UPSC CSP 2018 — General Studies Paper I (Full Question Paper)

History & CultureGeographyEnvironment & EcologyScience & TechPolity & GovernanceEconomyInt'l Relations & DefenceEthics & Aptitude

Questions 1–10

1.Polity & Governance

Consider the following statements:

1.In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.
2.In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the Opposition” was recognised for the first time in 1969.
3.In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognised as the Leader of the Opposition.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 and 3 only
(b)2 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 only

The Swatantra Party wasn’t founded until 1959 and couldn’t have been in the first Lok Sabha (1952-57) — the actual largest opposition party then was the Communist Party of India — Statement 1 is false. A Leader of the Opposition genuinely was recognised for the first time in 1969 — Statement 2 is true. There’s no formal constitutional rule fixing a 75-member threshold for recognition — Statement 3 is false; the 10% convention has been applied inconsistently, not as a binding rule.

2.Environment & Ecology

Which of the following leaf modifications occur(s) in the desert areas to inhibit water loss?

1.Hard and waxy leaves
2.Tiny leaves
3.Thorns instead of leaves

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)2 and 3 only
(b)2 only
(c)3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Hard and waxy leaves, tiny leaves, and thorns instead of leaves all genuinely occur in desert areas to inhibit water loss. Related: EnvEco0151 — Desert Leaf Modifications.

3.Economy

As per the NSSO 70th Round “Situation Assessment Survey of Agricultural Households”, consider the following statements:

1.Rajasthan has the highest percentage share of agricultural households among its rural households.
2.Out of the total agricultural households in the country, a little over 60 percent belong to OBCs.
3.In Kerala, a little over 60 percent of agricultural households reported to have received maximum income from sources other than agricultural activities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)2 and 3 only
(b)2 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

Statement 1 is correct: Rajasthan had the highest share of agricultural households among its rural households, at 78.4%. Statement 2 is wrong; only about 45% of agricultural households were OBC, not over 60%. Statement 3 is correct: about 61% of Kerala’s agricultural households earned most income from non-farm sources.

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4.Environment & Ecology

How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)?

1.The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by an executive order of the Government.
2.The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Both the NGT and CPCB were created by Acts of Parliament, not one by executive order. Statement 2 correctly describes each body’s actual role. Related: EnvEco0052 — Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) and Polity0118 — The National Green Tribunal.

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5.Polity & Governance

Consider the following statements:

1.The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
2.The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Parliament can place a law in the Ninth Schedule via constitutional amendment — Statement 1 is true. But per the Supreme Court’s 2007 I.R. Coelho ruling, any law added to the Ninth Schedule after 24 April 1973 (the Kesavananda Bharati judgment date) IS open to judicial review if it damages the Constitution’s basic structure. Statement 2 is false.

6.Economy

Which one of the following best describes the term “Merchant Discount Rate” sometimes seen in news?

(a)The incentive given by a bank to a merchant for accepting payments through debit cards pertaining to that bank.
(b)The amount paid back by banks to their customers when they use debit cards for financial transactions for purchasing goods or services.
(c)The charge to a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from his customers through the bank's debit cards.
(d)The incentive given by the Government to merchants for promoting digital payments by their customers through Point of Sale (PoS) machines and debit cards.

Answer: (c) The charge to a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from his customers through the bank’s debit cards.

MDR is the fee a bank charges a merchant on every card transaction. It is usually a small percentage of the sale value.

Related: IndEco0133 — NPCI and UPI

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7.Int'l Relations & Defence

What is/are the consequence/consequences of a country becoming the member of the 'Nuclear Suppliers Group'?

1.It will have access to the latest and most efficient nuclear technologies.
2.It automatically becomes a member of “The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)”.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

NSG membership gives access to the latest nuclear technologies. It does not automatically make a country an NPT member.

8.Economy

With reference to India's decision to levy an equalization tax of 6% on online advertisement services offered by non-resident entities, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1.It is introduced as a part of the Income Tax Act.
2.Non-resident entities that offer advertisement services in India can claim a tax credit in their home country under the “Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements”.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

The Equalisation Levy was introduced through the Finance Act, 2016, as a standalone charge. It was deliberately kept outside the Income Tax Act, 1961, so statement 1 is wrong.

Because it sits outside the Income Tax Act and outside India's tax treaties, non-resident entities cannot claim a matching tax credit at home under a Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement. So statement 2 is wrong too.

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9.Economy

Consider the following statements:

1.The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report has recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Governments.
2.The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to that of 49% of GDP of the State Governments.
3.As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for a State to take the Central Government's consent for raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding liabilities to the latter.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

Statement 1 is correct: the FRBM Review Committee recommended a 60% combined debt-to-GDP target by 2023, split 40% Centre and 20% States. Statement 2 has the figures reversed — the Centre carries far higher domestic liabilities as a share of GDP than the States do. Statement 3 is correct under Article 293(3), which requires a State’s consent from the Centre before fresh borrowing if it owes the Centre an outstanding loan.

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10.Economy

Consider the following statements:

1.The quantity of imported edible oils is more than the domestic production of edible oils in the last five years.
2.The Government does not impose any customs duty on all the imported edible oils as a special case.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

India’s 2017-18 imports (15.12 million tonnes) were roughly double domestic production (7.66 million tonnes). Duty was raised twice, not waived, in the seven months before this exam.

Questions 11–20

11.History & Culture

He wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji and Shrikrishna; stayed in America for some time; and was also elected to the Central Assembly. He was

(a)Aurobindo Ghosh
(b)Bipin Chandra Pal
(c)Lala Lajpat Rai
(d)Motilal Nehru

Answer: (c) Lala Lajpat Rai

Lala Lajpat Rai wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji and Shri Krishna. He spent time in America and was elected to the Central Assembly in 1926. Aurobindo Ghosh, Bipin Chandra Pal and Motilal Nehru do not fit all these facts.

Related: ModHist0114 — Lala Lajpat Rai

12.Polity & Governance

Consider the following statements:

1.Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile.
2.Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Section 9 of the Aadhaar Act, 2016 explicitly states Aadhaar is not proof of citizenship or domicile — Statement 1 is false. The Issuing Authority can deactivate or omit an Aadhaar number, for reasons like false enrolment — Statement 2 is false.

13.Geography

Which of the following has/have shrunk immensely/dried up in the recent past due to human activities?

1.Aral Sea
2.Black Sea
3.Lake Baikal

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1 only
(b)2 and 3
(c)2 only
(d)1 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 only

Only the Aral Sea has shrunk catastrophically, by about 90% since the 1960s, due to Soviet-era irrigation diversion of its feeder rivers. The Black Sea and Lake Baikal face pollution problems but haven’t physically shrunk this way.

Related: WorldGeo0059 — The Aral Sea

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14.Polity & Governance

“Rule of Law Index” is released by which of the following?

(a)Amnesty International
(b)International Court of Justice
(c)The Office of UN Commissioner for Human Rights
(d)World Justice Project

Answer: (d) World Justice Project

WJP publishes the Rule of Law Index annually, ranking countries on factors like limits on government power and absence of corruption.

15.Economy

Which one of the following links all the ATMs in India?

(a)Indian Banks' Association
(b)National Securities Depository Limited
(c)National Payments Corporation of India
(d)Reserve Bank of India

Answer: (c) National Payments Corporation of India

NPCI runs the National Financial Switch, which interconnects ATMs across the country.

Related: IndEco0133 — NPCI and UPI

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16.Economy

Consider the following statements:

1.Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the amount that banks have to maintain in the form of their own funds to offset any loss that banks incur if the account-holders fail to repay dues.
2.CAR is decided by each individual bank.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Statement 1 is correct. CAR is a bank’s own funds held against its risk-weighted assets, to absorb losses. Statement 2 is wrong. The RBI, not each bank, sets the minimum CAR — currently 11.5% of risk-weighted assets, including the Basel III capital conservation buffer.

Related: IndEco0282 — Basel III Accord

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17.Science & Tech

The identity platform 'Aadhaar' provides open “Application Programming Interfaces (APIs)”. What does it imply?

1.It can be integrated into any electronic device.
2.Online authentication using iris is possible.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Aadhaar’s open APIs genuinely let it be integrated into any electronic device, and iris-based online authentication is possible. Related: SciTech0186 — Aadhaar’s Open APIs.

18.Int'l Relations & Defence

Very recently, in which of the following countries have lakhs of people either suffered from severe famine/acute malnutrition or died due to starvation caused by war/ethnic conflicts?

(a)Angola and Zambia
(b)Morocco and Tunisia
(c)Venezuela and Colombia
(d)Yemen and South Sudan

Answer: (d) Yemen and South Sudan

Both countries saw severe war-driven famine and acute malnutrition in the years leading up to 2018.

19.History & Culture

Regarding Wood's Dispatch, which of the following statements are true?

1.Grants-in-Aid system was introduced.
2.Establishment of universities was recommended.
3.English as a medium of instruction at all levels of education was recommended.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Wood’s Despatch of 1854 introduced the grants-in-aid system and recommended universities in India. The three presidency universities were founded in 1857 as a result. English was recommended only at the higher levels, with vernaculars at the primary stage, so Statement 3 is incorrect.

20.Polity & Governance

With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation?

(a)Committee on Government Assurances
(b)Committee on Subordinate Legislation
(c)Rules Committee
(d)Business Advisory Committee

Answer: (b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation

The Committee on Subordinate Legislation examines whether rules, regulations, and by-laws made under delegated powers stay within the scope of that delegation — a distinct role from the Rules Committee, Business Advisory Committee, or Government Assurances Committee.

Questions 21–30

21.Polity & Governance

Consider the following statements:

1.As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State Council of Teacher Education.
2.As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.
3.In India, more than 90% of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 and 2
(b)2 only
(c)1 and 3
(d)3 only

Answer: (b) 2 only

The NCTE, not each State’s own Council, sets minimum teacher qualifications under the RTE Act — Statement 1 is false. Passing a TET per NCTE guidelines is genuinely required for primary teaching — Statement 2 is true. Over 90% of teacher education institutions are actually private, not State-run — Statement 3 is false.

22.History & Culture

Consider the following pairs: (Tradition — State)

1.Chapchar Kut festival — Mizoram
2.Khongjom Parba ballad — Manipur
3.Thang-Ta dance — Sikkim

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)1 and 2
(c)3 only
(d)2 and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 2

Thang-Ta is actually a Manipuri martial art, not a Sikkim tradition. Chapchar Kut-Mizoram and Khongjom Parba-Manipur are both genuine.

23.Polity & Governance

Consider the following statements:

1.The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954.
2.The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the charge of Director General of Health Services in the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 did replace the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954 — Statement 1 is true. FSSAI is an autonomous body, not under the charge of the Director General of Health Services — Statement 2 is false.

24.Int'l Relations & Defence

The term “two-state solution” is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of

(a)China
(b)Israel
(c)Iraq
(d)Yemen

Answer: (b) Israel

The two-state solution refers to the proposed framework establishing separate Israeli and Palestinian states, side by side.

25.Polity & Governance

With reference to the provisions made under the National Food Security Act, 2013, consider the following statements:

1.The families coming under the category of 'below poverty line (BPL)' only are eligible to receive subsidised food grains.
2.The eldest woman in a household, of age 18 years or above, shall be the head of the household for the purpose of issuance of a ration card.
3.Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a 'take-home ration' of 1600 calories per day during pregnancy and for six months thereafter.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 and 2
(b)2 only
(c)1 and 3
(d)3 only

Answer: (b) 2 only

The NFSA uses Socio-Economic Caste Census methodology, not a strict BPL cutoff, so non-BPL families can benefit too — Statement 1 is false. The eldest woman aged 18+ genuinely is the household head for ration-card purposes — Statement 2 is true. The real take-home ration figure is 600 calories a day, not 1600 — Statement 3 is false.

26.Economy

India enacted The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 in order to comply with the obligations to

(a)ILO
(b)IMF
(c)UNCTAD
(d)WTO

Answer: (d) WTO

India enacted the GI Act, 1999 to meet its obligations as a WTO member under the TRIPS Agreement, which covers Geographical Indications as a protected IP category.

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27.Geography

Consider the following statements:

1.In India, State Governments do not have the power to auction non-coal mines.
2.Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand do not have gold mines.
3.Rajasthan has iron ore mines.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 and 2
(b)2 only
(c)1 and 3
(d)3 only

Answer: (d) 3 only

Only statement 3 is correct. Rajasthan genuinely has iron ore mines, mainly around Bhilwara district. State Governments do have the power to auction non-coal mines, since the MMDR Amendment Act, 2015. Andhra Pradesh also does have gold mines, at the Ramagiri-Penakacherla field in Anantapur district. So statements 1 and 2 are both wrong.

28.Economy

With reference to digital payments, consider the following statements:

1.BHIM app allows the user to transfer money to anyone with a UPI-enabled bank account.
2.While a chip-pin debit card has four factors of authentication, BHIM app has only two factors of authentication.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

BHIM works on top of UPI, so it can send money to any UPI-linked bank account, not just its own users. Statement 2 overstates a chip-pin card’s authentication factors, so it’s wrong.

Related: IndEco0133 — NPCI and UPI

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29.Geography

Among the following cities, which one lies on a longitude closest to that of Delhi?

(a)Bengaluru
(b)Hyderabad
(c)Nagpur
(d)Pune

Answer: (a) Bengaluru

Delhi sits at roughly 77.1°E. Bengaluru, at roughly 77.6°E, is the closest match, ahead of Hyderabad (~78.5°E), Nagpur (~79.1°E), and Pune (~73.9°E).

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30.Int'l Relations & Defence

International Labour Organization's Conventions 138 and 182 are related to

(a)Child labour
(b)Adaptation of agricultural practices to global climate change
(c)Regulation of food prices and food security
(d)Gender parity at the workplace

Answer: (a) Child labour

Convention 138 sets a minimum working age; Convention 182 targets the worst forms of child labour.

Questions 31–40

31.Polity & Governance

Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?

(a)A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
(b)A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India.
(c)A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India.
(d)A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India.

Answer: (c) A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India.

Article 110 lists appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India as a Money Bill matter — not the Contingency Fund. Option (c) swaps the two funds, making it the incorrect statement.

32.Polity & Governance

With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements:

1.The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.
2.The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

An MLA’s vote value depends on the ratio of the State’s population to its elective Assembly seats, so it does vary State to State — Statement 1 is true. Every elected MP casts a vote of equal value in this election, whether from the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha — Statement 2 is false.

33.Int'l Relations & Defence

In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the 'Additional Protocol' with the 'International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)'?

(a)The civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards.
(b)The military nuclear installations come under the inspection of IAEA.
(c)The country will have the privilege to buy uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG).
(d)The country automatically becomes a member of the NSG.

Answer: (a) The civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards.

The Additional Protocol does not touch military installations, and does not grant NSG membership or buying privileges.

34.Int'l Relations & Defence

Consider the following countries:

1.Australia
2.Canada
3.China
4.India
5.Japan
6.USA

Which of the above are among the 'free-trade partners' of ASEAN?

(a)1, 2, 4 and 5
(b)3, 4, 5 and 6
(c)1, 3, 4 and 5
(d)2, 3, 4 and 6

Answer: (c) 1, 3, 4 and 5

Australia, China, India, and Japan are ASEAN free-trade partners. Canada and the USA are not.

35.Environment & Ecology

With reference to the 'Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA)', which of the following statements is/are correct?

1.GACSA is an outcome of the Climate Summit held in Paris in 2015.
2.Membership of GACSA does not create any binding obligations.
3.India was instrumental in the creation of GACSA.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1 and 3 only
(b)2 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 only

GACSA launched at the 2014 New York Climate Summit, not Paris 2015. Membership is voluntary and non-binding. India was not among GACSA’s founders. Related: EnvEco0088 — Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA).

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36.Science & Tech

Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India?

1.Formation of India's own Internet companies like China did.
2.Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries.
3.Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centres.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)3 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 3 only

Digital India’s genuine aim is connecting villages to the internet and Wi-Fi at public places, not forming Indian internet firms or attracting MNC data-centre localisation. Related: IndGov0022 — Digital India.

37.Int'l Relations & Defence

Consider the following pairs: (Towns sometimes mentioned in news — Country)

1.Aleppo — Syria
2.Kirkuk — Yemen
3.Mosul — Palestine
4.Mazar-i-sharif — Afghanistan

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a)1 and 2
(b)1 and 4
(c)2 and 3
(d)3 and 4

Answer: (b) 1 and 4

Aleppo is in Syria and Mazar-i-Sharif is in Afghanistan, both correctly matched. Kirkuk is in Iraq, not Yemen. Mosul is in Iraq, not Palestine.

38.Polity & Governance

In the Federation established by The Government of India Act of 1935, residuary powers were given to the

(a)Federal Legislature
(b)Governor General
(c)Provincial Legislature
(d)Provincial Governors

Answer: (b) Governor General

Under the 1935 Act, the Governor-General, acting at his discretion, could authorise either the Federal or a Provincial Legislature to legislate on any residuary matter — a sharp contrast with independent India’s Constitution, which vests residuary powers in Parliament instead.

39.Polity & Governance

Consider the following statements:

1.The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly.
2.Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her office immediately.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Under Article 179, a Speaker does vacate office on ceasing to be an Assembly member — Statement 1 is true. But on dissolution, the Speaker does NOT vacate immediately; they continue until just before the newly elected Assembly first meets — Statement 2 is false.

40.Polity & Governance

Which one of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and liberty?

(a)If there are more laws, there is less liberty.
(b)If there are no laws, there is no liberty.
(c)If there is liberty, laws have to be made by the people.
(d)If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.

Answer: (b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.

This echoes John Locke’s formulation — liberty needs law to protect it from others’ restraint and violence; more laws don’t automatically mean less liberty.

Questions 41–50

41.Polity & Governance

Consider the following statements:

1.No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office.
2.The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Article 361 grants a Governor immunity from criminal proceedings during their term. Article 158(3) bars any reduction in a Governor’s emoluments and allowances during their term. Both statements are true.

42.History & Culture

The well-known painting “Bani Thani” belongs to the

(a)Bundi school
(b)Jaipur school
(c)Kangra school
(d)Kishangarh school

Answer: (d) Kishangarh school

Bani Thani belongs to the Kishangarh school, painted by Nihal Chand for the Rajasthani princely state of Kishangarh, around 1750.

43.Int'l Relations & Defence

What is “Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)”, sometimes seen in the news?

(a)An Israeli radar system
(b)India's indigenous anti-missile programme
(c)An American anti-missile system
(d)A defence collaboration between Japan and South Korea

Answer: (c) An American anti-missile system

THAAD is a US ballistic-missile defense system, developed by Lockheed Martin, using hit-to-kill interceptors.

44.History & Culture

With reference to cultural history of India, consider the following statements:

1.Most of the Tyagaraja Kritis are devotional songs in praise of Lord Krishna.
2.Tyagaraja created several new ragas.
3.Annamacharya and Tyagaraja are contemporaries.
4.Annamacharya kirtanas are devotional songs in praise of Lord Venkateshwara.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a)1 and 3 only
(b)2 and 4 only
(c)1, 2 and 3
(d)2, 3 and 4

Answer: (b) 2 and 4 only

Tyagaraja’s kritis are devoted to Lord Rama, not Krishna, so Statement 1 is wrong. He did create several new ragas, making Statement 2 correct. Annamacharya lived in the 15th century, long before Tyagaraja, so the two were not contemporaries. Annamacharya’s kirtanas praise Lord Venkateshwara, making Statement 4 correct.

45.Polity & Governance

Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the “Rule of Law”?

1.Limitation of powers
2.Equality before law
3.People's responsibility to the Government
4.Liberty and civil rights

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1 and 3 only
(b)2 and 4 only
(c)1, 2 and 4 only
(d)1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 4 only

Dicey’s classic formulation covers limitation of powers, equality before law, and liberty/civil rights. “People’s responsibility to the Government” inverts the concept — the Rule of Law is about government’s accountability to law.

46.Economy

Which one of the following statements correctly describes the meaning of legal tender money?

(a)The money which is tendered in courts of law to defray the fee of legal cases
(b)The money which a creditor is under compulsion to accept in settlement of his claims
(c)The bank money in the form of cheques, drafts, bills of exchange, etc.
(d)The metallic money in circulation in a country

Answer: (b) The money which a creditor is under compulsion to accept in settlement of his claims

Legal tender money is money a creditor must accept, when offered, to settle a debt. It is not money paid as court fees, and it is not limited to coins or bank instruments like cheques and drafts. In India, RBI currency notes are legal tender for any amount. Coins are legal tender only up to limits fixed by the Coinage Act, 2011.

Related: IndEco0007 — Money and Banking

View this question →

47.Economy

If a commodity is provided free to the public by the Government, then

(a)the opportunity cost is zero.
(b)the opportunity cost is ignored.
(c)the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the tax-paying public.
(d)the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the Government.

Answer: (c) the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the tax-paying public.

Free provision does not make the real cost zero. Real resources still go into producing it. The cost simply shifts from the direct consumer to the general tax-paying public, who fund the government instead.

48.Economy

Increase in absolute and per capita real GNP do not connote a higher level of economic development, if

(a)industrial output fails to keep pace with agricultural output.
(b)agricultural output fails to keep pace with industrial output.
(c)poverty and unemployment increase.
(d)imports grow faster than exports.

Answer: (c) poverty and unemployment increase.

GNP growth is quantitative. Real economic development means the gains actually reach people — falling poverty and unemployment, not just a bigger total economy.

49.Economy

Consider the following statements: Human capital formation as a concept is better explained in terms of a process which enables

1.individuals of a country to accumulate more capital.
2.increasing the knowledge, skill levels and capacities of the people of the country.
3.accumulation of tangible wealth.
4.accumulation of intangible wealth.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 and 2
(b)2 only
(c)2 and 4
(d)1, 3 and 4

Answer: (c) 2 and 4

Human capital formation means raising people's knowledge, skill levels, and capacities. That's statement 2, and it's the core of the concept.

This process builds intangible wealth — skills, health, and creativity embodied in people, not physical assets. That's statement 4. It is not about individuals accumulating more capital themselves, and not about accumulating tangible wealth like land or money, so statements 1 and 3 are wrong.

View this question →

50.Economy

Despite being a high saving economy, capital formation may not result in significant increase in output due to

(a)weak administrative machinery
(b)illiteracy
(c)high population density
(d)high capital-output ratio

Answer: (d) high capital-output ratio

A high capital-output ratio means investment is being used inefficiently. Large sums of capital produce only small gains in output, so savings and investment alone don’t guarantee output growth.

View this question →

Questions 51–60

51.History & Culture

After the Santhal Uprising subsided, what was/were the measure/measures taken by the colonial government?

1.The territories called 'Santhal Paraganas' were created.
2.It became illegal for a Santhal to transfer land to a non-Santhal.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

After the Santhal Uprising of 1855, the British created the separate Santhal Paraganas district. They also made it illegal for Santhals to transfer land to non-Santhals. Both measures aimed to protect the Santhals from exploitation by outsiders.

52.History & Culture

Economically, one of the results of the British rule in India in the 19th century was the

(a)increase in the export of Indian handicrafts
(b)growth in the number of Indian owned factories
(c)commercialization of Indian agriculture
(d)rapid increase in the urban population

Answer: (c) commercialization of Indian agriculture

British rule pushed Indian agriculture toward cash crops for the world market, commercializing it. Handicraft exports declined and Indian-owned factories did not grow in numbers. The urban population also did not increase rapidly in the 19th century.

53.Polity & Governance

If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then

(a)the Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.
(b)the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.
(c)Article 19 is suspended in that State.
(d)the President can make laws relating to that State.

Answer: (b) the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.

This is near-verbatim from Article 356(1)(b) itself. The Assembly isn’t automatically dissolved (it can just be suspended), Article 19 isn’t suspended (that’s a separate Article 358/359 Emergency power), and the President doesn’t personally make the laws.

54.History & Culture

Consider the following pairs: (Craft — Heritage of)

1.Puthukkuli shawls — Tamil Nadu
2.Sujni embroidery — Maharashtra
3.Uppada Jamdani saris — Karnataka

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)1 and 2
(c)3 only
(d)2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 only

Puthukkuli shawls are a Tamil Nadu craft with a GI tag, so Pair 1 is correct. Sujni embroidery belongs to Bihar, not Maharashtra, making Pair 2 wrong. Uppada Jamdani saris come from Andhra Pradesh, not Karnataka, so Pair 3 is also wrong.

55.Science & Tech

In which of the following areas can GPS technology be used?

1.Mobile phone operations
2.Banking operations
3.Controlling the power grids

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

GPS technology is genuinely used in mobile phone operations, banking operations, and controlling power grids. Related: SciTech0187 — Where GPS Technology Is Actually Used.

56.Economy

Consider the following statements:

1.The Reserve Bank of India manages and services Government of India Securities but not any State Government Securities.
2.Treasury bills are issued by the Government of India and there are no treasury bills issued by the State Governments.
3.Treasury bills offer are issued at a discount from the par value.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)3 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only

The RBI manages and services securities for both the Centre and the states, so statement 1 is wrong. Only the Central Government issues Treasury Bills, at a discount to face value, so statements 2 and 3 are correct.

View this question →

57.Environment & Ecology

Consider the following statements:

1.The Earth's magnetic field has reversed every few hundred thousand years.
2.When the Earth was created more than 4000 million years ago, there was 54% oxygen and no carbon dioxide.
3.When living organisms originated, they modified the early atmosphere of the Earth.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

Magnetic field reversals and life modifying the atmosphere are both correct. Early Earth did not have 54% oxygen. Related: EnvEco0152 — Earths Magnetic Field and Early Atmosphere.

58.Science & Tech

The terms 'WannaCry, Petya and EternalBlue' sometimes mentioned in the news recently are related to

(a)Exoplanets
(b)Cryptocurrency
(c)Cyber attacks
(d)Mini satellites

Answer: (c) Cyber attacks

WannaCry, Petya, and EternalBlue are all terms related to cyber attacks. Related: SciTech0188 — WannaCry, Petya, and EternalBlue.

59.Environment & Ecology

With reference to the circumstances in Indian agriculture, the concept of “Conservation Agriculture” assumes significance. Which of the following fall under the Conservation Agriculture?

1.Avoiding the monoculture practices
2.Adopting minimum tillage
3.Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops
4.Using crop residues to cover soil surface
5.Adopting spatial and temporal crop sequencing/crop rotations

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1, 3 and 4
(b)2, 3, 4 and 5
(c)2, 4 and 5
(d)1, 2, 3 and 5

Answer: (c) 2, 4 and 5

FAO’s three core Conservation Agriculture principles are minimum tillage, permanent soil cover (crop residue), and crop rotation/diversification. Avoiding plantation crops is not a real CA principle. Related: EnvEco0089 — Conservation Agriculture: The Three Real Principles.

View this question →

60.Environment & Ecology

The term “sixth mass extinction/sixth extinction” is often mentioned in the news in the context of the discussion of

(a)Widespread monoculture practices in agriculture and large-scale commercial farming with indiscriminate use of chemicals in many parts of the world that may result in the loss of good native ecosystems.
(b)Fears of a possible collision of a meteorite with the Earth in the near future in the manner it happened 65 million years ago that caused the mass extinction of many species including those of dinosaurs.
(c)Large scale cultivation of genetically modified crops in many parts of the world and promoting their cultivation in other parts of the world which may cause the disappearance of good native crop plants and the loss of food biodiversity.
(d)Mankind's over-exploitation/misuse of natural resources, fragmentation/loss of natural habitats, destruction of ecosystems, pollution and global climate change.

Answer: (d) Mankind’s over-exploitation/misuse of natural resources, fragmentation/loss of natural habitats, destruction of ecosystems, pollution and global climate change.

The sixth mass extinction refers to humanity entering an era of unprecedented biodiversity loss due to human activity. Related: EnvEco0153 — Sixth Mass Extinction.

Questions 61–70

61.Science & Tech

With reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the following statements:

1.IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits.
2.IRNSS covers entire India and about 5500 sq. km beyond its borders.
3.India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2019.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)1 and 2 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)None

Answer: (a) 1 only

IRNSS genuinely has 3 geostationary and 4 geosynchronous satellites, but its real coverage is about 1,500 km beyond India, not 5,500 sq. km, and it has no full global coverage. Related: SciTech0014 — Navigation Technology.

62.Science & Tech

Consider the following phenomena:

1.Light is affected by gravity.
2.The Universe is constantly expanding.
3.Matter warps its surrounding space-time.

Which of the above is/are the prediction/predictions of Albert Einstein's General Theory of Relativity, often discussed in media?

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

General Relativity genuinely predicts that light is affected by gravity, the universe expands, and matter warps space-time. Related: SciTech0189 — What Einstein’s General Relativity Actually Predicts.

63.Science & Tech

With reference to the Genetically Modified mustard (GM mustard) developed in India, consider the following statements:

1.GM mustard has the genes of a soil bacterium that give the plant the property of pest-resistance to a wide variety of pests.
2.GM mustard has the genes that allow the plant cross-pollination and hybridization.
3.GM mustard has been developed jointly by the IARI and Punjab Agricultural University.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 and 3 only
(b)2 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 only

GM mustard’s soil-bacterium genes enable hybridization, not pest resistance, and it was developed by Delhi University, not IARI/Punjab Agricultural University. Related: SciTech0037 — GM Crops and Biotechnology Regulation in India.

64.Science & Tech

Consider the following pairs: (Terms sometimes seen in news — Context/Topic)

1.Belle II experiment — Artificial Intelligence
2.Blockchain technology — Digital/Cryptocurrency
3.CRISPR – Cas9 — Particle Physics

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a)1 and 3 only
(b)2 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 only

Only “Blockchain technology — Digital/Cryptocurrency” is correctly matched; Belle II is particle physics, and CRISPR-Cas9 is gene editing, not particle physics. Related: SciTech0190 — Belle II, Blockchain, and CRISPR-Cas9.

65.Environment & Ecology

Which of the following statements best describes “carbon fertilization”?

(a)Increased plant growth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
(b)Increased temperature of Earth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
(c)Increased acidity of oceans as a result of increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
(d)Adaptation of all living beings on Earth to the climate change brought about by the increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

Answer: (a) Increased plant growth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

Carbon fertilization is the increased plant growth caused by higher atmospheric carbon dioxide concentration. Related: EnvEco0154 — Carbon Fertilization Effect.

66.Science & Tech

When the alarm of your smartphone rings in the morning, you wake up and tap it to stop the alarm which causes your geyser to be switched on automatically. The smart mirror in your bathroom shows the day's weather and also indicates the level of water in your overhead tank. After you take some groceries from your refrigerator for making breakfast, it recognises the shortage of stock in it and places an order for the supply of fresh grocery items. When you step out of your house and lock the door, all lights, fans, geysers and AC machines get switched off automatically. On your way to office, your car warns you about traffic congestion ahead and suggests an alternative route, and if you are late for a meeting, it sends a message to your office accordingly. In the context of emerging communication technologies, which one of the following terms best applies to the above scenario?

(a)Border Gateway Protocol
(b)Internet of Things
(c)Internet Protocol
(d)Virtual Private Network

Answer: (b) Internet of Things

The connected-home scenario describes the Internet of Things, not a networking protocol or a VPN. Related: SciTech0191 — The Internet of Things in a Smart Home.

67.Science & Tech

With reference to solar power production in India, consider the following statements:

1.India is the third largest in the world in the manufacture of silicon wafers used in photovoltaic units.
2.The solar power tariffs are determined by the Solar Energy Corporation of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

India is not among the top manufacturers of silicon wafers for photovoltaic units, and solar tariffs are set through competitive bidding, not directly by SECI. Related: IndEco0121 — Solar Energy in India.

68.History & Culture

The staple commodities of export by the English East India Company from Bengal in the middle of the 18th century were

(a)Raw cotton, oil-seeds and opium
(b)Sugar, salt, zinc and lead
(c)Copper, silver, gold, spices and tea
(d)Cotton, silk, saltpetre and opium

Answer: (d) Cotton, silk, saltpetre and opium

The English East India Company exported cotton, silk, saltpetre and opium from Bengal in the mid-18th century. These staples fed the Company’s trade with Europe and China. The other combinations do not match the recorded export lists.

69.History & Culture

Which one of the following is a very significant aspect of the Champaran Satyagraha?

(a)Active all-India participation of lawyers, students and women in the National Movement
(b)Active involvement of Dalit and Tribal communities of India in the National Movement
(c)Joining of peasant unrest to India's National Movement
(d)Drastic decrease in the cultivation of plantation crops and commercial crops

Answer: (c) Joining of peasant unrest to India’s National Movement

This was Gandhi’s first Satyagraha inside India. For the first time, peasant farmers and middle-class Congress leaders worked side by side on a shared cause.

70.History & Culture

Who among the following were the founders of the “Hind Mazdoor Sabha” established in 1948?

(a)B. Krishna Pillai, E.M.S. Namboodiripad and K.C. George
(b)Jayaprakash Narayan, Deen Dayal Upadhyay and M.N. Roy
(c)C.P. Ramaswamy Iyer, K. Kamaraj and Veeresalingam Pantulu
(d)Ashok Mehta, T.S. Ramanujam and G.G. Mehta

Answer: (d) Ashok Mehta, T.S. Ramanujam and G.G. Mehta

Hind Mazdoor Sabha was founded in 1948 by Ashok Mehta, T.S. Ramanujam and G.G. Mehta. It was a socialist-oriented trade union federation. The other names belong to communist or different political traditions.

Questions 71–80

71.History & Culture

With reference to the religious practices in India, the “Sthanakvasi” sect belongs to

(a)Buddhism
(b)Jainism
(c)Vaishnavism
(d)Shaivism

Answer: (b) Jainism

Sthanakvasi is a reformist sect of the Svetambara branch of Jainism. It rejects idol worship and emphasises prayer instead. It has no connection with Buddhism, Vaishnavism or Shaivism.

72.History & Culture

With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following statements:

1.White marble was used in making Buland Darwaza and Khankah at Fatehpur Sikri.
2.Red sandstone and marble were used in making Bara Imambara and Rumi Darwaza at Lucknow.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Buland Darwaza at Fatehpur Sikri is built of red sandstone, not white marble, so Statement 1 is wrong. Bara Imambara and Rumi Darwaza at Lucknow were built with lakhauri bricks and lime mortar, so Statement 2 is also wrong. White marble in Mughal buildings became common only under Shah Jahan.

73.History & Culture

Which one of the following foreign travellers elaborately discussed about diamonds and diamond mines of India?

(a)Francois Bernier
(b)Jean-Baptiste Tavernier
(c)Jean de Thevenot
(d)Abbe Barthelemy Carre

Answer: (b) Jean-Baptiste Tavernier

Tavernier’s Travels in India gives detailed accounts of diamonds and the Golconda mines. Bernier wrote about the Mughal court and society, not diamonds in such detail. Thevenot and Carre did not elaborate on diamond mining like Tavernier did.

74.History & Culture

With reference to Indian history, who among the following is a future Buddha, yet to come to save the world?

(a)Avalokiteshvara
(b)Lokesvara
(c)Maitreya
(d)Padmapani

Answer: (c) Maitreya

Maitreya is the prophesied future Buddha, currently a bodhisattva in Tushita heaven. Avalokiteshvara, Lokesvara, and Padmapani are all names for the Bodhisattva of Compassion, a distinct figure.

Related: ArtnCulture0067 — Maitreya

75.History & Culture

Which one of the following statements does not apply to the system of Subsidiary Alliance introduced by Lord Wellesley?

(a)To maintain a large standing army at other's expense
(b)To keep India safe from Napoleonic danger
(c)To secure a fixed income for the Company
(d)To establish British paramountcy over the Indian States

Answer: (c) To secure a fixed income for the Company

Subsidiary Alliance made Indian rulers pay for a British army stationed in their territory. Wellesley also wanted to check Napoleonic danger and extend British paramountcy. Securing a fixed income for the Company was not one of its stated purposes.

76.History & Culture

Which of the following led to the introduction of English Education in India?

1.Charter Act of 1813
2.General Committee of Public Instruction, 1823
3.Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

The Charter Act of 1813 first earmarked funds for education in India. The General Committee of Public Instruction, set up in 1823, administered that education. The Orientalist-Anglicist controversy settled the medium question in favour of English.

77.Geography

Which one of the following is an artificial lake?

(a)Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)
(b)Kolleru (Andhra Pradesh)
(c)Nainital (Uttarakhand)
(d)Renuka (Himachal Pradesh)

Answer: (a) Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)

Kodaikanal Lake was created in 1863, when the Collector of Madurai dammed a marshy area’s outlet. Kolleru, Nainital, and Renuka are all natural lakes.

Related: IndGeo0142 — Kodaikanal Lake

View this question →

78.Economy

With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements:

1.It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
2.It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy.
3.It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 and 3 only
(b)2 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only.

PMKVY is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship, not the Ministry of Labour and Employment, so statement 1 is false. Statements 2 and 3 are both true.

79.History & Culture

In 1920, which of the following changed its name to “Swarajya Sabha”?

(a)All India Home Rule League
(b)Hindu Mahasabha
(c)South Indian Liberal Federation
(d)The Servants of India Society

Answer: (a) All India Home Rule League

The All India Home Rule League changed its name to Swarajya Sabha in 1920, after Gandhi took over its presidency. The Hindu Mahasabha, South Indian Liberal Federation, and Servants of India Society were all separate organisations that made no such change.

80.History & Culture

Which among the following events happened earliest?

(a)Swami Dayanand established Arya Samaj.
(b)Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan.
(c)Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote Anandmath.
(d)Satyendranath Tagore became the first Indian to succeed in the Indian Civil Services Examination.

Answer: (b) Neeldarpan

Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan in 1860, the earliest of the four events. Satyendranath Tagore passed the ICS in 1863 and Arya Samaj was founded in 1875. Anandmath was published later, in 1882.

Questions 81–90

81.Environment & Ecology

Which of the following is/are the possible consequence/s of heavy sand mining in riverbeds?

1.Decreased salinity in the river
2.Pollution of groundwater
3.Lowering of the water-table

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Pollution of groundwater and lowering of the water table are genuine consequences of heavy sand mining. Decreased salinity is not a documented outcome. Related: EnvEco0122 — Sand Mining Consequences.

View this question →

82.Environment & Ecology

With reference to agricultural soils, consider the following statements:

1.A high content of organic matter in soil drastically reduces its water holding capacity.
2.Soil does not play any role in the sulphur cycle.
3.Irrigation over a period of time can contribute to the salinization of some agricultural lands.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 3 only

Organic matter increases, not decreases, water-holding capacity. Soil does play a role in the sulfur cycle. Irrigation over time can cause salinization of agricultural land. Related: IndGeo0018 — Saline and Alkaline Soil of India.

View this question →

83.Int'l Relations & Defence

The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE), a UN mechanism to assist countries transition towards greener and more inclusive economies, emerged at

(a)The Earth Summit on Sustainable Development 2002, Johannesburg
(b)The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro
(c)The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change 2015, Paris
(d)The World Sustainable Development Summit 2016, New Delhi

Answer: (b) The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro

PAGE emerged at Rio+20, uniting UNEP, ILO, UNDP, UNIDO, and UNITAR.

84.Science & Tech

“3D printing” has applications in which of the following?

1.Preparation of confectionery items
2.Manufacture of bionic ears
3.Automotive industry
4.Reconstructive surgeries
5.Data processing technologies

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1, 3 and 4 only
(b)2, 3 and 5 only
(c)1 and 4 only
(d)1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

3D printing genuinely has applications across all five areas: confectionery, bionic ears, automotive parts, reconstructive surgery, and data processing. Related: SciTech0031 — 3D-Printing: Applications and India Context.

85.Geography

Consider the following statements:

1.The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory.
2.Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar.
3.The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)2 and 3
(c)3 only
(d)1 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 only

Barren Island is genuinely India’s only active volcano. It sits about 135 km northeast of Port Blair, nowhere near Great Nicobar, and it has erupted repeatedly since 1991, including in 1995 and 2017.

Related: IndGeo0143 — Barren Island

View this question →

86.Environment & Ecology

Why is a plant called Prosopis juliflora often mentioned in news?

(a)Its extract is widely used in cosmetics.
(b)It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it grows.
(c)Its extract is used in the synthesis of pesticides.
(d)None of the above

Answer: (b) It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it grows.

Prosopis juliflora is often mentioned in news because it tends to reduce biodiversity in the area it grows. Related: EnvEco0155 — Prosopis Juliflora.

87.Environment & Ecology

Consider the following statements:

1.Most of the world's coral reefs are in tropical waters.
2.More than one-third of the world's coral reefs are located in the territories of Australia, Indonesia and Philippines.
3.Coral reefs host far more number of animal phyla than those hosted by tropical rainforests.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

Most coral reefs are in tropical waters and host more animal phyla than rainforests, per UPSC’s official key. Related: EnvEco0156 — Coral Reefs.

88.Int'l Relations & Defence

“Momentum for Change : Climate Neutral Now” is an initiative launched by

(a)The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
(b)The UNEP Secretariat
(c)The UNFCCC Secretariat
(d)The World Meteorological Organization

Answer: (c) The UNFCCC Secretariat

It launched Momentum for Change in 2011, later folding in Climate Neutral Now from 2015.

89.History & Culture

With reference to educational institutions during colonial rule in India, consider the following pairs: (Institution — Founder)

1.Sanskrit College at Benaras — William Jones
2.Calcutta Madarsa — Warren Hastings
3.Fort William College — Arthur Wellesley

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?

(a)1 and 2
(b)2 only
(c)1 and 3
(d)3 only

Answer: (b) 2 only

Calcutta Madrasa was founded by Warren Hastings in 1781, so Pair 2 is correct. Sanskrit College at Benaras was founded by Jonathan Duncan, not William Jones. Fort William College was established by Lord Wellesley, not Arthur Wellesley.

90.Int'l Relations & Defence

Consider the following pairs: (Regions sometimes mentioned in news — Country)

1.Catalonia — Spain
2.Crimea — Hungary
3.Mindanao — Philippines
4.Oromia — Nigeria

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a)1, 2 and 3
(b)3 and 4 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)2 and 4 only

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

Catalonia is in Spain and Mindanao is in the Philippines, both correctly matched. Crimea belongs to Ukraine, not Hungary. Oromia is in Ethiopia, not Nigeria.

Questions 91–100

91.History & Culture

Consider the following events:

1.The first democratically elected communist party government formed in a State in India.
2.India's then largest bank, 'Imperial Bank of India', was renamed 'State Bank of India'.
3.Air India was nationalised and became the national carrier.
4.Goa became a part of independent India.

Which of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?

(a)4-1-2-3
(b)3-2-1-4
(c)4-2-1-3
(d)3-1-2-4

Answer: (b) 3-2-1-4

Air India was nationalised in 1953, the Imperial Bank was renamed State Bank of India in 1955, Kerala’s communist government formed in 1957, and Goa became part of independent India in 1961.

92.Polity & Governance

Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement?

(a)Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution
(b)Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV
(c)Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III
(d)Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution

Answer: (c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III

The Supreme Court’s 2017 Puttaswamy judgment placed the Right to Privacy under Article 21, as part of the right to life and personal liberty, distributed across the freedoms guaranteed in Part III.

93.Economy

Consider the following:

1.Areca nut
2.Barley
3.Coffee
4.Finger millet
5.Groundnut
6.Sesamum
7.Turmeric

The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has announced the Minimum Support Price for which of the above?

(a)1, 2, 3 and 7 only
(b)2, 4, 5 and 6 only
(c)1, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only
(d)1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7

Answer: (b) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only

Barley, finger millet (ragi), groundnut, and sesamum (til) are all CACP-recommended MSP crops. Areca nut, coffee, and turmeric are plantation or spice crops with no MSP cover.

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94.Environment & Ecology

In which one of the following States is Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary located?

(a)Arunachal Pradesh
(b)Manipur
(c)Meghalaya
(d)Nagaland

Answer: (a) Arunachal Pradesh

Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary, now known as Pakke Tiger Reserve, is located in East Kameng district, Arunachal Pradesh. Related: EnvEco0120 — Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary.

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95.Science & Tech

With reference to India's satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements:

1.PSLVs launch the satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites.
2.Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth.
3.GSLV Mk III is a four-staged launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors; and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)2 and 3
(c)1 and 2
(d)3 only

Answer: (a) 1 only

PSLVs launch Earth-resources satellites while GSLVs launch comm satellites, but PSLV satellites don’t appear fixed in the sky, and GSLV Mk III is a three-stage, not four-stage, vehicle. Related: SciTech0013 — Launch Vehicles.

96.Economy

With reference to the governance of public sector banking in India, consider the following statements:

1.Capital infusion into public sector banks by the Government of India has steadily increased in the last decade.
2.To put the public sector banks in order, the merger of associate banks with the parent State Bank of India has been affected.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Statement 1 is wrong. CAG Report No. 28 of 2017 found capital infusion into public sector banks from 2008-09 to 2016-17 was irregular, not a steady year-on-year rise; a ₹2.11 lakh crore package followed in October 2017. Statement 2 is correct. Five SBI associate banks and Bharatiya Mahila Bank merged into SBI, effective 1 April 2017, as part of the broader PSB consolidation drive.

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97.Economy

Consider the following items:

1.Cereal grains hulled
2.Chicken eggs cooked
3.Fish processed and canned
4.Newspapers containing advertising material

Which of the above items is/are exempted under GST (Goods and Services Tax)?

(a)1 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1, 2 and 4 only
(d)1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 4 only

Hulled cereal grains carry a nil GST rate, so item 1 is exempt. Birds' eggs in shell are also nil-rated, and that exemption explicitly covers cooked eggs, so item 2 is exempt too.

Fresh, chilled, or frozen fish is exempt, but that exemption doesn't extend to processed and canned fish — a value-added product that is taxed. So item 3 is not exempt. Newspapers and periodicals are nil-rated even when they carry advertising material, so item 4 is exempt.

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98.Environment & Ecology

Consider the following statements:

1.The definition of “Critical Wildlife Habitat” is incorporated in the Forest Rights Act, 2006.
2.For the first time in India, Baigas have been given Habitat Rights.
3.Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change officially decides and declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

The Critical Wildlife Habitat definition and the Baigas’ precedent are correct. The Union Ministry claim is false. Related: EnvEco0157 — Critical Wildlife Habitat and Baiga Rights.

99.Environment & Ecology

Consider the following:

1.Birds
2.Dust blowing
3.Rain
4.Wind blowing

Which of the above spread plant diseases?

(a)1 and 3 only
(b)3 and 4 only
(c)1, 2 and 4 only
(d)1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Birds, dust blowing, rain, and wind blowing all genuinely spread plant diseases. Related: EnvEco0158 — What Spreads Plant Diseases.

100.Economy

With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements:

1.'The National Programme for Organic Production' (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development.
2.'The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority' (APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP.
3.Sikkim has become India's first fully organic State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Statement 1 is wrong: NPOP operates under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, not Rural Development. Statement 2 is correct: APEDA functions as NPOP’s Secretariat and accredits its certification bodies. Statement 3 is correct: Sikkim became India’s first fully organic state, formally announced on 18 January 2016.

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English-language questions transcribed from the official Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination, 2018 question booklet (CYRF-F-TXLI), General Studies Paper I. Hindi text omitted. Answer key not included.

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