General Studies — Paper I
Consider the following statements :
- Statement-I :The atmosphere is heated more by incoming solar radiation than by terrestrial radiation.
- Statement-II :Carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases in the atmosphere are good absorbers of long wave radiation.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- (b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- (c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- (d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (d) Statement-I incorrect, Statement-II correct
Most solar radiation passes through the atmosphere untouched; it’s the ground’s re-emitted long-wave radiation, absorbed well by CO2, that heats the atmosphere.
Related: WorldGeo0002 — Climatology: Atmosphere, Weather and Climate
Consider the following statements :
- Statement-I :Thickness of the troposphere at the equator is much greater as compared to poles.
- Statement-II :At the equator, heat is transported to great heights by strong convectional currents.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- (b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- (c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- (d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (a) Both correct, II explains I
Troposphere is ~18km at equator vs ~8km at poles, because strong equatorial convection carries heat higher.
Related: WorldGeo0002 — Climatology: Atmosphere, Weather and Climate
Consider the following :
How many of the above are products of volcanic eruptions?
- 1.Pyroclastic debris
- 2.Ash and dust
- 3.Nitrogen compounds
- 4.Sulphur compounds
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)Only three
- (d)All four
Answer: (d) All four
Volcanic eruptions release pyroclastic debris, ash/dust, and gases including sulphur and nitrogen compounds.
Related: WorldGeo0006 — Earthquakes, Tsunamis and Volcanic Activity
Which of the following is/are correct inference/inferences from isothermal maps in the month of January?
Select the answer using the code given below :
- 1.The isotherms deviate to the north over the ocean and to the south over the continent.
- 2.The presence of cold ocean currents, Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift make the North Atlantic Ocean colder and the isotherms bend towards the north.
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Statement 1 correct; the Gulf Stream/North Atlantic Drift are warm, not cold currents, so Statement 2 is wrong.
Related: WorldGeo0002 — Climatology: Atmosphere, Weather and Climate
Which of the following countries are well known as the two largest cocoa producers in the world?
- (a)Algeria and Morocco
- (b)Botswana and Namibia
- (c)Côte d’Ivoire and Ghana
- (d)Madagascar and Mozambique
Answer: (c) Côte d’Ivoire and Ghana
Together they supply roughly 49% of the world’s cocoa.
Related: WorldGeo0029 — World Cocoa Producers
With reference to the Himalayan rivers joining the Ganga downstream of Prayagraj from West to East, which one of the following sequences is correct?
- (a)Ghaghara – Gomati – Gandak – Kosi
- (b)Gomati – Ghaghara – Gandak – Kosi
- (c)Ghaghara – Gomati – Kosi – Gandak
- (d)Gomati – Ghaghara – Kosi – Gandak
Answer: (b) Gomati – Ghaghara – Gandak – Kosi
Moving downstream from Prayagraj, the Gomati joins near Ghazipur first, then the Ghaghara in Bihar, then the Gandak near Patna, and finally the Kosi, the easternmost of the four, near Kursela.
Related: IndGeo0119 — The Ganga River.
Consider the following statements :
- Statement-I :Rainfall is one of the reasons for weathering of rocks.
- Statement-II :Rain water contains carbon dioxide in solution.
- Statement-III :Rain water contains atmospheric oxygen.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a)Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I
- (b)Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct, but only one of them explains Statement-I
- (c)Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement-I
- (d)Neither Statement-II nor Statement-III is correct
Answer: (a) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I
Rainwater dissolves atmospheric carbon dioxide, forming weak carbonic acid, which drives carbonation. It also carries dissolved atmospheric oxygen, which drives oxidation of rock minerals. Both are genuine chemical weathering mechanisms, so both statements are correct and both explain Statement-I.
Related: WorldGeo0001 — Geomorphology: Earth’s Structure and Landforms.
Consider the following countries :
How many of the above countries have a border with the North Sea?
- 1.Finland
- 2.Germany
- 3.Norway
- 4.Russia
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)Only three
- (d)All four
Answer: (b) Only two
Germany and Norway both have coastlines on the North Sea. Finland borders the Baltic Sea and Gulf of Finland, and Russia’s European coast touches the Baltic Sea and the Arctic Ocean — neither borders the North Sea.
Related: WorldGeo0030 — The North Sea.
Consider the following information :
| Waterfall | Region | River | |
|---|---|---|---|
| 1. | Dhuandhar | Malwa | Narmada |
| 2. | Hundru | Chota Nagpur | Subarnarekha |
| 3. | Gersoppa | Western Ghats | Netravati |
In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)All three
- (d)None
Answer: (a) Only one
Only row 2 is correct: Hundru Falls sits on the Subarnarekha River in the Chota Nagpur region. Dhuandhar sits on the Narmada, but at Jabalpur, in the Mahakoshal region, not Malwa. Gersoppa (Jog) Falls sits on the Sharavathi River, not the Netravati.
Related: IndGeo0056 — Major Waterfalls of India.
Consider the following information :
| Region | Name of the mountain range | Type of mountain | |
|---|---|---|---|
| 1. | Central Asia | Vosges | Fold mountain |
| 2. | Europe | Alps | Block mountain |
| 3. | North America | Appalachians | Fold mountain |
| 4. | South America | Andes | Fold mountain |
In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)Only three
- (d)All four
Answer: (b) Only two
The Appalachians and the Andes are correctly matched as fold mountains. The Vosges are wrongly placed in Central Asia (they are in Europe) and are a block mountain, not a fold mountain. The Alps are a fold mountain, not a block mountain.
Related: WorldGeo0031 — Types of Mountains (Fold, Block, and Volcanic).
Consider the following airports :
In the recent past, which of the above have been constructed as Greenfield projects?
- 1.Donyi Polo Airport
- 2.Kushinagar International Airport
- 3.Vijayawada International Airport
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)1 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Donyi Polo and Kushinagar were built from scratch (Greenfield); Vijayawada was upgraded from an existing airport (Brownfield).
Related: Polity0140 — Indian Civil Aviation: DGCA, AAI, and NCAP 2016
With reference to “water vapour”, which of the following statements is/are correct?
Select the answer using the code given below :
- 1.It is a gas, the amount of which decreases with altitude.
- 2.Its percentage is maximum at the poles.
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Water vapour decreases with altitude; its percentage is highest near the equator, not the poles.
Related: WorldGeo0002 — Climatology: Atmosphere, Weather and Climate
Consider the following description :
What is this type of climate?
- 1.Annual and daily range of temperatures is low.
- 2.Precipitation occurs throughout the year.
- 3.Precipitation varies between 50 cm – 250 cm.
- (a)Equatorial climate
- (b)China type climate
- (c)Humid subtropical climate
- (d)Marine West coast climate
Answer: (d) Marine West coast climate
Ocean proximity moderates temperature swings, and westerly winds bring rain year-round.
Related: WorldGeo0002 — Climatology: Atmosphere, Weather and Climate
With reference to “Coriolis force”, which of the following statements is/are correct?
Select the answer using the code given below :
- 1.It increases with increase in wind velocity.
- 2.It is maximum at the poles and is absent at the equator.
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
The Coriolis force grows with velocity and is strongest at the poles, absent at the equator.
Related: WorldGeo0002 — Climatology: Atmosphere, Weather and Climate
On June 21 every year, which of the following latitude(s) experience(s) a sunlight of more than 12 hours?
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
- 1.Equator
- 2.Tropic of Cancer
- 3.Tropic of Capricorn
- 4.Arctic Circle
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)3 and 4
- (d)2 and 4
Answer: (d) 2 and 4
Tropic of Cancer gets ~13.5 hours, Arctic Circle gets 24 hours; equator stays at 12, Tropic of Capricorn gets under 12.
Related: WorldGeo0002 — Climatology: Atmosphere, Weather and Climate
One of the following regions has the world’s largest tropical peatland, which holds about three years worth of global carbon emissions from fossil fuels; and the possible destruction of which can exert detrimental effect on the global climate. Which one of the following denotes that region?
- (a)Amazon Basin
- (b)Congo Basin
- (c)Kikori Basin
- (d)Rio de la Plata Basin
Answer: (b) Congo Basin
The Cuvette Centrale, in the central Congo Basin, is the world’s largest tropical peatland complex, storing about 30 billion tonnes of carbon — roughly three years of global fossil-fuel emissions.
Related: EnvEco0060 — The Congo Basin Peatlands (Cuvette Centrale).
With reference to perfluoroalkyl and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) that are used in making many consumer products, consider the following statements :
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 1.PFAS are found to be widespread in drinking water, food and food packaging materials.
- 2.PFAS are not easily degraded in the environment.
- 3.Persistent exposure to PFAS can lead to bioaccumulation in animal bodies.
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)1 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
All three statements are correct. PFAS are widespread in drinking water, food, and packaging materials, resist environmental degradation due to their strong carbon-fluorine bond, and bioaccumulate in animal tissue with persistent exposure.
Consider the following :
Parasitoid species are found in how many of the above kind of organisms?
- 1.Carabid beetles
- 2.Centipedes
- 3.Flies
- 4.Termites
- 5.Wasps
- (a)Only two
- (b)Only three
- (c)Only four
- (d)All five
Answer: (b) Only three
Carabid beetles, flies, and wasps all include genuine parasitoid species. Centipedes are predators, not parasitoids, and termites have no known parasitoid species.
Related: EnvEco0062 — Parasitoid Species.
Consider the following plants :
How many of the above belong to the pea family?
- 1.Groundnut
- 2.Horse-gram
- 3.Soybean
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)All three
- (d)None
Answer: (c) All three
Groundnut (Arachis hypogaea), horse-gram (Macrotyloma uniflorum), and soybean (Glycine max) all genuinely belong to Fabaceae, the pea family, despite looking very different as food crops.
Related: GenSci0039 — The Pea Family (Fabaceae).
Consider the following statements :
- Statement-I :The Indian Flying Fox is placed under the “vermin” category in the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.
- Statement-II :The Indian Flying Fox feeds on the blood of other animals.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- (b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- (c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- (d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
The Indian Flying Fox was once placed under the vermin category. It is a frugivore, feeding on fruit, nectar, and flowers, not blood — blood-feeding is a vampire-bat trait, and vampire bats do not occur in India.
Related: EnvEco0063 — The Indian Flying Fox and the WPA 1972 Schedules.
The organisms “Cicada, Froghopper and Pond skater” are :
- (a)Birds
- (b)Fish
- (c)Insects
- (d)Reptiles
Answer: (c) Insects
All three belong to the insect order Hemiptera.
Related: EnvEco0001 — Pollution, Ecosystems and Biodiversity
Consider the following statements :
- Statement-I :Many chewing gums found in the market are considered a source of environmental pollution.
- Statement-II :Many chewing gums contain plastic as gum base.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- (b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- (c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- (d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (a) Both correct, II explains I
Many chewing gums use a plastic gum base, which doesn’t biodegrade — causing pollution.
Consider the following pairs :
| Country | Animal found in its natural habitat | |
|---|---|---|
| 1. | Brazil | Indri |
| 2. | Indonesia | Elk |
| 3. | Madagascar | Bonobo |
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)All three
- (d)None
Answer: (d) None
Indri is Madagascar-only, Elk is not in Indonesia, Bonobo lives only in the DRC. All three pairs are wrong.
Related: EnvEco0001 — Pollution, Ecosystems and Biodiversity
Consider the following statements regarding World Toilet Organization :
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1.It is one of the agencies of the United Nations.
- 2.World Toilet Summit, World Toilet Day and World Toilet College are the initiatives of this organization, to inspire action to tackle the global sanitation crisis.
- 3.The main focus of its function is to grant funds to the least developed countries and developing countries to achieve the end of open defecation.
- (a)2 only
- (b)3 only
- (c)1 and 2
- (d)2 and 3
Answer: (a) 2 only
WTO is not a UN agency; it does run the Summit/Day/College initiatives; funding LDCs isn’t its main role.
Related: IndSoc0018 — PMAY (Urban) and Swachh Bharat Mission (Urban)
Consider the following statements :
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 1.Lions do not have a particular breeding season.
- 2.Unlike most other big cats, cheetahs do not roar.
- 3.Unlike male lions, male leopards do not proclaim their territory by scent marking.
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)1 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Lions breed year-round; cheetahs can’t roar. Male leopards DO scent-mark like lions, so 3 is wrong.
Related: EnvEco0014 — Wildlife in India
Which one of the following is the correct description of “100 Million Farmers”?
- (a)It is a platform for accelerating the transition towards food and water systems that are net-zero (carbon), nature-positive and that aims to increase farmer resilience.
- (b)It is an international alliance and a network of individuals and farming organisations interested in supporting and strengthening the development of the organic animal husbandry.
- (c)It is a digital platform fully integrated with service providers and built on blockchain that lets buyers, sellers and third parties trade fertilizers quickly and securely.
- (d)It is a platform with the mission of encouraging the farmers to form Farmer Product Organisations or Agribusiness Consortiums, thus facilitating the access to global open markets to sell their products.
Answer: (a)
It’s a WEF platform accelerating the transition to net-zero, nature-positive food and water systems.
Consider the following :
How many of the above are considered “Distributed Energy Resources”?
- 1.Battery storage
- 2.Biomass generators
- 3.Fuel cells
- 4.Rooftop solar photovoltaic units
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)Only three
- (d)All four
Answer: (d) All four
Battery storage, biomass generators, fuel cells, and rooftop solar are all Distributed Energy Resources.
Which one of the following shows a unique relationship with an insect that has coevolved with it and that is the only insect that can pollinate this tree?
- (a)Fig
- (b)Mahua
- (c)Sandalwood
- (d)Silk cotton
Answer: (a) Fig
Each fig species relies on its own specific fig wasp species — obligate mutualism.
Related: EnvEco0001 — Pollution, Ecosystems and Biodiversity
Consider the following :
How many of the above have poisonous species among them?
- 1.Butterflies
- 2.Fish
- 3.Frogs
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)All three
- (d)None
Answer: (c) All three
Monarch butterflies, pufferfish, and poison dart frogs are all genuinely poisonous.
Related: EnvEco0001 — Pollution, Ecosystems and Biodiversity
Consider the following :
How many of the above trees are actually native to India?
- 1.Cashew
- 2.Papaya
- 3.Red sanders
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)All three
- (d)None
Answer: (a) Only one
Red sanders is native to India (Eastern Ghats). Cashew and Papaya were both introduced by the Portuguese.
Related: EnvEco0001 — Pollution, Ecosystems and Biodiversity
With reference to radioisotope thermoelectric generators (RTGs), consider the following statements :
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 1.RTGs are miniature fission reactors.
- 2.RTGs are used for powering the onboard systems of spacecrafts.
- 3.RTGs can use Plutonium-238, which is a by-product of weapons development.
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)1 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
RTGs are not fission reactors; they generate power from radioactive decay heat and are used on deep-space spacecraft with Plutonium-238.
Consider the following statements :
- Statement-I :Giant stars live much longer than dwarf stars.
- Statement-II :Compared to dwarf stars, giant stars have a greater rate of nuclear reactions.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- (b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- (c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- (d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Giant stars fuse fuel faster but burn out sooner than small, slow-fusing dwarf stars.
Related: GenSci0004 — Astronomy Fundamentals
Which one of the following is synthesised in human body that dilates blood vessels and increases blood flow?
- (a)Nitric oxide
- (b)Nitrous oxide
- (c)Nitrogen dioxide
- (d)Nitrogen pentoxide
Answer: (a) Nitric oxide
Synthesised by blood-vessel endothelial cells, it relaxes vessel-wall muscle, causing dilation and increased blood flow.
Consider the following activities :
In how many of the above activities can the radars be used?
- 1.Identification of narcotics on passengers at airports or in aircraft
- 2.Monitoring of precipitation
- 3.Tracking the migration of animals
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)All three
- (d)None
Answer: (b) Only two
Radar monitors precipitation and tracks animal migration, but not narcotics identification (chemical/X-ray methods).
Related: WorldGeo0010 — Cartography, GPS and Space Technology
Consider the following aircraft :
How many of the above are considered fifth generation fighter aircraft?
- 1.Rafael
- 2.MiG-29
- 3.Tejas MK-1
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)All three
- (d)None
Answer: (d) None
Rafale is 4.5-generation; MiG-29 and Tejas Mk-1 are fourth-generation. None reach fifth-generation stealth/sensor-fusion standards.
In which of the following are hydrogels used?
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
- 1.Controlled drug delivery in patients
- 2.Mobile air-conditioning systems
- 3.Preparation of industrial lubricants
- (a)1 only
- (b)1 and 2 only
- (c)2 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 only
Controlled drug delivery is a genuine, well-established hydrogel application. Hydrogels are not used in mobile air-conditioning systems or industrial lubricants — they lack the thermodynamic and mechanical properties those uses require.
Related: GenSci0041 — Hydrogels.
Which one of the following is the exhaust pipe emission from Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles, powered by hydrogen?
- (a)Hydrogen peroxide
- (b)Hydronium
- (c)Oxygen
- (d)Water vapour
Answer: (d) Water vapour
A hydrogen fuel cell combines H2 with O2 to produce electricity, with water vapour as the only exhaust emission, making FCEVs zero tailpipe emission vehicles.
Recently, the term “pumped-storage hydropower” is actually and appropriately discussed in the context of which one of the following?
- (a)Irrigation of terraced crop fields
- (b)Lift irrigation of cereal crops
- (c)Long duration energy storage
- (d)Rainwater harvesting system
Answer: (c) Long duration energy storage
Pumped-storage hydropower pumps water uphill when power is cheap and releases it through turbines when demand peaks, making it a genuine long-duration energy storage technology, useful for integrating variable renewable energy.
Related: SciTech0147 — Pumped-Storage Hydropower.
“Membrane Bioreactors” are often discussed in the context of :
- (a)Assisted reproductive technologies
- (b)Drug delivery nanotechnologies
- (c)Vaccine production technologies
- (d)Wastewater treatment technologies
Answer: (d) Wastewater treatment technologies
A Membrane Bioreactor integrates the activated sludge biological process with membrane filtration, replacing the secondary clarifier and producing high-quality, reusable treated water.
Related: EnvEco0064 — Membrane Bioreactors.
With reference to the Indian economy, “Collateral Borrowing and Lending Obligations” are the instruments of :
- (a)Bond market
- (b)Forex market
- (c)Money market
- (d)Stock market
Answer: (c) Money market
Collateralised Borrowing and Lending Obligations (CBLOs) are money market instruments, allowing secured, short-term borrowing and lending against government securities as collateral. CBLO has since been replaced by TREPS.
The total fertility rate in an economy is defined as :
- (a)the number of children born per 1000 people in the population in a year.
- (b)the number of children born to a couple in their lifetime in a given population.
- (c)the birth rate minus death rate.
- (d)the average number of live births a woman would have by the end of her child-bearing age.
Answer: (d) the average number of live births a woman would have by the end of her child-bearing age
Distinct from the crude birth rate or birth-rate-minus-death-rate.
Related: IndEco0075 — Demographics
Consider the following statements :
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1.In India, Non-Banking Financial Companies can access the Liquidity Adjustment Facility window of the Reserve Bank of India.
- 2.In India, Foreign Institutional Investors can hold the Government Securities (G-Secs).
- 3.In India, Stock Exchanges can offer separate trading platforms for debts.
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)3 only
- (c)1, 2 and 3
- (d)2 and 3 only
Answer: (d) 2 and 3 only
LAF is for banks/Primary Dealers, not NBFCs generally. FIIs/FPIs can hold G-Secs; exchanges run separate debt-trading segments.
In India, which of the following can trade in Corporate Bonds and Government Securities?
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
- 1.Insurance Companies
- 2.Pension Funds
- 3.Retail Investors
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)1 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Insurance companies, pension funds, and retail investors (via RBI Retail Direct/brokers) can all trade Corporate Bonds and G-Secs.
Consider the following :
Which of the above is/are considered financial instruments?
- 1.Exchange-Traded Funds (ETF)
- 2.Motor vehicles
- 3.Currency swap
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)1, 2 and 3
- (d)1 and 3 only
Answer: (d) 1 and 3 only
ETFs and currency swaps are financial instruments. Motor vehicles are tangible physical assets, not financial instruments.
With reference to the sectors of the Indian economy, consider the following pairs :
| Economic activity | Sector | |
|---|---|---|
| 1. | Storage of agricultural produce | Secondary |
| 2. | Dairy farm | Primary |
| 3. | Mineral exploration | Tertiary |
| 4. | Weaving cloth | Secondary |
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)Only three
- (d)All four
Answer: (b) Only two
Dairy farm (primary) and weaving cloth (secondary) correct. Storage is tertiary, not secondary; mineral exploration is primary, not tertiary.
Consider the following materials :
Which of the above can be used as feedstock for producing Sustainable Aviation Fuel?
- 1.Agricultural residues
- 2.Corn grain
- 3.Wastewater treatment sludge
- 4.Wood mill waste
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)3 and 4 only
- (c)1, 2, 3 and 4
- (d)1, 3 and 4 only
Answer: (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
All four are recognised SAF feedstocks: agricultural residues, corn grain, wastewater sludge, and wood mill waste.
With reference to physical capital in Indian economy, consider the following pairs :
| Items | Category | |
|---|---|---|
| 1. | Farmer’s plough | Working capital |
| 2. | Computer | Fixed capital |
| 3. | Yarn used by the weaver | Fixed capital |
| 4. | Petrol | Working capital |
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)Only three
- (d)All four
Answer: (b) Only two
Computer (fixed) and petrol (working) correct. Plough is fixed capital (reused each season); yarn is working capital (consumed).
Which one of the following words/phrases is most appropriately used to denote “an interoperable network of 3D virtual worlds that can be accessed simultaneously by millions of users, who can exert property rights over virtual items”?
- (a)Big data analytics
- (b)Cryptography
- (c)Metaverse
- (d)Virtual matrix
Answer: (c) Metaverse
An interoperable network of 3D virtual worlds, accessed by millions simultaneously, with property rights over virtual items.
Related: SciTech0145 — Emerging Tech Glossary
With reference to the rule/rules imposed by the Reserve Bank of India while treating foreign banks, consider the following statements :
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1.There is no minimum capital requirement for wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India.
- 2.For wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India, at least 50% of the board members should be Indian nationals.
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Minimum capital requirement DOES exist (₹500 crore). At least 50% of directors must be Indian nationals/NRIs/PIOs.
With reference to Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) rules in India, consider the following statements :
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1.CSR rules specify that expenditures that benefit the company directly or its employees will not be considered as CSR activities.
- 2.CSR rules do not specify minimum spending on CSR activities.
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
CSR rules exclude company/employee-benefiting spending. But CSR rules DO specify a minimum: 2% of average net profit.
Related: Ethics0029 — Corporate Governance and Business Ethics
Consider the following statements :
- Statement-I :If the United States of America (USA) were to default on its debt, holders of US Treasury Bonds will not be able to exercise their claims to receive payment.
- Statement-II :The USA Government debt is not backed by any hard assets, but only by the faith of the Government.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- (b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- (c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- (d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
US Treasury debt is backed only by “full faith and credit,” not hard assets. Even in default, bondholders retain legal claims.
Consider the following statements :
- Statement-I :Syndicated lending spreads the risk of borrower default across multiple lenders.
- Statement-II :The syndicated loan can be a fixed amount/lump sum of funds, but cannot be a credit line.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- (b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- (c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- (d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
Syndicated loans do spread default risk. But they can be a revolving credit line, not only a fixed lump sum.
Consider the following statements in respect of the digital rupee :
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 1.It is a sovereign currency issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in alignment with its monetary policy.
- 2.It appears as a liability on the RBI’s balance sheet.
- 3.It is insured against inflation by its very design.
- 4.It is freely convertible against commercial bank money and cash.
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)1 and 3 only
- (c)2 and 4 only
- (d)1, 2 and 4
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 4
Digital rupee is legal tender and an RBI liability, freely convertible with cash. No built-in inflation protection.
Related: IndEco0078 — Digital Rupee / CBDC
With reference to ancient India, Gautama Buddha was generally known by which of the following epithets?
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
- 1.Nayaputta
- 2.Shakyamuni
- 3.Tathagata
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)1, 2 and 3
- (d)None of the above are epithets of Gautama Buddha
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Shakyamuni and Tathagata are genuine Buddha epithets. Nayaputta/Nataputta refers to Mahavira, the Jain Tirthankara.
Related: AncHist0010 — Buddhism: The Buddha’s Life and Councils
Consider the following information :
| Archaeological Site | State | Description | |
|---|---|---|---|
| 1. | Chandraketugarh | Odisha | Trading Port town |
| 2. | Inamgaon | Maharashtra | Chalcolithic site |
| 3. | Mangadu | Kerala | Megalithic site |
| 4. | Salihundam | Andhra Pradesh | Rock-cut cave shrines |
In which of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
- (a)1 and 2
- (b)2 and 3
- (c)3 and 4
- (d)1 and 4
Answer: (b) 2 and 3
Inamgaon (Maharashtra, Chalcolithic) and Mangadu (Kerala, Megalithic) correct. Chandraketugarh is West Bengal not Odisha; Salihundam is Buddhist stupas, not rock-cut caves.
Who of the following rulers of medieval India gave permission to the Portuguese to build a fort at Bhatkal?
- (a)Krishnadevaraya
- (b)Narasimha Saluva
- (c)Muhammad Shah III
- (d)Yusuf Adil Shah
Answer: (a) Krishnadevaraya
After Albuquerque captured Goa in 1510, Krishnadevaraya granted the Portuguese permission to build a fort at Bhatkal, securing steady horse imports for Vijayanagara.
Related: MedHist0045 — Krishnadeva Raya: Vijayanagara’s Golden Age Emperor
With reference to revenue collection by Cornwallis, consider the following statements :
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1.Under the Ryotwari Settlement of revenue collection, the peasants were exempted from revenue payment in case of bad harvests or natural calamities.
- 2.Under the Permanent Settlement in Bengal, if the Zamindar failed to pay his revenues to the state, on or before the fixed date, he would be removed from his Zamindari.
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: the Ryotwari Settlement rarely exempted peasants from revenue during bad harvests; assessments were seldom reduced even after crop failure. Statement 2 is correct: Cornwallis’s Permanent Settlement had a sunset law, under which a Zamindar who missed the fixed payment date lost the estate outright.
Consider the following statements :
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1.There are no parables in Upanishads.
- 2.Upanishads were composed earlier than the Puranas.
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: the Upanishads are full of parables, like Uddalaka’s salt-in-water story teaching Svetaketu about Atman-Brahman. Statement 2 is correct: the earliest Upanishads (c. 800–300 BCE) predate the Puranas, whose major composition began around the 4th century CE.
Related: AncHist0007 — Rigvedic Religion and the Later Vedic Age
Consider the following statements :
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1.India is a member of the International Grains Council.
- 2.A country needs to be a member of the International Grains Council for exporting or importing rice and wheat.
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: India is a member of the IGC, designated an exporting member. Statement 2 is wrong: no country needs IGC membership to export or import rice or wheat — the Council provides market analysis, not trade licensing.
Which one of the following was the latest inclusion in the Intangible Cultural Heritage List of UNESCO?
- (a)Chhau dance
- (b)Durga puja
- (c)Garba dance
- (d)Kumbh mela
Answer: (c) Garba dance
Garba of Gujarat was inscribed on UNESCO’s Intangible Cultural Heritage list in December 2023, the most recent of the four — after Kumbh Mela (2017) and Durga Puja (2021), and well after Chhau dance (2010).
Related: IndReligion0017 — Navratri
Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over?
- (a)C. Rajagopalachari
- (b)Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
- (c)T.T. Krishnamachari
- (d)Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha
Answer: (d) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha
He chaired the Assembly’s first sitting (9 Dec 1946) as its eldest member. Rajendra Prasad became permanent President on 11 Dec 1946.
Related: Polity0067 — Dr. Rajendra Prasad
With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements :
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1.It provided for the establishment of an All India Federation based on the union of the British Indian Provinces and Princely States.
- 2.Defence and Foreign Affairs were kept under the control of the federal legislature.
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
All India Federation was proposed (never enforced). Defence/Foreign Affairs were reserved to the Governor-General, not the federal legislature.
Which one of the following is a work attributed to playwright Bhasa?
- (a)Kavyalankara
- (b)Natyashastra
- (c)Madhyama-vyayoga
- (d)Mahabhashya
Answer: (c) Madhyama-vyayoga
One of 13 plays discovered in Kerala and attributed to Bhasa, predating Kalidasa.
Related: ArtnCulture0056 — Kalidasa
Sanghabhuti, an Indian Buddhist monk, who travelled to China at the end of the fourth century AD, was the author of a commentary on :
- (a)Prajnaparamita Sutra
- (b)Visuddhimagga
- (c)Sarvastivada Vinaya
- (d)Lalitavistara
Answer: (c) Sarvastivada Vinaya
Sanghabhuti, in China from c. 381 CE, translated/commented on Sarvastivada Abhidharma-Vinaya texts.
Consider the following properties included in the World Heritage List released by UNESCO :
How many of the above properties were included in 2023?
- 1.Shantiniketan
- 2.Rani-ki-Vav
- 3.Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas
- 4.Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodhgaya
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)Only three
- (d)All four
Answer: (b) Only two
Shantiniketan and Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas inscribed in 2023. Rani-ki-Vav (2014) and Mahabodhi Temple (2002) came earlier.
As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of :
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
- 1.Addition
- 2.Variation
- 3.Repeal
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)1 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Article 368 lets Parliament amend any constitutional provision by way of addition, variation, or repeal — all three modes are constitutionally valid.
Consider the following countries :
Which of the above countries are frequently mentioned in the media for their low birth rates, or ageing population or declining population?
- 1.Italy
- 2.Japan
- 3.Nigeria
- 4.South Korea
- 5.South Africa
- (a)1, 2 and 4
- (b)1, 3 and 5
- (c)2 and 4 only
- (d)3 and 5 only
Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 4
Italy, Japan, and South Korea are all frequently in the news for very low fertility rates and ageing populations. Nigeria and South Africa are not — Nigeria in particular has one of the world’s highest fertility rates.
Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament?
Select the answer using the code given below :
- 1.Article 109 mentions special procedure in respect of Money Bills.
- 2.A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States.
- 3.The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it.
- 4.Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha.
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)1, 2 and 3
- (d)1, 3 and 4
Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3
Statements 1-3 are correct. Statement 4 is wrong: the Lok Sabha may accept or reject any or all of the Rajya Sabha’s recommendations on a Money Bill; it is not obliged to accept them.
Which of the following is/are correctly matched in terms of equivalent rank in the three services of Indian Defence forces?
| Army | Airforce | Navy | |
|---|---|---|---|
| 1. | Brigadier | Air Commodore | Commander |
| 2. | Major General | Air Vice Marshal | Vice Admiral |
| 3. | Major | Squadron Leader | Lieutenant Commander |
| 4. | Lieutenant Colonel | Group Captain | Captain |
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
- (a)1 and 4
- (b)1 and 3
- (c)2, 3 and 4
- (d)3 only
Answer: (d) 3 only
Only row 3 (Major — Squadron Leader — Lieutenant Commander) is correct. Brigadier pairs with Commodore, not Commander; Major General with Rear Admiral, not Vice Admiral; and Lieutenant Colonel with Wing Commander, not Group Captain.
Related: Polity0124 — Ranks of Indian Army
The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members?
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
- 1.Governor of the Constituent State
- 2.Chief Minister of the Constituent State
- 3.Three Members to be nominated by the President of India
- 4.The Home Minister of India
- (a)1, 2 and 3 only
- (b)1, 3 and 4 only
- (c)2 and 4 only
- (d)1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
Post-2002, the NEC comprises Governors and Chief Ministers of the constituent states plus three members nominated by the President. The Union Home Minister chairs NEC sessions but is not part of this formal membership list.
How many Delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023?
- (a)One
- (b)Two
- (c)Three
- (d)Four
Answer: (d) Four
Constituted under Acts of 1952, 1962, 1972, and 2002.
The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages?
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
- 1.Konkani
- 2.Manipuri
- 3.Nepali
- 4.Maithili
- (a)1, 2 and 3
- (b)1, 2 and 4
- (c)1, 3 and 4
- (d)2, 3 and 4
Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3
71st Amendment (1992) added Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali. Maithili came later, via the 92nd Amendment (2003).
Consider the following pairs :
| Party | Its Leader | |
|---|---|---|
| 1. | Bharatiya Jana Sangh | Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee |
| 2. | Socialist Party | C. Rajagopalachari |
| 3. | Congress for Democracy | Jagjivan Ram |
| 4. | Swatantra Party | Acharya Narendra Dev |
How many of the above are correctly matched?
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)Only three
- (d)All four
Answer: (b) Only two
Pair 1 is correct: the Bharatiya Jana Sangh was founded in 1951 by Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee. Pair 3 is correct: the Congress for Democracy was formed in 1977 by Jagjivan Ram. The Socialist Party was led by Acharya Narendra Dev, not C. Rajagopalachari; the Swatantra Party was founded by C. Rajagopalachari, not Acharya Narendra Dev — so pairs 2 and 4 are swapped.
Related: ModHist0014 — The Janata Party Interlude, 1977-1979
Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India?
Select the answer using the code given below :
- 1.Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution.
- 2.Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution.
- 3.Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution.
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)1 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct. Part IX A (added by the 74th Amendment, 1992) covers Municipalities. Part XVIII (Articles 352-360) covers Emergency Provisions. Part XX (Article 368) covers the procedure for amending the Constitution.
Related: Polity0060 — Emergency Provisions
Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India?
- (a)Inter-State trade and commerce is a State subject under the State List.
- (b)Inter-State migration is a State subject under the State List.
- (c)Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List.
- (d)Corporation tax is a State subject under the State List.
Answer: (c) Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List.
Entry 81 of the Union List covers “Inter-State migration; inter-State quarantine” together — both Union, not State, subjects. Inter-State trade and commerce is also a Union List subject (Entry 42). Corporation tax is exclusively Union (Entry 85).
Related: Polity0019 — Centre-State Relations and the Federal Structure
Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right to Privacy?
- (a)Article 15
- (b)Article 16
- (c)Article 19
- (d)Article 21
Answer: (d) Article 21
The Supreme Court’s 2017 Puttaswamy judgment held that the Right to Privacy is a fundamental right, protected under Article 21 (life and personal liberty).
Related: Polity0105 — Right to Privacy and the Puttaswamy Judgment
What are the duties of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) as Head of the Department of Military Affairs?
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
- 1.Permanent Chairman of Chiefs of Staff Committee
- 2.Exercise military command over the three Service Chiefs
- 3.Principal Military Advisor to Defence Minister on all tri-service matters
- (a)1, 2 and 3
- (b)1 and 2 only
- (c)2 and 3 only
- (d)1 and 3 only
Answer: (d) 1 and 3 only
The CDS is Permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee and Principal Military Adviser to the Defence Minister. Statement 2 is wrong: the CDS does not exercise military command, including over the three Service Chiefs.
Related: Polity0113 — India’s Defence Organisational Structure
Operations undertaken by the Army towards upliftment of the local population in remote areas to include addressing of their basic needs is called :
- (a)Operation Sankalp
- (b)Operation Maitri
- (c)Operation Sadbhavana
- (d)Operation Madad
Answer: (c) Operation Sadbhavana
Operation Sadbhavana (“Goodwill”), launched in 1998, is the Army’s ongoing civic-welfare operation in remote and border areas, covering education, healthcare, and infrastructure.
The longest border between any two countries in the world is between :
- (a)Canada and the United States of America
- (b)Chile and Argentina
- (c)China and India
- (d)Kazakhstan and Russian Federation
Answer: (a) Canada and the United States of America
The Canada-US border is the world’s longest international border by total length, at 8,891 km. Kazakhstan-Russia (7,644 km) is the longest continuous, single-stretch border, but not the longest overall.
Related: WorldGeo0033 — World’s Longest International Borders
Which of the following statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct?
Select the answer using the code given below :
- 1.Initially it was an ad-hoc Committee.
- 2.Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint relating to unethical conduct of a member of the Lok Sabha.
- 3.This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice.
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)1 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
All three statements are correct: the Committee was initially ad-hoc, only an MP can formally lodge a complaint, and it does not take up sub-judice matters.
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam’ :
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 1.Provisions will come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha.
- 2.This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act.
- 3.There are provisions for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes Women within the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes.
- (a)1, 2 and 3
- (b)1 and 2 only
- (c)2 and 3 only
- (d)1 and 3 only
Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only
Statement 1 is wrong: the reservation does not automatically apply from the 18th Lok Sabha, only after the first Census post-commencement and the subsequent delimitation exercise. Statement 2 is correct: the reservation lasts 15 years from commencement, extendable by Parliament. Statement 3 is correct: within SC/ST-reserved seats, one-third are further reserved for women on rotation.
Related: IndSoc0009 — The Women’s Reservation Bill: From 1996 to the 2023 Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam
Which of the following statements about ‘Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023’ are correct?
Select the answer using the code given below :
- 1.This was a joint military exercise between India and Bangladesh.
- 2.It commenced in Aundh (Pune).
- 3.Joint response during counter-terrorism operations was a goal of this operation.
- 4.Indian Air Force was a part of this exercise.
- (a)1, 2 and 3
- (b)1, 2 and 4
- (c)1, 3 and 4
- (d)2, 3 and 4
Answer: (d) 2, 3 and 4
Mitra Shakti-2023 was India-Sri Lanka, not Bangladesh — a common exam trap. It commenced at Aundh (Pune) on 16 November 2023. Counter-terrorism synergy was a core objective, and the Indian Air Force joined for the first time (this being the first bi-service edition).
Related: IntlRel0090 — Exercise Mitra Shakti: India-Sri Lanka Joint Military Exercise
A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to :
- (a)a government officer prohibiting him from taking a particular action.
- (b)the Parliament/Legislative Assembly to pass a law on Prohibition.
- (c)the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case.
- (d)the Government prohibiting it from following an unconstitutional policy.
Answer: (c) the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case.
A Writ of Prohibition is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal, forbidding it from continuing proceedings where it lacks or exceeds jurisdiction. It is preventive, issued before the lower court’s final judgment, and applies only to judicial or quasi-judicial bodies.
Consider the following statements :
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1.It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe.
- 2.A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State.
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Under Article 342, it is the President, not the Governor, who specifies Scheduled Tribes by public notification, after consulting the Governor where a State is concerned. Since notifications are issued separately per State/UT, a community can be a Scheduled Tribe in one State but not in another.
Related: IndSoc0042 — Tribal Groups and Welfare in India: PVTGs and Protection
With reference to Union Budget, consider the following statements :
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1.The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the Houses of Parliament.
- 2.At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India.
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Under Article 112, the Finance Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before Parliament on behalf of the President, not the Prime Minister. Under Article 113, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President.
Who of the following is the author of the books “The India Way” and “Why Bharat Matters”?
- (a)Bhupender Yadav
- (b)Nalin Mehta
- (c)Shashi Tharoor
- (d)Subrahmanyam Jaishankar
Answer: (d) Subrahmanyam Jaishankar
S. Jaishankar, India’s External Affairs Minister since 2019 and a former Foreign Secretary, wrote both books: ‘The India Way: Strategies for an Uncertain World’ (2020) and ‘Why Bharat Matters’ (2024).
Related: IntlRel0096 — S. Jaishankar
Consider the following pairs :
| Country | Reason for being in the news | |
|---|---|---|
| 1. | Argentina | Worst economic crisis |
| 2. | Sudan | War between the country’s regular army and paramilitary forces |
| 3. | Turkey | Rescinded its membership of NATO |
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
- (a)Only one pair
- (b)Only two pairs
- (c)All three pairs
- (d)None of the pairs
Answer: (b) Only two pairs
Argentina faced one of its worst economic crises, with inflation exceeding 250% in 2024. Sudan has been gripped by civil war since April 2023, between the Sudanese Armed Forces and the paramilitary Rapid Support Forces. But Turkey has not left NATO — it remains a full member since 1952.
Consider the following statements :
- Statement-I :Sumed pipeline is a strategic route for Persian Gulf oil and natural gas shipments to Europe.
- Statement-II :Sumed pipeline connects the Red Sea with the Mediterranean Sea.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- (b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- (c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- (d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
The Sumed pipeline carries only crude oil, not natural gas, so Statement-I is wrong. It runs from Ain Sokhna on the Red Sea to Sidi Kerir on the Mediterranean Sea, giving tankers a bypass around the Suez Canal, so Statement-II is correct.
Related: WorldGeo0039 — The Sumed Pipeline
Consider the following statements :
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1.The Red Sea receives very little precipitation in any form.
- 2.No water enters the Red Sea from rivers.
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. Most of the Red Sea coastline receives under 250mm of rainfall a year, classifying it as desert. No permanent rivers flow into it — only seasonal wadis carry flash-flood water during rare rain events. This gives the Red Sea some of the highest salinity of any ocean-connected sea.
Related: WorldGeo0040 — The Red Sea
According to the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), which one of the following is the largest source of sulphur dioxide emissions?
- (a)Locomotives using fossil fuels
- (b)Ships using fossil fuels
- (c)Extraction of metals from ores
- (d)Power plants using fossil fuels
Answer: (d) Power plants using fossil fuels
Per the US EPA, the largest sources of sulphur dioxide emissions are fossil fuel combustion at power plants, mainly coal-fired plants, and other industrial facilities. Metal extraction, ships, and locomotives are smaller contributors.
Consider the following statements :
- Statement-I :There is instability and worsening security situation in the Sahel region.
- Statement-II :There have been military takeovers/coups d’état in several countries of the Sahel region in the recent past.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- (b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- (c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- (d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
The Sahel has faced worsening instability, and coups in Mali (2020, 2021), Burkina Faso (2022), and Niger (2023) are documented as part of a mutually reinforcing spiral with rising insecurity, so the coups directly explain the instability.
Related: IntlRel0098 — The Sahel Region
Consider the following statements :
- Statement-I :India does not import apples from the United States of America.
- Statement-II :In India, the law prohibits the import of Genetically Modified food without the approval of the competent authority.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- (b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- (c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- (d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Statement-I is wrong: India does import apples from the US, and was once Washington state’s second-biggest export market, though tariffs sharply cut volumes between 2019 and 2023. Statement-II is correct: Indian law requires competent-authority (GEAC/FSSAI) approval before GM food can be imported.
Related: SciTech0037 — GM Crops and Biotechnology Regulation in India
With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements : While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1.He/She shall not preside.
- 2.He/She shall not have the right to speak.
- 3.He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance.
- (a)1 only
- (b)1 and 2 only
- (c)2 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 only
Under Article 96, the Speaker does not preside while a resolution for their own removal is under consideration. But they retain the right to speak and take part in proceedings, and are entitled to vote in the first instance (just not to break a tie), so statements 2 and 3 are wrong.
Related: Polity0253 — Article 93: The Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements :
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1.A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution.
- 2.A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
- 3.A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
- (a)1 only
- (b)1 and 2
- (c)2 and 3
- (d)3 only
Answer: (b) 1 and 2
A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution, and so does a bill passed by the Lok Sabha but still pending in the Rajya Sabha. But under Article 108(5), a bill for which the President has already notified a joint sitting does not lapse — the joint sitting can still be held even after dissolution.
Related: Polity0026 — Legislative Procedure and Financial Control in Parliament
With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements :
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1.Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers.
- 2.Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die but there is no bar to the President of India prorogating the House which is in session.
- 3.Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
- (a)1 only
- (b)1 and 2
- (c)2 and 3
- (d)3 only
Answer: (c) 2 and 3
Under Article 85, the President prorogues a House only on the advice of the Council of Ministers, so statement 1 is wrong. There is no bar on proroguing a House while it is still in session, though prorogation usually follows a sine die adjournment. The President also dissolves the Lok Sabha on the advice of the Council of Ministers, except in exceptional circumstances.
Related: Polity0344 — Article 85: Prorogation and Dissolution of Parliament
Consider the following statements :
- Statement-I :The European Parliament approved The Net-Zero Industry Act recently.
- Statement-II :The European Union intends to achieve carbon neutrality by 2040 and therefore aims to develop all of its own clean technology by that time.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- (b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- (c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- (d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
The European Parliament did adopt the Net-Zero Industry Act, in April 2024. Statement II is wrong on two counts: the EU’s climate neutrality target is 2050 (not 2040), and the Act targets only 40% domestic clean-tech capacity by 2030, not “all” of it.
Consider the following statements :
- Statement-I :Recently, Venezuela has achieved a rapid recovery from its economic crisis and succeeded in preventing its people from fleeing/emigrating to other countries.
- Statement-II :Venezuela has the world’s largest oil reserves.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- (b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- (c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- (d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Venezuela’s economic crisis and mass emigration remain ongoing, not resolved. But Venezuela does hold the world’s largest proven oil reserves, at roughly 303 billion barrels.
Related: WorldGeo0034 — Venezuela: Oil Reserves and Economic Crisis
With reference to the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme, consider the following statements :
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 1.To implement the scheme, the Central Government provides 100% funding.
- 2.Under the Scheme, Cadastral Maps are digitised.
- 3.An initiative has been undertaken to transliterate the Records of Rights from local language to any of the languages recognized by the Constitution of India.
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)1 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
All three statements are correct. DILRMP has been a 100%-centrally-funded Central Sector Scheme since 1 April 2016. Digitisation of Cadastral Maps is a core DILRMP component. A DoLR–C-DAC Pune initiative also transliterates Records of Rights (RoRs) from the local language into any of the 22 languages recognised in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution.
With reference to the ‘Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan’, consider the following statements :
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1.This scheme guarantees a minimum package of antenatal care services to women in their second and third trimesters of pregnancy and six months post-delivery health care service in any government health facility.
- 2.Under this scheme, private sector health care providers of certain specialities can volunteer to provide services at nearby government health facilities.
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Statement 1 is false — PMSMA guarantees free antenatal care on a fixed day each month, but does not guarantee a separate six-month post-delivery care package. Statement 2 is correct — private-sector health care providers of certain specialities can volunteer at nearby government health facilities under PMSMA.
With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana, consider the following statements :
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1.The entry age group for enrolment in the scheme is 21 to 40 years.
- 2.Age specific contribution shall be made by the beneficiary.
- 3.Each subscriber under the scheme shall receive a minimum pension of ₹ 3,000 per month after attaining the age of 60 years.
- 4.Family pension is applicable to the spouse and unmarried daughters.
- (a)1, 3 and 4
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)2 only
- (d)1, 2 and 4
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Statement 1 is false — the entry age group is 18 to 40 years, not 21 to 40. Statement 2 is correct — PM-SYM contributions are age-specific. Statement 3 is correct — subscribers receive a minimum pension of ₹3,000/month after 60. Statement 4 is false — family pension applies only to the spouse, not unmarried daughters.
English-language questions transcribed from the official Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination, 2024 question booklet (KSPC-P-GSPO), General Studies Paper I. Hindi text omitted. Answer key not included.
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