General Studies — Paper I
Consider the following statements. How many of the statements given above are correct?
- 1.Jhelum River passes through Wular Lake.
- 2.Krishna River directly feeds Kolleru Lake.
- 3.Meandering of Gandak River formed Kanwar Lake.
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)All three
- (d)None
Answer: (a) Only one
The Jhelum River does pass through Wular Lake. But Kolleru Lake is fed directly by the seasonal Budameru and Tammileru streams, not by the Krishna River. And Kanwar Lake actually formed from the Burhi Gandak (Old Gandak), a separate river from the main Gandak named in the statement, so that statement is false too.
Related: IndGeo0040 — Wular Lake, IndGeo0125 — Kolleru Lake, IndGeo0126 — Kanwar Lake, IndGeo0127 — Lakes of India
Consider the following pairs. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
| Port | Well known as |
|---|---|
| 1. Kamarajar Port | First major port in India registered as a company |
| 2. Mundra Port | Largest privately owned port in India |
| 3. Visakhapatnam Port | Largest container port in India |
- (a)Only one pair
- (b)Only two pairs
- (c)All three pairs
- (d)None of the pairs
Answer: (b) Only two pairs
Kamarajar Port is India’s only corporatised major port, registered as a company. Mundra Port, run by Adani Ports, is India’s largest privately owned port. But Jawaharlal Nehru Port (JNPT), not Visakhapatnam, is India’s largest container port.
Related: IndEco0261 — Major Ports of India
Consider the following trees. How many of the above are deciduous trees?
- 1.Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus)
- 2.Mahua (Madhuca indica)
- 3.Teak (Tectona grandis)
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)All three
- (d)None
Answer: (b) Only two
Mahua and teak are both deciduous trees, common in India’s tropical deciduous forests, shedding their leaves in the dry season. Jackfruit is an evergreen tree, retaining its leaves year-round.
Related: EnvEco0071 — Deciduous vs. Evergreen Trees of India
Consider the following statements. How many of the above statements are correct?
- 1.India has more arable area than China.
- 2.The proportion of irrigated area is more in India as compared to China.
- 3.The average productivity per hectare in Indian agriculture is higher than that in China.
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)All three
- (d)None
Answer: (a) Only one
India does have more arable area than China. But China has a higher share of irrigated arable land (about 45%, versus India’s roughly 35%), and far higher cereal yields per hectare (China around 5.5 tonnes/hectare, versus India’s 3.3), per World Bank/FAO data.
Related: IndEco0263 — India vs. China
Which one of the following is the best example of repeated falls in sea level, giving rise to present-day extensive marshland?
- (a)Bhitarkanika Mangroves
- (b)Marakkanam Salt Pans
- (c)Naupada Swamp
- (d)Rann of Kutch
Answer: (d) Rann of Kutch
The Rann of Kutch, once part of the shallow Arabian Sea, formed through repeated falls in sea level over geological time, combined with tectonic uplift and sediment deposition, leaving behind today’s extensive salt marshland.
Related: IndGeo0036 — The Rann of Kutch
Ilmenite and rutile, abundantly available in certain coastal tracts of India, are rich sources of which one of the following?
- (a)Aluminium
- (b)Copper
- (c)Iron
- (d)Titanium
Answer: (d) Titanium
Ilmenite and rutile are the two principal titanium ore minerals found in India’s coastal heavy mineral sand deposits, most notably at Chavara, Kerala.
About three-fourths of world’s cobalt, a metal required for the manufacture of batteries for electric motor vehicles, is produced by
- (a)Argentina
- (b)Botswana
- (c)the Democratic Republic of the Congo
- (d)Kazakhstan
Answer: (c) the Democratic Republic of the Congo
The DRC produces roughly 74% of the world’s mined cobalt, per USGS Mineral Commodity Summaries.
Which one of the following is a part of the Congo Basin?
- (a)Cameroon
- (b)Nigeria
- (c)South Sudan
- (d)Uganda
Answer: (a) Cameroon
The Congo Basin spans six countries: Cameroon, the Central African Republic, the Republic of Congo, the Democratic Republic of Congo, Equatorial Guinea, and Gabon. Nigeria, South Sudan, and Uganda are not among them.
Related: EnvEco0060 — The Congo Basin Peatlands
Consider the following statements. How many of the statements given above are correct?
- 1.Amarkantak Hills are at the confluence of Vindhya and Sahyadri Ranges.
- 2.Biligirirangan Hills constitute the easternmost part of Satpura Range.
- 3.Seshachalam Hills constitute the southernmost part of Western Ghats.
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)All three
- (d)None
Answer: (d) None
Amarkantak Hills are at the confluence of the Vindhya and Satpura Ranges, not Vindhya and Sahyadri. Biligirirangan Hills link the Western and Eastern Ghats, not the Satpura Range. Seshachalam Hills are part of the Eastern Ghats, not the southernmost part of the Western Ghats.
With reference to India’s projects on connectivity, consider the following statements. How many of the above statements are correct?
- 1.East-West Corridor under Golden Quadrilateral Project connects Dibrugarh and Surat.
- 2.Trilateral Highway connects Moreh in Manipur and Chiang Mai in Thailand via Myanmar.
- 3.Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar Economic Corridor connects Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh with Kunming in China.
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)All three
- (d)None
Answer: (d) None
The East-West Corridor connects Silchar and Porbandar, not Dibrugarh and Surat. The Trilateral Highway connects Moreh and Mae Sot, not Chiang Mai. The BCIM Economic Corridor connects Kolkata and Kunming, not Varanasi.
Consider the following statements. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- 1.Statement-I: India, despite having uranium deposits, depends on coal for most of its electricity production.
- 2.Statement-II: Uranium, enriched to the extent of at least 60%, is required for the production of electricity.
- (a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- (b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- (c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- (d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
India’s nuclear capacity is only about 3% of its electricity, despite having uranium reserves — coal supplies most of the country’s power, so Statement-I holds. But civil power reactors run on natural or low-enriched uranium, well under 20% U-235; 60%+ enrichment is weapons-grade territory, not something electricity generation needs.
Related: SciTech0021 — Nuclear Energy Programmes of India · View this question
Consider the following statements. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- 1.Statement-I: Marsupials are not naturally found in India.
- 2.Statement-II: Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators.
- (a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- (b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- (c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- (d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
Marsupials aren’t naturally found in India — India split from Madagascar around 80 million years ago, before marsupials had even evolved, missing the southern dispersal route through Antarctica to Australia. But marsupials thrive in many habitats worldwide, from deserts to forests, and coexist with natural predators.
Related: EnvEco0072 — Why India Has No Marsupials · View this question
‘Invasive Species Specialist Group’ (that develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to which one of the following organizations?
- (a)The International Union for Conservation of Nature
- (b)The United Nations Environment Programme
- (c)The United Nations World Commission for Environment and Development
- (d)The World Wide Fund for Nature
Answer: (a) The International Union for Conservation of Nature
The Invasive Species Specialist Group (ISSG), which maintains the Global Invasive Species Database, operates under IUCN’s Species Survival Commission (SSC).
Related: EnvEco0073 — IUCN · View this question
Consider the following fauna. How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset?
- 1.Lion-tailed Macaque
- 2.Malabar Civet
- 3.Sambar Deer
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)All three
- (d)None
Official UPSC answer: (a) Only one
The official Series A key marks “Only one.” It gives no species-by-species reason.
The Lion-tailed Macaque is active by day. The Malabar Civet is usually described as nocturnal, but direct field evidence is thin.
Sambar may be active at dusk and at night. That makes the wording hard to interpret. Do not treat the key as proof that sambar never move after sunset.
Sources: UPSC 2023 question paper, Q14 · official answer key scan, Series A, Q14 · Malabar Civet evidence review
Related: EnvEco0074 — Lion-tailed Macaque, EnvEco0075 — Malabar Civet, EnvEco0076 — Sambar Deer · View this question
Which of the following organisms perform waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food?
- (a)Butterflies
- (b)Dragonflies
- (c)Honeybees
- (d)Wasps
Answer: (c) Honeybees
Karl von Frisch discovered that honeybees perform a figure-eight waggle dance to tell other bees the direction and distance to a food source, work that earned him a share of the 1973 Nobel Prize.
Related: EnvEco0077 — Waggle Dance of Honeybees · View this question
Consider the following statements. How many of the above statements are correct?
- 1.Some mushrooms have medicinal properties.
- 2.Some mushrooms have psychoactive properties.
- 3.Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties.
- 4.Some mushrooms have bioluminescent properties.
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)Only three
- (d)All four
Answer: (d) All four
All four statements are correct. Mushrooms are documented to have medicinal properties (reishi, shiitake), psychoactive properties (psilocybin mushrooms), insecticidal properties (Beauveria bassiana), and bioluminescent properties (Omphalotus, Mycena).
Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels. How many of the above statements are correct?
- 1.They build nests by making burrows in the ground.
- 2.They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground.
- 3.They are omnivorous.
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)All three
- (d)None
Answer: (b) Only two
Indian squirrels build nests in trees, not by burrowing into the ground, so Statement 1 is false. They do store food like nuts and seeds in the ground (Statement 2, true), and they are omnivorous (Statement 3, true).
Consider the following statements. How many of the above statements are correct?
- 1.Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature above the boiling point of water.
- 2.Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature below the freezing point of water.
- 3.Some microorganisms can grow in highly acidic environment with a pH below 3.
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)All three
- (d)None
Answer: (c) All three
All three statements are correct. Hyperthermophiles grow above the boiling point of water, psychrophiles grow below the freezing point, and acidophiles grow at pH below 3 — all genuine, documented extremophile categories.
Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood?
- (a)Fishing cat
- (b)Orangutan
- (c)Otter
- (d)Sloth bear
Answer: (b) Orangutan
Orangutans strip the leaves off a stick and use the resulting tool to scrape insects out of a hole in a tree or a log of wood — a well-documented example of toolmaking, not just tool use, in a non-human primate.
Consider the following. In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used?
- 1.Aerosols
- 2.Foam agents
- 3.Fire retardants
- 4.Lubricants
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)Only three
- (d)All four
Answer: (c) Only three
Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) are used as propellants in aerosols and as blowing agents in foam manufacturing. They also serve as clean fire-suppression agents, replacing ozone-depleting halons. HFCs are not typically used to make lubricants.
Related: EnvEco0017 — Ozone Layer Protection · View this question
Consider the following statements. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- 1.Statement-I: Interest income from the deposits in Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) distributed to their investors is exempted from tax, but the dividend is taxable.
- 2.Statement-II: InvITs are recognized as borrowers under the ‘Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002’.
- (a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- (b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- (c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- (d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
Prior to Budget 2023 changes, interest-income distributions from InvITs were tax-exempt to investors, while dividend distributions were taxable at slab rate. Separately, a 2021 Finance Act amendment recognised InvITs as ‘borrowers’ under the SARFAESI Act, 2002 — correct, but unrelated to the tax treatment.
Related: IndEco0264 — Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) · View this question
Consider the following statements. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- 1.Statement-I: In the post-pandemic recent past, many Central Banks worldwide had carried out interest rate hikes.
- 2.Statement-II: Central Banks generally assume that they have the ability to counteract the rising consumer prices via monetary policy means.
- (a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- (b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- (c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- (d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
Central banks worldwide raised interest rates sharply from 2021-22 onward to fight post-pandemic inflation. Raising rates to cool demand and tame inflation is the core premise of standard monetary policy — exactly why the hikes happened, so Statement-II explains Statement-I.
Related: IndEco0057 — Monetary Policy and RBI Tools · View this question
Consider the following statements. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- 1.Statement-I: Carbon markets are likely to be one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change.
- 2.Statement-II: Carbon markets transfer resources from the private sector to the State.
- (a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- (b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- (c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- (d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (b) Both statements are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.
A government may auction allowances to firms and receive the payment. Firms may also trade allowances with each other. The carbon price rewards lower emissions. State revenue alone does not explain why carbon markets can help the climate.
Official UPSC key scan, Series A, Q23 · ICAP on auctions
Related: EnvEco0078 — Carbon Markets · View this question
Which one of the following activities of the Reserve Bank of India is considered to be part of ‘sterilization’?
- (a)Conducting ‘Open Market Operations’
- (b)Oversight of settlement and payment systems
- (c)Debt and cash management for the Central and State Governments
- (d)Regulating the functions of Non-banking Financial Institutions
Answer: (a) Conducting ‘Open Market Operations’
Sterilization is how the RBI offsets the monetary impact of forex intervention. When it buys foreign currency and injects rupees into the system, it sells government securities via Open Market Operations to soak that liquidity back up.
Related: IndEco0057 — Monetary Policy and RBI Tools · View this question
Consider the following markets. How many of the above are included in capital markets?
- 1.Government Bond Market
- 2.Call Money Market
- 3.Treasury Bill Market
- 4.Stock Market
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)Only three
- (d)All four
Answer: (b) Only two
Capital markets deal in long-term instruments — the Government Bond Market and Stock Market both qualify. The Call Money Market and Treasury Bill Market are both short-term money-market instruments instead.
Related: IndEco0008 — Capital Market in India · View this question
Which one of the following best describes the concept of ‘Small Farmer Large Field’?
- (a)Resettlement of a large number of people, uprooted from their countries due to war, by giving them a large cultivable land which they cultivate collectively and share the produce
- (b)Many marginal farmers in an area organize themselves into groups and synchronize and harmonize selected agricultural operations
- (c)Many marginal farmers in an area together make a contract with a corporate body and surrender their land to the corporate body for a fixed term for which the corporate body makes a payment of agreed amount to the farmers
- (d)A company extends loans, technical knowledge and material inputs to a number of small farmers in an area so that they produce the agricultural commodity required by the company for its manufacturing process and commercial production
Answer: (b) Many marginal farmers in an area organize themselves into groups and synchronize and harmonize selected agricultural operations
This is the Small Farmer Large Field (SFLF) model, built by CIMMYT and partners and backed by NITI Aayog. Farmers keep their own land and crop choices, and only synchronize operations like sowing, spraying, and harvesting across their plots together.
Related: IndEco0272 — Farmer Producer Organisations (FPOs) and Collective-Action Farming Models
Consider the following statements. How many of the above statements are correct?
- 1.The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for niger (Guizotia abyssinica) seeds.
- 2.Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop.
- 3.Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil for cooking.
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)All three
- (d)None
Answer: (c) All three
The Centre fixes a Minimum Support Price for niger seed, one of eight oilseeds on the MSP list. For Kharif Marketing Season 2023-24, niger seed MSP was ₹7,734 per quintal. Niger is grown mainly as a rain-fed Kharif crop. Tribal communities in states like Odisha, Chhattisgarh, and Madhya Pradesh traditionally use niger seed oil for cooking.
Related: IndEco0029 — Support Pricing System and MSP Mechanics
Consider the investments in the following assets. How many of the above are considered intangible investments?
- 1.Brand recognition
- 2.Inventory
- 3.Intellectual property
- 4.Mailing list of clients
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)Only three
- (d)All four
Answer: (c) Only three
Brand recognition, intellectual property, and a client mailing list are intangible investments. They have no physical form. Their value comes from reputation, legal rights, or customer relationships, not physical output. Inventory is the odd one out. It is a tangible asset instead — physical stock of raw materials, work-in-progress, or finished goods, held for production or sale.
View this question → · Related: IndEco0273 — Tangible vs. Intangible Investments
Consider the following. For the horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used how many of the above as criteria other than population, area and income distance?
- 1.Demographic performance
- 2.Forest and ecology
- 3.Governance reforms
- 4.Stable government
- 5.Tax and fiscal efforts
- (a)Only two
- (b)Only three
- (c)Only four
- (d)All five
Answer: (b) Only three
The Fifteenth Finance Commission used demographic performance, forest and ecology, and tax and fiscal efforts as additional criteria. Governance reforms and stable government were not used.
Related: Polity0341 — The Finance Commission of India · View this question →
Consider the following infrastructure sectors. On how many of the above does UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiative focus for its investments?
- 1.Affordable housing
- 2.Mass rapid transport
- 3.Health care
- 4.Renewable energy
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)Only three
- (d)All four
Answer: (c) Only three
UNOPS describes S3i’s focus as affordable housing, renewable energy and health. That is three sectors. Mass rapid transport was never one of S3i’s stated pillars.
Related: IntlRel0104 — UNOPS and UN Funds, Programmes and Subsidiary Bodies
In essence, what does ‘Due Process of Law’ mean?
- (a)The principle of natural justice
- (b)The procedure established by law
- (c)Fair application of law
- (d)Equality before law
Answer: (c) Fair application of law
‘Due process’ tests whether a law is fair in itself, unlike ‘procedure established by law’ — India’s original Article 21 standard — which only asks whether a valid procedure was followed. The 1978 Maneka Gandhi case effectively imported due-process-style review.
Related: Polity0345 — Due Process of Law · View this question
Consider the following statements. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- 1.Statement-I: In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons.
- 2.Statement-II: In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments.
- (a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- (b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- (c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- (d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
Prisons are managed by State Governments, per Entry 4 of the State List. The colonial-era Prisons Act, 1894, expressly placed prisons under Provincial Government control — directly explaining why prisons remained a State subject.
Related: Polity0346 — Prison Administration in India · View this question
Which one of the following statements best reflects the chief purpose of the ‘Constitution’ of a country?
- (a)It determines the objective for the making of necessary laws.
- (b)It enables the creation of political offices and a government.
- (c)It defines and limits the powers of government.
- (d)It secures social justice, social equality and social security.
Answer: (c) It defines and limits the powers of government.
A constitution’s core purpose, per constitutionalism theory, is to define and limit the powers of government. Creating offices, guiding lawmaking, and securing social justice follow from that deeper purpose, not the other way round.
Related: Polity0347 — Constitutionalism · View this question
In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights?
- (a)1st Amendment
- (b)42nd Amendment
- (c)44th Amendment
- (d)86th Amendment
Answer: (a) 1st Amendment
The 1st Amendment (1951) added the Ninth Schedule and Article 31B to shield laws like zamindari-abolition land reforms — which courts had struck down as violating Fundamental Rights — from further judicial challenge.
Related: Polity0348 — First Amendment, 1951 · IndEco0037 — Land Reforms: Implementation and Debates · View this question
Consider the following organizations/bodies in India. How many of the above are constitutional bodies?
- 1.The National Commission for Backward Classes
- 2.The National Human Rights Commission
- 3.The National Law Commission
- 4.The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)Only three
- (d)All four
Answer: (a) Only one
Only the National Commission for Backward Classes is constitutional (Article 338B, added by the 102nd Amendment, 2018). The NHRC, Law Commission, and NCDRC are all statutory or non-statutory bodies.
Related: Polity0033 — Constitutional Bodies · View this question
Consider the following statements. How many of the above statements are correct?
- 1.If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid.
- 2.Election for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place.
- 3.When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent.
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)All three
- (d)None
Answer: (d) None
A void election does not invalidate the President’s earlier official acts — Article 71(2) protects them. Dissolved State Assemblies are not grounds to postpone the election — Article 62 requires it to be completed before the term expires regardless. And no constitutional time limit governs the President’s assent to a Bill — Article 111 only says “as soon as possible.”
Related: Polity0047 — The President of India
With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements. How many of the above statements are correct?
- 1.When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill.
- 2.When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations.
- 3.In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill.
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)All three
- (d)None
Answer: (b) Only two
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 overstates it — Article 108 makes a joint sitting possible for resolving a Finance Bill deadlock, not necessary, and a Money Bill never goes to a joint sitting at all.
Related: Polity0026 — Legislative Procedure and Financial Control in Parliament · View this question →
Once the Central Government notifies an area as a ‘Community Reserve’. How many of the above statements are correct?
- 1.the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest
- 2.hunting is not allowed in such area
- 3.people of such area are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce
- 4.people of such area are allowed traditional agricultural practices
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)Only three
- (d)All four
Answer: (b) Only two.
Only statements 2 and 3 are correct. A Community Reserve is run by a local management committee, not the Chief Wildlife Warden, and traditional agriculture is not automatically allowed.
Related: EnvEco0177 — Community Reserves: Locally Governed, Not State-Governed · View this question →
With reference to ‘Scheduled Areas’ in India, consider the following statements. How many of the above statements are correct?
- 1.Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President.
- 2.The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block.
- 3.The Chief Ministers of the concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States.
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)All three
- (d)None
Answer: (b) Only two
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong on two counts: it’s the Governor, not the Chief Minister, who reports, and the report goes to the President, not the Union Home Ministry.
Related: Polity0353 — The Fifth Schedule of the Indian Constitution · View this question →
Consider the following statements. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- 1.Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgements that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of administration.
- 2.Statement-II: Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term ‘efficiency of administration’.
- (a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- (b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- (c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- (d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
The Supreme Court genuinely has limited Article 16(4) reservations via Article 335’s efficiency language. But Article 335’s own text never defines the term “efficiency of administration” — it only requires reservation claims be considered consistently with it.
Related: Polity0096 — Revisiting the 50% Cap on Reservation · View this question →
In which one of the following regions was Dhanyakataka, which flourished as a prominent Buddhist centre under the Mahasanghikas, located?
- (a)Andhra
- (b)Gandhara
- (c)Kalinga
- (d)Magadha
Answer: (a) Andhra
Dhanyakataka, associated with the Amaravati Stupa, was located in the Andhra region, on the banks of the Krishna river. It flourished as a major seat of the Mahasanghika school, especially under Satavahana patronage.
Related: AncHist0123 — The Amaravati Stupa · View this question
With reference to ancient India, consider the following statements. How many of the statements given above are correct?
- 1.The concept of Stupa is Buddhist in origin.
- 2.Stupa was generally a repository of relics.
- 3.Stupa was a votive and commemorative structure in Buddhist tradition.
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)All three
- (d)None
Answer: (b) Only two
The stupa is NOT Buddhist in origin — it began as a pre-Buddhist burial mound tradition in India, later adopted by Buddhism. Statements 2 and 3 are correct: stupas were relic repositories and votive, commemorative structures.
Related: AncHist0123 — The Amaravati Stupa · View this question
With reference to ancient South India, Korkai, Poompuhar and Muchiri were well known as
- (a)capital cities
- (b)ports
- (c)centres of iron-and-steel making
- (d)shrines of Jain Tirthankaras
Answer: (b) ports
Korkai (Pandya port, famous for pearl fishing), Poompuhar/Kaveripattinam (premier Chola port), and Muchiri/Muziris (Chera port, key hub for Roman trade) were the three great Sangam-era ports of ancient South India.
Related: AncHist0026 — The Sangam Age · View this question
Which one of the following explains the practice of ‘Vattakirutal’ as mentioned in Sangam poems?
- (a)Kings employing women bodyguards
- (b)Learned persons assembling in royal courts to discuss religious and philosophical matters
- (c)Young girls keeping watch over agricultural fields and driving away birds and animals
- (d)A king defeated in a battle committing ritual suicide by starving himself to death
Answer: (d) A king defeated in a battle committing ritual suicide by starving himself to death
Vattakirutal (also Vatakkiruttal), meaning ‘sitting facing north,’ describes a defeated Tamil king’s ritual suicide by fasting to death, chosen to avoid the humiliation of capture.
Related: AncHist0025 — The Sangam Age: Literature and Society · View this question
Consider the following dynasties. How many of the above dynasties established their kingdoms in early eighth century AD?
- 1.Hoysala
- 2.Gahadavala
- 3.Kakatiya
- 4.Yadava
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)Only three
- (d)None
Answer: (d) None
None of these were founded in the early 8th century AD. Hoysala rose around 950-1006 CE, Gahadavala around 1090 CE, Kakatiya became sovereign in 1163 CE, and Yadava reached full independence in the 13th century.
Related: MedHist0091 — Successor Kingdoms of Medieval India · View this question
With reference to ancient Indian History, consider the following pairs. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
| Literary work | Author |
|---|---|
| 1. Devichandragupta | Bilhana |
| 2. Hammira-Mahakavya | Nayachandra Suri |
| 3. Milinda-panha | Nagarjuna |
| 4. Nitivakyamrita | Somadeva Suri |
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)Only three
- (d)All four
Answer: (c) Only three
Hammira-Mahakavya by Nayachandra Suri and Nitivakyamrita by Somadeva Suri are correctly matched. Devichandragupta is a play by Vishakhadatta, not by Bilhana, and Milinda-panha is a dialogue between King Menander and the monk Nagasena. So only two of the four pairs are correct.
Related: AncHist0002 — Vedic and Puranic Literature as Historical Sources
“Souls are not only the property of animal and plant life, but also of rocks, running water and many other natural objects not looked on as living by other religious sects.” The above statement reflects one of the core beliefs of which one of the following religious sects of ancient India?
- (a)Buddhism
- (b)Jainism
- (c)Shaivism
- (d)Vaishnavism
Answer: (b) Jainism
Jainism teaches that souls (jiva) exist in all natural objects, including rocks, water, air and fire. This belief is why Jain monks observe extreme care towards every element of nature. Buddhism, Shaivism and Vaishnavism do not extend sentience to non-living matter.
Who among the following rulers of Vijayanagara Empire constructed a large dam across Tungabhadra River and a canal-cum-aqueduct several kilometres long from the river to the capital city?
- (a)Devaraya I
- (b)Mallikarjuna
- (c)Vira Vijaya
- (d)Virupaksha
Answer: (a) Devaraya I
Devaraya I of the Sangama dynasty built a large dam across the Tungabhadra and a canal-cum-aqueduct carrying water to the capital Vijayanagara. The irrigation works were meant to supply the city with water. The other rulers listed are not credited with this project.
Related: MedHist0043 — Deva Raya I
Who among the following rulers of medieval Gujarat surrendered Diu to Portuguese?
- (a)Ahmad Shah
- (b)Mahmud Begarha
- (c)Bahadur Shah
- (d)Muhammad Shah
Answer: (c) Bahadur Shah
Bahadur Shah of Gujarat ceded Diu to the Portuguese in 1535 in exchange for military help against the Mughal emperor Humayun. The Portuguese then built their fort at Diu. Other Gujarat sultans are not associated with this surrender.
Related: MedHist0070 — Gujarat Sultanate
By which one of the following Acts was the Governor General of Bengal designated as the Governor General of India?
- (a)The Regulating Act
- (b)The Pitt’s India Act
- (c)The Charter Act of 1793
- (d)The Charter Act of 1833
Answer: (d) The Charter Act of 1833
The Charter Act of 1833 made the Governor General of Bengal the Governor General of India, with authority over the whole of British India. It also ended the East India Company’s commercial monopoly. The earlier Regulating Act and Pitt’s India Act only reorganised the existing setup.
Related: ModHist0093 — Colonial Administrative Structure of British India
Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana. How many of the statements given above are correct?
- 1.It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments.
- 2.Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women.
- 3.It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women.
- 4.Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age.
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)Only three
- (d)All four
Answer: (c) Only three
Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct. Statement 4 is false — free care for sick infants up to one year is a feature of the related Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram (JSSK), not JSY itself.
Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy. How many of the statements given above are correct?
- 1.It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for pre-school children, adolescents and pregnant women.
- 2.It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of child-birth.
- 3.It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents.
- 4.It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis.
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)Only three
- (d)All four
Answer: (c) Only three
Statements 2, 3, and 4 are correct. Statement 1 is false — Anaemia Mukt Bharat provides prophylactic Iron and Folic Acid (IFA) supplementation, not calcium supplementation, tailored by age group.
Related: IndGov0069 — Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy
Related: GenSci0023 — Micronutrient Deficiency Diseases in Humans
Consider the following statements. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1.Carbon fibres are used in the manufacture of components used in automobiles and aircrafts.
- 2.Carbon fibres once used cannot be recycled.
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Statement 1 is correct — carbon fibre components are widely used in automobiles and aircraft. Statement 2 is false — carbon fibres CAN be recycled, most commonly via pyrolysis.
Consider the following actions. In how many of the above actions is the function of accelerometer required?
- 1.Detection of car crash/collision which results in the deployment of airbags almost instantaneously
- 2.Detection of accidental free fall of a laptop towards the ground which results in the immediate turning off of the hard drive
- 3.Detection of the tilt of the smartphone which results in the rotation of display between portrait and landscape mode
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)All three
- (d)None
Answer: (c) All three
All three actions genuinely require an accelerometer: car airbag crash detection, laptop free-fall hard-drive protection, and smartphone tilt-based screen rotation.
With reference to the role of biofilters in Recirculating Aquaculture System, consider the following statements. How many of the statements given above are correct?
- 1.Biofilters provide waste treatment by removing uneaten fish feed.
- 2.Biofilters convert ammonia present in fish waste to nitrate.
- 3.Biofilters increase phosphorus as nutrient for fish in water.
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)All three
- (d)None
Answer: (a) Only one
Only statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is wrong because uneaten fish feed is a solid waste, removed by mechanical filtration — drum filters, microscreens and settling tanks — not by the biofilter. Statement 2 is correct: the biofilter carries out nitrification, oxidising ammonia to nitrite and then to nitrate. Statement 3 is wrong because biofilters add no phosphorus. Phosphorus enters only through the feed, and it accumulates precisely because nitrifying biofilters do not remove it.
Related: SciTech0153 — Recirculating Aquaculture Systems and Biofilters
Consider the following pairs. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
| Objects in space | Description |
|---|---|
| 1. Cepheids | Giant clouds of dust and gas in space |
| 2. Nebulae | Stars which brighten and dim periodically |
| 3. Pulsars | Neutron stars that are formed when massive stars run out of fuel and collapse |
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)All three
- (d)None
Answer: (a) Only one
Only Pulsars is correctly matched. Cepheids are variable stars that brighten and dim periodically, not clouds of dust and gas. Nebulae are giant clouds of dust and gas, not stars. Pairs 1 and 2 have their descriptions swapped.
Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System?
- (a)Australia
- (b)Canada
- (c)Israel
- (d)Japan
Answer: (d) Japan
Japan runs its own regional satellite navigation system, QZSS (Quasi-Zenith Satellite System, nicknamed Michibiki), broadcasting original Japanese signals across Japan and the Asia-Oceania region. Australia, Canada, and Israel do not operate their own satellite navigation systems.
Consider the following statements. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1.Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight.
- 2.Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile.
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Both statements reverse the facts. Cruise missiles are jet-propelled continuously; ballistic missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial boost phase, then follow an unpowered trajectory. Agni-V is a solid-fuelled ICBM; BrahMos is a supersonic cruise missile.
Consider the following statements regarding mercury pollution. How many of the above statements are correct?
- 1.Gold mining activity is a source of mercury pollution in the world.
- 2.Coal-based thermal power plants cause mercury pollution.
- 3.There is no known safe level of exposure to mercury.
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)All three
- (d)None
Answer: (c) All three
Artisanal gold mining is the world’s largest source of mercury emissions (35%+ of the global total). Coal-based thermal power plants are also a major source. There is no known safe level of mercury exposure per WHO/NCBI.
Related: EnvEco0079 — Mercury Pollution · View this question
With reference to green hydrogen, consider the following statements. How many of the above statements are correct?
- 1.It can be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion.
- 2.It can be blended with natural gas and used as fuel for heat or power generation.
- 3.It can be used in the hydrogen fuel cell to run vehicles.
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)All three
- (d)None
Answer: (c) All three
Green hydrogen can be burned directly in internal combustion engines, blended into natural gas pipelines for heat/power generation, and used in hydrogen fuel cells to power vehicles.
Related: EnvEco0021 — The National Green Hydrogen Mission
Related: IndEco0040 — Infrastructure: Transportation and Energy · SciTech0002 — Science and Technology in Energy, Defence and Infrastructure
Consider the following countries. How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land border with Ukraine?
- 1.Bulgaria
- 2.Czech Republic
- 3.Hungary
- 4.Latvia
- 5.Lithuania
- 6.Romania
- (a)Only two
- (b)Only three
- (c)Only four
- (d)Only five
Answer: (a) Only two
Ukraine’s actual 7 land neighbours are Russia, Belarus, Poland, Slovakia, Hungary, Romania, and Moldova. Of the 6 listed, only Hungary and Romania border Ukraine.
Related: WorldGeo0041 — Ukraine · View this question
With reference to the Earth’s atmosphere, which one of the following statements is correct?
- (a)The total amount of insolation received at the equator is roughly about 10 times of that received at the poles.
- (b)Infrared rays constitute roughly two-thirds of insolation.
- (c)Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water vapour that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere.
- (d)Infrared waves are a part of visible spectrum of electromagnetic waves of solar radiation.
Answer: (c) Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water vapour that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere.
The equator receives roughly 5 times the poles’ insolation, not 10 times. Infrared is roughly half of insolation, not two-thirds. Infrared is invisible, so it is not part of the visible spectrum.
Related: WorldGeo0042 — Insolation · View this question
Consider the following statements. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- 1.Statement-I: The soil in tropical rain forests is rich in nutrients.
- 2.Statement-II: The high temperature and moisture of tropical rain forests cause dead organic matter in the soil to decompose quickly.
- (a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- (b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- (c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- (d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Tropical rainforest soil is actually nutrient-poor, not rich — most nutrients are locked in living plants, not the soil. Statement-II is correct: high temperature and moisture make organic matter decompose quickly, but plants reabsorb those nutrients almost immediately.
Related: IndGeo0016 — Laterite Soil of India · View this question
Consider the following statements. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- 1.Statement-I: The temperature contrast between continents and oceans is greater during summer than in winter.
- 2.Statement-II: The specific heat of water is more than that of land surface.
- (a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- (b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- (c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- (d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Statement-II is correct: water’s specific heat is higher than land’s, so oceans warm and cool more slowly than land. This makes Statement-I incorrect. Land-ocean temperature contrast is actually greater in winter, not summer. In winter, land cools fast while the ocean stays relatively warm, widening the gap. In summer, land heats fast but the ocean lags behind, narrowing the gap compared to winter.
Related: WorldGeo0002 — Climatology
Consider the following statements. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1.In a seismograph, P waves are recorded earlier than S waves.
- 2.In P waves, the individual particles vibrate to and fro in the direction of wave propagation whereas in S waves, the particles vibrate up and down at right angles to the direction of wave propagation.
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. P (Primary) waves are the fastest seismic waves, so they always reach a seismograph before S (Secondary) waves. P waves are compressional, so particles vibrate back and forth along the wave’s own direction of travel. S waves are shear waves, so their particles vibrate at right angles to that direction instead.
Related: WorldGeo0006 — Earthquakes, Tsunamis, and Volcanic Eruptions
With reference to coal-based thermal power plants in India, consider the following statements. How many of the above statements are correct?
- 1.None of them uses seawater.
- 2.None of them is set up in water-stressed district.
- 3.None of them is privately owned.
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)All three
- (d)None
Answer: (d) None
Related: EnvEco0198 – Coal Thermal Power Plants: Three "None of Them" Claims, All False · IndEco0111 – Thermal Power in India
‘Wolbachia method’ is sometimes talked about with reference to which one of the following?
- (a)Controlling the viral diseases spread by mosquitoes
- (b)Converting crop residues into packing material
- (c)Producing biodegradable plastics
- (d)Producing biochar from thermo-chemical conversion of biomass
Answer: (a) Controlling the viral diseases spread by mosquitoes
The Wolbachia method infects mosquitoes with a naturally occurring bacterium that blocks dengue, Zika, and chikungunya viruses from growing inside them.
Consider the following activities. How many of the above activities are often considered and discussed for carbon capture and sequestration?
- 1.Spreading finely ground basalt rock on farmlands extensively
- 2.Increasing the alkalinity of oceans by adding lime.
- 3.Capturing carbon dioxide released by various industries and pumping it into abandoned subterranean mines in the form of carbonated waters
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)All three
- (d)None
Answer: (c) All three
Related: EnvEco0199 – Carbon Capture Methods: Basalt, Ocean Alkalinity, and Mine Injection
‘Aerial metagenomics’ best refers to which one of the following situations?
- (a)Collecting DNA samples from air in a habitat at one go
- (b)Understanding the genetic makeup of avian species of a habitat
- (c)Using air-borne devices to collect blood samples from moving animals
- (d)Sending drones to inaccessible areas to collect plant and animal samples from land surfaces and water bodies
Answer: (a) Collecting DNA samples from air in a habitat at one go
Related: EnvEco0200 – Aerial Metagenomics: Reading a Habitat from Its Airborne DNA
‘Microsatellite DNA’ is used in the case of which one of the following?
- (a)Studying the evolutionary relationships among various species of fauna
- (b)Stimulating ‘stem cells’ to transform into diverse functional tissues
- (c)Promoting clonal propagation of horticultural plants
- (d)Assessing the efficacy of drugs by conducting series of drug trials in a population
Answer: (a) Studying the evolutionary relationships among various species of fauna
Microsatellite DNA’s high polymorphism and codominant inheritance make it a valuable genetic marker for comparing repeat patterns and constructing phylogenetic trees.
Consider the following statements with reference to India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1.According to the ‘Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006’, the ‘medium enterprises’ are those with investments in plant and machinery between ₹15 crore and ₹25 crore.
- 2.All bank loans to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector.
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Statement 1 is false — the original MSMED Act, 2006 classified manufacturing medium enterprises as investment above ₹5 crore and up to ₹10 crore, not ₹15-25 crore. Statement 2 is correct — all bank loans to MSMEs qualify for priority sector classification, with no loan-amount ceiling.
With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1.It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using US dollar or SWIFT system.
- 2.A digital currency can be distributed with a condition programmed into it such as a time-frame for spending it.
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
CBDCs can settle cross-border payments without routing through the US dollar or SWIFT, using bilateral central-bank-to-central-bank arrangements. CBDCs can also be made programmable, carrying built-in conditions such as spending deadlines or purpose restrictions.
In the context of finance, the term ‘beta’ refers to
- (a)the process of simultaneous buying and selling of an asset from different platforms
- (b)an investment strategy of a portfolio manager to balance risk versus reward
- (c)a type of systemic risk that arises where perfect hedging is not possible
- (d)a numeric value that measures the fluctuations of a stock to changes in the overall stock market
Answer: (d) a numeric value that measures the fluctuations of a stock to changes in the overall stock market
Beta is used as a measure of systematic risk and a core input to the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM).
Consider the following statements. How many of the above statements are correct?
- 1.The Self-Help Group (SHG) programme was originally initiated by the State Bank of India by providing microcredit to the financially deprived.
- 2.In an SHG, all members of a group take responsibility for a loan that an individual member takes.
- 3.The Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Commercial Banks support SHGs.
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)All three
- (d)None
Answer: (b) Only two
Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Statement 1 is false — the SHG-Bank Linkage Programme was initiated by NABARD in 1992, not the State Bank of India.
Consider the following statements. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- 1.Statement-I: India’s public sector health care system largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive and rehabilitative care.
- 2.Statement-II: Under India’s decentralized approach to health care delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services.
- (a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- (b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- (c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- (d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
Both statements are independently correct, but Statement II does not explain Statement I — the curative bias stems from historical resource-allocation and policy priorities, not from which level of government runs the system.
Related: IndGov0070 — India’s Public Sector Health Care System
Consider the following statements. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- 1.Statement-I: According to the United Nations’ ‘World Water Development Report, 2022’, India extracts more than a quarter of the world’s groundwater withdrawal each year.
- 2.Statement-II: India needs to extract more than a quarter of the world’s groundwater each year to satisfy the drinking water and sanitation needs of almost 18% of world’s population living in its territory.
- (a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- (b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- (c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- (d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
Related: EnvEco0201 – India’s Groundwater Withdrawal: The Real Reason Behind the 26%
Consider the following statements. How many of the above statements are correct?
- 1.According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances.
- 2.The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention.
- 3.According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence.
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)All three
- (d)None
Answer: (b) Only two
Statements 1 (Article 355 duty to protect States) and 2 (Article 22(3) exempts preventive detention from legal-counsel safeguards) are correct. Statement 3 is false — POTA, 2002 actually allowed police confessions as evidence.
Which one of the following countries has been suffering from decades of civil strife and food shortages and was in news in the recent past for its very severe famine?
- (a)Angola
- (b)Costa Rica
- (c)Ecuador
- (d)Somalia
Answer: (d) Somalia
Decades of civil conflict, drought, and disrupted Ukraine-war grain imports drove a severe famine warning in 2022-23.
Related: IntlRel0127 — Famine and Conflict · View this question →
Consider the following statements. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1.In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol.
- 2.The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction.
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Related: EnvEco0202 – Biodiversity Management Committees: Local Power Over Genetic Resources
Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India. How many of the above statements are correct?
- 1.The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College.
- 2.Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that State.
- 3.The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala.
- 4.The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh.
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)Only three
- (d)All four
Answer: (a) Only one
Only Statement 4 is correct. Nominated members are excluded from the Electoral College; vote value depends on population-to-seat ratio, not seat count; and Madhya Pradesh’s MLA vote value (131) is actually lower than Kerala’s (152). Puducherry’s value (16) genuinely is higher than Arunachal Pradesh’s (8).
With reference to the Indian History, Alexander Rea, A. H. Longhurst, Robert Sewell, James Burgess and Walter Elliot were associated with
- (a)archaeological excavations
- (b)establishment of English Press in Colonial India
- (c)establishment of Churches in Princely States
- (d)construction of railways in Colonial India
Answer: (a) archaeological excavations
Alexander Rea, A. H. Longhurst, Robert Sewell, James Burgess and Walter Elliot were pioneering archaeologists in colonial India. They conducted excavations and surveys of ancient sites, especially in the Deccan and South India. They were not connected with printing, churches or railways.
Related: AncHist0130 — Rea, Longhurst, Sewell, Burgess and Elliot: Archaeologists of Colonial India
Consider the following pairs. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
| Site | Well known for |
|---|---|
| 1. Besnagar | Shaivite cave shrine |
| 2. Bhaja | Buddhist cave shrine |
| 3. Sittanavasal | Jain cave shrine |
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)All three
- (d)None
Answer: (b) Only two
Bhaja is a Buddhist cave shrine and Sittanavasal houses a Jain cave shrine, so pairs 2 and 3 are correct. Besnagar is famous for the Heliodorus pillar, a Vaishnava monument, not a Shaivite cave shrine. Hence only two pairs are correctly matched.
Related: AncHist0099 — Buddhist Rock-Cut Architecture: Chaityas and Viharas
Consider the following statements. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- 1.Statement-I: 7th August is declared as the National Handloom Day.
- 2.Statement-II: It was in 1905 that the Swadeshi Movement was launched on the same day.
- (a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- (b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- (c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- (d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
National Handloom Day is celebrated on 7 August, the day the Swadeshi Movement was launched in 1905. The day commemorates the boycott of foreign cloth and the promotion of Indian handlooms during the Swadeshi era. Statement-II therefore correctly explains why 7 August was chosen.
Related: IndEco0120 — Handloom in India: Weavers, GI Traditions, and National Handloom Day, ModHist0095 — The Swadeshi Movement, 1905
Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of India according to the Flag Code of India, 2002. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- 1.Statement-I: One of the standard sizes of the National Flag of India is 600 mm x 400 mm.
- 2.Statement-II: The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3:2.
- (a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- (b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- (c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- (d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
600mm x 400mm is not one of the Flag Code 2002’s nine actual standard sizes. The 3:2 length-to-height ratio is correct on its own.
Related: Polity0362 — The Flag Code, 2002 and Constitution Day: Rules and Commemoration · View this question →
Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- 1.Statement-I: The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens.
- 2.Statement-II: On 26th November, 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India.
- (a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- (b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- (c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- (d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
Constitution Day genuinely is 26 November. But the Drafting Committee under Ambedkar was set up on 29 August 1947 — 26 November 1949 was instead when the Constitution was adopted.
Related: Polity0362 — The Flag Code, 2002 and Constitution Day: Rules and Commemoration · View this question →
Consider the following statements. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- 1.Statement-I: Switzerland is one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value.
- 2.Statement-II: Switzerland has the second largest gold reserves in the world.
- (a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- (b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- (c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- (d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
Switzerland is genuinely one of the world’s leading gold exporters by value, thanks to its large refining industry. But it does NOT have the second-largest gold reserves — the United States holds by far the largest reserves, and Switzerland’s own reserves rank well outside the top ten.
Related: Economy0033 — Global Gold Trade and Reserves · View this question →
Consider the following statements. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- 1.Statement-I: Recently, the United States of America (USA) and the European Union (EU) have launched the ‘Trade and Technology Council’.
- 2.Statement-II: The USA and the EU claim that through this they are trying to bring technological progress and physical productivity under their control.
- (a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- (b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- (c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- (d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
The TTC did launch in 2021. It aims to share digital resources with partners, not bring technology under US-EU control.
Related: IntlRel0142 — The US-EU Trade and Technology Council · View this question →
Consider the following statements. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- 1.Statement-I: India accounts for 3.2% of global export of goods.
- 2.Statement-II: Many local companies and some foreign companies operating in India have taken advantage of India’s ‘Production-linked Incentive’ scheme.
- (a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- (b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- (c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- (d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
The 3.2% figure actually refers to India’s share of global services imports, not goods exports. Statement-II is correct: real Indian and foreign companies have taken advantage of the PLI scheme’s incentives.
Related: IndEco0080 — Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme · View this question →
Consider the following statements. The ‘Stability and Growth Pact’ of the European Union is a treaty that. How many of the above statements are correct?
- 1.limits the levels of the budgetary deficit of the countries of the European Union
- 2.makes the countries of the European Union to share their infrastructure facilities
- 3.enables the countries of the European Union to share their technologies
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)All three
- (d)None
Answer: (a) Only one
The Pact limits budgetary deficits (correct). It does not cover infrastructure-sharing or technology-sharing (both false).
Related: IntlRel0143 — The EU’s Stability and Growth Pact · View this question →
Consider the following statements. How many of the above statements are correct?
- 1.Recently, all the countries of the United Nations have adopted the first-ever compact for international migration, the ‘Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration (GCM)’.
- 2.The objectives and commitments stated in the GCM are binding on the UN member countries.
- 3.The GCM addresses internal migration or internally displaced people also in its objectives and commitments.
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)All three
- (d)None
Answer: (d) None
The GCM was adopted by 164 states, not all UN members. It is non-binding. It covers international migration only, not internal migration.
Related: IntlRel0144 — The Global Compact for Migration · View this question →
With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements. How many of the above statements are correct?
- 1.Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government.
- 2.The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in maintenance of internal security.
- 3.To prevent infiltration on the international border/coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States.
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)All three
- (d)None
Answer: (b) Only two
Home Guards are raised under each State’s own Act, not a Central one — Statement 1 is false. Statements 2 and 3 are correct.
Related: Polity0363 — Home Guards and the Official Secrets Act: Auxiliary Forces and Enforcement · View this question →
With reference to India, consider the following pairs. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
| Action | The Act under which it is covered |
|---|---|
| 1. Unauthorized wearing of police or military uniforms | The Official Secrets Act, 1923 |
| 2. Knowingly misleading or otherwise interfering with a police officer or military officer when engaged in their duties | The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 |
| 3. Celebratory gunfire which can endanger the personal safety of others | The Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019 |
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)All three
- (d)None
Answer: (b) Only two
Pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched. Pair 2 is wrong — interfering with an on-duty police or military officer also falls under the Official Secrets Act, 1923 (Section 7), not the Indian Evidence Act.
Related: Polity0363 — Home Guards and the Official Secrets Act: Auxiliary Forces and Enforcement · View this question →
Consider the following pairs. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
| Regions often mentioned in news | Reason for being in news |
|---|---|
| 1. North Kivu and Ituri | War between Armenia and Azerbaijan |
| 2. Nagorno-Karabakh | Insurgency in Mozambique |
| 3. Kherson and Zaporizhzhia | Dispute between Israel and Lebanon |
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)All three
- (d)None
Answer: (d) None
North Kivu/Ituri relate to conflict in DR Congo, not Armenia-Azerbaijan. Nagorno-Karabakh relates to Armenia-Azerbaijan, not Mozambique. Kherson/Zaporizhzhia relate to Russia-Ukraine, not Israel-Lebanon.
Related: IntlRel0145 — Conflict Regions in the News · View this question →
Consider the following statements. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- 1.Statement-I: Israel has established diplomatic relations with some Arab States.
- 2.Statement-II: The ‘Arab Peace Initiative’ mediated by Saudi Arabia was signed by Israel and Arab League.
- (a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- (b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- (c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- (d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
Israel has real diplomatic relations with several Arab states. But Israel never signed the Arab Peace Initiative — it remains an unsigned Arab League proposal.
Related: IntlRel0152 — Israel’s Arab Ties vs. the Arab Peace Initiative
Consider the following pairs with regard to sports awards. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
| Award | Description |
|---|---|
| 1. Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award | For the most spectacular and outstanding performance by a sportsperson over period of last four years |
| 2. Arjuna Award | For the lifetime achievement by a sportsperson |
| 3. Dronacharya Award | To honour eminent coaches who have successfully trained sportspersons or teams |
| 4. Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puraskar | To recognize the contribution made by sportspersons even after their retirement |
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)Only three
- (d)All four
Answer: (b) Only two
Pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched. Pair 2 is wrong — the Arjuna Award is for consistent excellence, not lifetime achievement. Pair 4 is wrong — the Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puraskar recognises corporates and organisations promoting sport, not individual retired sportspersons.
Related: GK0015 — National Sports Awards · View this question →
Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022. How many of the statements given above are correct?
- 1.It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held in India.
- 2.The official mascot was named ‘Thambi’.
- 3.The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup.
- 4.The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup.
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)Only three
- (d)All four
Answer: (b) Only two
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statements 3 and 4 swap the trophy names: the open section trophy is the Hamilton-Russell Cup, and the women’s section trophy is the Vera Menchik Cup.
Related: IntlRel0153 — 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: Chennai, Thambi, and the Trophy Swap
Consider the following pairs. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
| Area of conflict mentioned in news | Country where it is located |
|---|---|
| 1. Donbas | Syria |
| 2. Kachin | Ethiopia |
| 3. Tigray | North Yemen |
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)All three
- (d)None
Answer: (d) None
Every pair is wrong. Donbas is in Ukraine, Kachin is in Myanmar, and Tigray is in Ethiopia.
Related: IntlRel0154 — Donbas, Kachin, Tigray: Getting the Countries Right
In the recent years Chad, Guinea, Mali and Sudan caught the international attention for which one of the following reasons common to all of them?
- (a)Discovery of rich deposits of rare earth elements
- (b)Establishment of Chinese military bases
- (c)Southward expansion of Sahara Desert
- (d)Successful coups
Answer: (d) Successful coups
Chad, Guinea, Mali, and Sudan each saw a successful coup in 2021, up from just one successful coup across Africa in 2020.
Related: IntlRel0103 — The Sahel Region: Instability and Coups
Consider the following heavy industries. Green hydrogen is expected to play a significant role in decarbonizing how many of the above industries?
- 1.Fertilizer plants
- 2.Oil refineries
- 3.Steel plants
- (a)Only one
- (b)Only two
- (c)All three
- (d)None
Answer: (c) All three
Green hydrogen can replace fossil fuels in fertiliser production, oil refining and steelmaking. These heavy industries are hard to decarbonise directly, so green hydrogen is expected to play a major role in each of them. All three listed industries are therefore covered.
Consider the following statements about G-20. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1.The G-20 group was originally established as a platform for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss the international economic and financial issues.
- 2.Digital public infrastructure is one of India’s G-20 priorities.
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
The G20 was established in 1999 as a forum for finance ministers and central bank governors. Digital Public Infrastructure was a headline priority of India’s 2023 G20 presidency.
Related: IntlRel0138 — Who’s In the G20
English-language questions transcribed from the official Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination, 2023 question booklet (XDTG-F-GST/62A), General Studies Paper I. Hindi text omitted. Answer key not included.
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