and sale of petroleum, petroleum products, and natural gas — the downstream sector. It explicitly excludes production of crude oil and natural gas, the upstream sector. Only statements 2 and 3 fall under PNGRB.
Related: IndEco0117 — Petroleum and Natural Gas Sector in India
Suppose the revenue expenditure is ₹ 80,000 crores and the revenue receipts of the Government are ₹ 60,000 crores. The Government budget also shows borrowings of ₹ 10,000 crores and interest payments of ₹ 6,000 crores. Which of the following statements are correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- 1.Revenue deficit is ₹ 20,000 crores.
- 2.Fiscal deficit is ₹ 10,000 crores.
- 3.Primary deficit is ₹ 4,000 crores.
- (a)I and II only
- (b)II and III only
- (c)I and III only
- (d)I, II and III
Answer: (d) I, II and III
Revenue deficit = 80,000 − 60,000 = ₹20,000cr. Fiscal deficit = total borrowings = ₹10,000cr. Primary deficit = fiscal deficit − interest payments = 10,000 − 6,000 = ₹4,000cr. All three statements are correct.
India is one of the founding members of the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), a multimodal transportation corridor, which will connect
- (a)India to Central Asia to Europe via Iran
- (b)India to Central Asia via China
- (c)India to South-East Asia through Bangladesh and Myanmar
- (d)India to Europe through Azerbaijan
Answer: (a) India to Central Asia to Europe via Iran
The INSTC links India to Iran, then across the Caspian Sea to Russia and onward into Europe, effectively connecting India to Central Asia and Europe via Iran. India, Iran, and Russia are its founding members.
Related: IntlRel0091 — The International North-South Transport Corridor
Consider the following statements :
- Statement I :Of the two major ethanol producers in the world, i.e., Brazil and the United States of America, the former produces more ethanol than the latter.
- Statement II :Unlike in the United States of America where corn is the principal feedstock for ethanol production, sugarcane is the principal feedstock for ethanol production in Brazil.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a)Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
- (b)Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
- (c)Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
- (d)Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Answer: (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
The United States, not Brazil, is the world’s largest ethanol producer. Statement II is correct: the US uses corn as its principal feedstock, while Brazil relies on sugarcane.
Related: IndEco0151 — Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) Programme in India
The World Bank warned that India could become one of the first places where wet-bulb temperatures routinely exceed 35 °C. Which of the following statements best reflect(s) the implication of the above-said report?
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- 1.Peninsular India will most likely suffer from flooding, tropical cyclones and droughts.
- 2.The survival of animals including humans will be affected as shedding of their body heat through perspiration becomes difficult.
- (a)I only
- (b)II only
- (c)Both I and II
- (d)Neither I nor II
Answer: (b) II only
The implication of wet-bulb temperatures crossing 35°C is physiological: perspiration-based cooling fails for humans and animals. Statement 1 (flooding, cyclones, droughts) is a separate set of climate hazards, not the direct implication of this specific finding.
Related: EnvEco0065 — Wet-Bulb Temperature
A country’s fiscal deficit stands at ₹ 50,000 crores. It is receiving ₹ 10,000 crores through non-debt creating capital receipts. The country’s interest liabilities are ₹ 1,500 crores. What is the gross primary deficit?
- (a)₹ 48,500 crores
- (b)₹ 51,500 crores
- (c)₹ 58,500 crores
- (d)None of the above
Answer: (a) ₹48,500 crores
Primary deficit = Fiscal deficit − Interest payments = 50,000 − 1,500 = ₹48,500 crores. The ₹10,000 crore non-debt capital receipts figure is a distractor; it’s already netted into the fiscal deficit figure.
Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- 1.It has recommended grants of ₹ 4,800 crores from the year 2022–23 to the year 2025–26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes.
- 2.45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States.
- 3.₹ 45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms.
- 4.It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance.
- (a)I, II and III
- (b)I, II and IV
- (c)I, III and IV
- (d)II, III and IV
Answer: (c) I, III and IV
Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the 15th FC set vertical devolution at 41% of net tax proceeds, not 45%.
Consider the following statements in respect of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) :
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 1.It provides loans and guarantees to middle income countries.
- 2.It works single-handedly to help developing countries to reduce poverty.
- 3.It was established to help Europe rebuild after the World War II.
- (a)I and II only
- (b)II and III only
- (c)I and III only
- (d)I, II and III
Answer: (c) I and III only
The IBRD does lend to middle-income countries and was established to help Europe rebuild after WWII. Statement 2 is wrong: it doesn’t work single-handedly, it’s the founding member of the five-institution World Bank Group.
Related: IntlRel0092 — The IBRD
Consider the following statements in respect of RTGS and NEFT :
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1.In RTGS, the settlement time is instantaneous while in case of NEFT, it takes some time to settle payments.
- 2.In RTGS, the customer is charged for inward transactions while that is not the case for NEFT.
- 3.Operating hours for RTGS are restricted on certain days while this is not true for NEFT.
- (a)I only
- (b)I and II
- (c)I and III
- (d)III only
Answer: (a) I only
Statement 1 is correct: RTGS settles instantly, NEFT in batches. Statements 2 and 3 are outdated: both systems are now free for inward transactions and both run 24×7 since 2019-20.
Related: IndEco0260 — RTGS and NEFT
Consider the following countries :
How many countries amongst the above are there other than India where international merchant payments are accepted under UPI?
- 1.United Arab Emirates
- 2.France
- 3.Germany
- 4.Singapore
- 5.Bangladesh
- (a)Only two
- (b)Only three
- (c)Only four
- (d)All the five
Answer: (b) Only three
UPI merchant payments are accepted (other than India) in UAE, France, and Singapore from this list — not Germany or Bangladesh.
Related: IndEco0133 — NPCI and UPI
Consider the following statements about ‘PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana’ :
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 1.It targets installation of one crore solar rooftop panels in the residential sector.
- 2.The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy aims to impart training on installation, operation, maintenance and repairs of solar rooftop systems at grassroot levels.
- 3.It aims to create more than three lakhs skilled manpower through fresh skilling, and up-skilling, under scheme component of capacity building.
- (a)I and II only
- (b)I and III only
- (c)II and III only
- (d)I, II and III
Answer: (d) I, II and III
All three are genuine components of PM Surya Ghar: the one-crore household target, MNRE’s grassroot-level training, and the 3-lakh-plus skilled-manpower capacity-building goal.
“Sedition has become my religion” was the famous statement given by Gandhiji at the time of
- (a)the Champaran Satyagraha
- (b)publicly violating Salt Law at Dandi
- (c)attending the Second Round Table Conference in London
- (d)the launch of the Quit India Movement
Answer: (b) publicly violating Salt Law at Dandi
Gandhi made this statement around the Salt Satyagraha, declaring British rule a curse to be resisted through non-violent defiance, which he called “sedition.” It was tied to his public violation of the Salt Law at Dandi on 6 April 1930, not Champaran (1917), the Round Table Conference (1931), or Quit India (1942).
Related: ModHist0063 — Civil Disobedience and the Salt March
The famous female figurine known as ‘Dancing Girl’, found at Mohenjo-daro, is made of
- (a)carnelian
- (b)clay
- (c)bronze
- (d)gold
Answer: (c) bronze
The Dancing Girl is a bronze figurine, about 10.5 cm tall, made using the lost-wax casting technique around 2300-1750 BCE. Excavated at Mohenjo-daro in 1926 by Ernest Mackay, it is now in the National Museum, New Delhi, and is regarded as evidence of the Indus Valley Civilisation’s advanced metallurgical skill.
Related: AncHist0028 — Mohenjodaro
Who provided legal defence to the people arrested in the aftermath of Chauri Chaura incident?
- (a)C. R. Das
- (b)Madan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant
- (c)Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlew and Khwaja Hasan Nizami
- (d)M. A. Jinnah
Answer: (b) Madan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant
After the Gorakhpur Sessions Court sentenced 172 of the 225 accused to death, Madan Mohan Malaviya returned to legal practice, together with Krishna Kant Malaviya, to appeal the case before the Allahabad High Court in 1923. Their defence reduced the confirmed death sentences to 19, saving 151 people from the gallows.
Subsequent to which one of the following events, Gandhiji, who consistently opposed untouchability and appealed for its eradication from all spheres, decided to include the upliftment of ‘Harijans’ in his political and social programme?
- (a)The Poona Pact
- (b)The Gandhi-Irwin Agreement (Delhi Pact)
- (c)Arrest of Congress leadership at the time of the Quit India Movement
- (d)Promulgation of the Government of India Act, 1935
Answer: (a) The Poona Pact
The Communal Award (16 August 1932) granted separate electorates to the Depressed Classes. Gandhi opposed this and began a fast unto death at Yerwada Jail. The resulting Poona Pact (24 September 1932) replaced separate electorates with reserved seats in a joint electorate. Days later, Gandhi founded the Harijan Sevak Sangh, making anti-untouchability work a core part of his programme.
Related: ModHist0326 — The Poona Pact, 1932
Consider the following fruits :
How many of the above were introduced in India by the Portuguese in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries?
- 1.Papaya
- 2.Pineapple
- 3.Guava
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)All the three
- (d)None
Answer: (c) All the three
Papaya, pineapple, and guava are all native to the Americas. The Portuguese brought them to India via Goa in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries, part of the wider Columbian Exchange that also carried chilli, potato, maize, and tobacco into India.
Consider the following countries :
How many of the above countries have more than four time zones?
- 1.United Kingdom
- 2.Denmark
- 3.New Zealand
- 4.Australia
- 5.Brazil
- (a)All the five
- (b)Only four
- (c)Only three
- (d)Only two
Answer: (b) Only four
The United Kingdom, Denmark, New Zealand, and Australia each have more than four time zones once their overseas and outlying territories are counted. Brazil has exactly four standard time zones, from Fernando de Noronha to Acre, so it does not qualify.
Related: WorldGeo0035 — Why Countries Have Different Numbers of Time Zones
Consider the following statements :
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1.Anadyr in Siberia and Nome in Alaska are a few kilometers from each other, but when people are waking up and getting set for breakfast in these cities, it would be different days.
- 2.When it is Monday in Anadyr, it is Tuesday in Nome.
- (a)I only
- (b)II only
- (c)Both I and II
- (d)Neither I nor II
Answer: (a) I only
Anadyr (Russia, UTC+12) and Nome (Alaska, UTC-9) sit only about 800 km apart across the Bering Strait, but the International Date Line runs between them, so Statement 1 is correct. Anadyr is about 21 hours ahead of Nome, so when it is Monday in Anadyr, it is still Sunday in Nome, not Tuesday, making Statement 2 wrong.
Who among the following was the founder of the ‘Self-Respect Movement’?
- (a)‘Periyar’ E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker
- (b)Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
- (c)Bhaskarrao Jadhav
- (d)Dinkarrao Javalkar
Answer: (a) ‘Periyar’ E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker
Periyar E.V. Ramasamy founded the Self-Respect Movement in 1925 in Tamil Nadu, after leaving the Indian National Congress. The movement promoted social equality, rationalism, and an end to caste discrimination, and is considered the origin of the Dravidian movement.
Related: ModHist0251 — Periyar E.V. Ramasamy
Consider the following pairs :
| Country | Resource-rich in |
|---|---|
| I. Botswana | Diamond |
| II. Chile | Lithium |
| III. Indonesia | Nickel |
In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)All the three
- (d)None
Answer: (c) All the three
Botswana is the world’s largest diamond producer by value. Chile holds the world’s largest lithium reserves, extracted mainly from the Atacama salt flats. Indonesia is the world’s largest nickel producer.
Consider the following pairs :
| Region | Country |
|---|---|
| I. Mallorca | Italy |
| II. Normandy | Spain |
| III. Sardinia | France |
In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)All the three
- (d)None
Answer: (d) None
Mallorca belongs to Spain’s Balearic Islands, not Italy. Normandy is a region of northern France, not Spain. Sardinia is an autonomous region of Italy, not France. All three pairs swap the true country.
Related: WorldGeo0038 — European Regions and Their Countries
Consider the following statements :
- Statement I :Some rare earth elements are used in the manufacture of flat television screens and computer monitors.
- Statement II :Some rare earth elements have phosphorescent properties.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a)Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
- (b)Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
- (c)Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
- (d)Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Answer: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
Rare earth elements such as europium, terbium, and yttrium are phosphorescent — they glow brightly when electrically excited. That property is exactly why they are used as phosphors in flat-screen TVs and computer monitors, so Statement II genuinely explains Statement I.
Related: SciTech0148 — Rare Earth Elements · View this question →
Consider the following statements :
Which of the statements given above are not correct?
- 1.Indian Railways have prepared a National Rail Plan (NRP) to create a ‘future ready’ railway system by 2028.
- 2.‘Kavach’ is an Automatic Train Protection system developed in collaboration with Germany.
- 3.‘Kavach’ system consists of RFID tags fitted on track in station section.
- (a)I and II only
- (b)II and III only
- (c)I and III only
- (d)I, II and III
Answer: (a) I and II only
The National Rail Plan (NRP) targets a ‘future ready’ railway system by 2030, not 2028, so Statement I is not correct. Kavach was developed indigenously by RDSO with Indian firms, not in collaboration with Germany, so Statement II is not correct. Statement III is correct: Kavach uses RFID tags fitted on the track, especially in station sections.
Related: SciTech0047 — Kavach: India’s Automatic Train Protection System · View this question →
Consider the following space missions :
How many of the space missions given above encourage and support micro-gravity research?
- 1.Axiom-4
- 2.SpaDeX
- 3.Gaganyaan
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)All the three
- (d)None
Answer: (b) Only two
Axiom-4, the June 2025 private crewed mission to the ISS that carried India’s Shubhanshu Shukla, ran about seven ISRO-designed microgravity experiments. Gaganyaan’s crew module is built to carry microgravity experiments in biology, physical science, and space medicine once it flies crewed. SpaDeX itself is a pure autonomous-docking technology demonstration — its microgravity payloads flew on POEM-4, a separate orbital platform on the same PSLV-C60 launch, not part of SpaDeX itself.
Related: SciTech0056 — Gaganyaan Mission · View this question →
With reference to India’s defence, consider the following pairs :
| Aircraft type | Description |
|---|---|
| I. Dornier-228 | Maritime patrol aircraft |
| II. IL-76 | Supersonic combat aircraft |
| III. C-17 Globemaster III | Military transport aircraft |
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)All the three
- (d)None
Answer: (b) Only two
The Dornier-228 is the Indian Coast Guard’s maritime patrol aircraft, so pair I is correct. The C-17 Globemaster III is the IAF’s strategic military transport aircraft, so pair III is correct too. The IL-76 is a heavy military transport aircraft, not a supersonic combat aircraft, so pair II is wrong.
Related: SciTech0149 — Indian Military Transport and Maritime Patrol Aircraft · View this question →
Artificial way of causing rainfall to reduce air pollution makes use of
- (a)silver iodide and potassium iodide
- (b)silver nitrate and potassium iodide
- (c)silver iodide and potassium nitrate
- (d)silver nitrate and potassium chloride
Answer: (a) silver iodide and potassium iodide
Silver iodide is the primary ice-nucleating agent; potassium iodide is a supplementary seeding agent. Real Delhi field trials (2023-2025) have often used silver iodide with sodium chloride flares instead, but this is UPSC’s own 2025 answer key.
Related: SciTech0150 — Cloud Seeding: How Artificial Rain Is Used to Fight Air Pollution
Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India :
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1.The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review.
- 2.The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government.
- (a)I only
- (b)II only
- (c)Both I and II
- (d)Neither I nor II
Answer: (a) I only
Statement 1 is correct: in Kehar Singh v. Union of India (1989), the Supreme Court held the President’s Article 72 pardoning power falls within limited judicial review, reaffirmed in Epuru Sudhakar v. Government of Andhra Pradesh (2006). Statement 2 is not correct: the President exercises this power on the advice of the Council of Ministers under Article 74, like other executive functions, not independently.
Related: Polity0047 — The President of India · View this question →
Consider the following statements :
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 1.On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution.
- 2.According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately.
- 3.The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days’ notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.
- (a)I and II only
- (b)II and III only
- (c)I and III only
- (d)I, II and III
Answer: (c) I and III only
Statement 1 is correct: Article 95(2) provides the Speaker shall not vacate office until immediately before the first meeting of the House after dissolution. Statement 2 is not correct: the Constitution does not require a newly elected Speaker to resign from their political party. Statement 3 is correct: under Article 94(c), the Speaker may be removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the House, provided at least fourteen days’ notice of the intention to move the resolution has been given.
Related: Polity0253 — Article 93: The Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha · View this question →
Consider the following statements :
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1.If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the President’s decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final.
- 2.There is no mention of the word ‘political party’ in the Constitution of India.
- (a)I only
- (b)II only
- (c)Both I and II
- (d)Neither I nor II
Answer: (d) Neither I nor II
Statement 1 is false — under the Tenth Schedule, it is the Speaker or Chairman of the House whose decision on a disqualification question is final, not the President. Statement 2 is false — the term “political party” does appear in the Constitution, directly in the Tenth Schedule.
Consider the following statements :
- Statement I :In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories.
- Statement II :In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a)Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
- (b)Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
- (c)Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
- (d)Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Answer: (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Statement I is false — State Governments do have power under Section 15 of the MMDR Act, 1957 to make rules for minor-mineral concessions within their territory. Statement II is correct — the Central Government has the power to notify which minerals are classified as minor minerals.
Which organization has enacted the Nature Restoration Law (NRL) to tackle climate change and biodiversity loss?
- (a)The European Union
- (b)The World Bank
- (c)The Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development
- (d)The Food and Agriculture Organization
Answer: (a) The European Union
The EU’s Nature Restoration Law (Regulation (EU) 2024/1991) was adopted in June 2024 and entered into force on 18 August 2024. It requires member states to restore at least 20% of the EU’s degraded land and sea areas by 2030, and all ecosystems needing restoration by 2050.
Consider the following statements :
Which of the statements given above are not correct?
- 1.Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States.
- 2.To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years.
- 3.The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position of Panchayats at the intermediate levels and to make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes and duties, leviable by the State, between the State and Panchayats at the intermediate level.
- (a)I and II only
- (b)II and III only
- (c)I and III only
- (d)I, II and III
Answer: (d) I, II and III
All three are incorrect. States with population under 20 lakh need not set up intermediate-level Panchayats (Article 243B). The minimum age for a Panchayat member is 21, not 30 (Article 243F). The Governor, not the Chief Minister, constitutes the State Finance Commission (Article 243-I).
Consider the following statements in respect of BIMSTEC :
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1.It is a regional organization consisting of seven member States till January 2025.
- 2.It came into existence with the signing of the Dhaka Declaration, 1999.
- 3.Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, Thailand and Nepal are founding member States of BIMSTEC.
- 4.In BIMSTEC, the subsector of ‘tourism’ is being led by India.
- (a)I and II
- (b)II and III
- (c)I and IV
- (d)I only
Answer: (d) I only
BIMSTEC has 7 members. It was founded via the Bangkok Declaration in 1997, not a “Dhaka Declaration” in 1999. Founding members were Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, Thailand, and (later that year) Myanmar — not Nepal, which joined in 2004. Tourism falls under Nepal’s People-to-People Contact sector, not India’s.
Related: IntlRel0078 — BIMSTEC
Who amongst the following are members of the Jury to select the recipient of ‘Gandhi Peace Prize’?
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- 1.The President of India
- 2.The Prime Minister of India
- 3.The Chief Justice of India
- 4.The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha
- (a)II and IV only
- (b)I, II and III
- (c)II, III and IV
- (d)I and III only
Answer: (c) II, III and IV
The Gandhi Peace Prize jury consists of the Prime Minister of India (chair), the Chief Justice of India, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, and two other eminent persons. The President of India is not a member.
Related: Polity0343 — The Gandhi Peace Prize
GPS-Aided Geo Augmented Navigation (GAGAN) uses a system of ground stations to provide necessary augmentation. Which of the following statements is/are correct in respect of GAGAN?
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- 1.It is designed to provide additional accuracy and integrity.
- 2.It will allow more uniform and high quality air traffic management.
- 3.It will provide benefits only in aviation but not in other modes of transportation.
- (a)I, II and III
- (b)II and III only
- (c)I only
- (d)I and II only
Answer: (d) I and II only
GAGAN provides additional accuracy and integrity, and enables more uniform, high-quality air traffic management, per AAI’s official description. But it is not aviation-only — GAGAN also benefits maritime navigation, road transport, and railways.
Related: SciTech0071 — GAGAN: India’s Satellite-Based Augmentation System
Consider the following statements regarding AI Action Summit held in Grand Palais, Paris in February 2025 :
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1.Co-chaired with India, the event builds on the advances made at the Bletchley Park Summit held in 2023 and the Seoul Summit held in 2024.
- 2.Along with other countries, US and UK also signed the declaration on inclusive and sustainable AI.
- (a)I only
- (b)II only
- (c)Both I and II
- (d)Neither I nor II
Answer: (a) I only
France and India co-chaired the Paris AI Action Summit, which built on the 2023 Bletchley Park Summit (UK) and the 2024 Seoul Summit. But the US and UK refused to sign the declaration on inclusive and sustainable AI, even though 61 other countries, including India, signed it.
Consider the following pairs :
| I. International Year of the Woman Farmer | 2026 | |
| II. International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism | 2027 | |
| III. International Year of Peace and Trust | 2025 | |
| IV. International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence | 2029 |
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)Only three
- (d)All the four
Answer: (d) All the four
All four pairs are correctly matched per UN General Assembly designations: International Year of the Woman Farmer (2026), International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism (2027), International Year of Peace and Trust (2025), and International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence (2029).
Consider the following statements with regard to BRICS :
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1.16th BRICS Summit was held under the Chairship of Russia in Kazan.
- 2.Indonesia has become a full member of BRICS.
- 3.The theme of the 16th BRICS Summit was Strengthening Multiculturalism for Just Global Development and Security.
- (a)I and II
- (b)II and III
- (c)I and III
- (d)I only
Answer: (a) I and II
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The 16th BRICS Summit was held under Russia’s Chairship in Kazan (October 2024). Indonesia became a full member of BRICS in January 2025. Statement 3 is incorrect — the theme was “Strengthening Multilateralism for Just Global Development and Security,” not “Multiculturalism.”
Consider the following statements about Lokpal :
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1.The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India.
- 2.The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson.
- 3.The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be.
- 4.Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of India.
- (a)III only
- (b)II and III
- (c)I and IV
- (d)None of the above statements is correct
Answer: (a) III only
Only Statement III is correct. Lokpal jurisdiction extends to public servants outside India too (I is false). The Chairperson can be the Chief Justice of India, a Supreme Court Judge, or an eminent person — not exclusively the CJI (II is false). The 45-year minimum age is correct (III). Lokpal CAN inquire into corruption allegations against a sitting PM, with specific carve-outs like international relations/security (IV is false).
Related: Polity0305 — Lokpal: India’s Anti-Corruption Ombudsman
Consider the following statements in respect of the first Kho Kho World Cup :
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1.The event was held in Delhi, India.
- 2.Indian men beat Nepal with a score of 78-40 in the final to become the World Champion in men category.
- 3.Indian women beat Nepal with a score of 54-36 in the final to become the World Champion in women category.
- (a)I only
- (b)II and III only
- (c)I and III only
- (d)I, II and III
Answer: (a) I only
Only Statement I is correct — the event was held in New Delhi. Statements II and III have the scores swapped: India’s men beat Nepal 54-36 (not 78-40), and India’s women beat Nepal 78-40 (not 54-36).
Consider the following statements :
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1.In the finals of the 45th Chess Olympiad held in 2024, Gukesh Dommaraju became the world’s youngest winner after defeating the Russian player Ian Nepomniachtchi.
- 2.Abhimanyu Mishra, an American chess player, holds the record of becoming world’s youngest ever Grandmaster.
- (a)I only
- (b)II only
- (c)Both I and II
- (d)Neither I nor II
Answer: (b) II only
Statement 1 is false — Gukesh became the youngest-ever undisputed World Chess Champion by defeating Ding Liren of China in the 2024 World Chess Championship match, not at the Chess Olympiad and not against Ian Nepomniachtchi. Statement 2 is correct — Abhimanyu Mishra, an American player, holds the record for youngest-ever Grandmaster.
English-language questions transcribed from the official Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination, 2025 question booklet (LVPK-O-PSO), General Studies Paper I. Hindi text omitted. Answer key not included.
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