UPSC CSP 2026 — General Studies Paper I (Full Question Paper)

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History & CultureGeographyEnvironment & EcologyScience & TechPolity & GovernanceEconomyInt’l Relations & DefenceEthics & Aptitude

Questions 1–10

1.History & Culture

Which one of the following Carnatic music ragas is similar to Raga Bilawal in Hindustani music?

(a)Nat Bhairavi
(b)Kamavardhini
(c)Hanumatodi
(d)Dheera Shankarabharanam

Answer: (d) Dheera Shankarabharanam

Hindustani Raga Bilawal is built entirely on the natural (shuddha) notes: Sa Re Ga Ma Pa Dha Ni, with no flattened or sharpened swaras — the same seven-note set as the Western major scale. Dheera Shankarabharanam is the 29th Melakarta raga in Carnatic music’s 72-Melakarta system, using that identical natural-note set in both ascent and descent. Because the two ragas share the exact same scale, Dheera Shankarabharanam is treated as Bilawal’s direct Carnatic counterpart, and is itself the parent scale for dozens of derivative Carnatic ragas.

Hanumatodi uses flattened Re, Ga, Dha and Ni and maps instead to Hindustani Bhairavi. Nat Bhairavi is a related but distinct raga on a different note set. Kamavardhini uses a sharpened Ma along with flattened notes, giving it a different character altogether.

Current affairs before this exam: on 25 January 2026, violinist N. Rajam — who trained first in Carnatic music before moving to Hindustani classical music — was announced a Padma Vibhushan recipient. (Source: MHA, Padma Awards 2026)

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2.Economy

The artificially fixed rupee-sterling exchange rate prescribed by the Hilton-Young Commission (1926) was adopted by the British Government for which one of the following reasons?

(a)Aiding the flow of remittances from India and maintaining India’s creditworthiness
(b)Providing support to Indian importers
(c)Encouraging export of cotton produce from India
(d)Preventing depreciation of the Rupee in terms of gold

Answer: (a) Aiding the flow of remittances from India and maintaining India’s creditworthiness

The Hilton-Young Commission recommended fixing the rupee at 1 shilling 6 pence sterling, higher than the pre-war rate of 1 shilling 4 pence. This overvalued the rupee against gold and sterling.

An overvalued rupee meant colonial India needed fewer rupees to buy the sterling required for its annual “Home Charges” — the mandatory payments from India to Britain covering administrative costs, military expenses, pensions, and interest on public debt. Keeping the rupee artificially strong made these remittances easier to sustain and helped India service its sterling-denominated obligations, preserving its creditworthiness in London markets.

Indian business and nationalist opinion argued the artificially high rate hurt Indian exporters by making Indian goods costlier abroad.

No direct pre-exam current-affairs hook was found for this colonial-history topic.

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3.History & Culture

Consider the following “statements”:

I.Pali texts contain the first definite references to coins, e.g., kahapana, nikkha, kamsa, and kakanika.
II.The literary evidence from Pali texts is corroborated by archaeological evidence of punch-marked coins from many sites, most of them made of silver.

The above statements have been associated with which of the following?

1.Emergence of urban life
2.Transition to money economy

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Pali Buddhist texts give the earliest definite literary references to coin denominations by name — kahapana, nikkha, kamsa, and kakanika. This is backed up by archaeological finds of punch-marked coins, mostly silver, at many sites, dated from around the 6th century BCE.

This combined evidence marks two related developments at once. Standardised metallic coinage is a defining feature of India’s “Second Urbanization” — the growth of fortified cities, craft guilds, and long-distance trade routes in the Mahajanapada period. At the same time, coinage itself marks the shift from barter to a money economy. Because both happened together, the correct reading supports both option 1 and option 2.

No direct pre-exam current-affairs hook was found for this topic.

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4.History & Culture

Which of the following temples has/have a Nagara-style shikhara?

Select the answer using the code given “below”:

1.Malegitti Shivalaya, Badami
2.Huchimalligudi Temple, Aihole
3.Dashavatara Temple, Deogarh
4.Virupaksha Temple, Pattadakal

(a)1 and 2
(b)2 and 3
(c)3 only
(d)3 and 4

Answer: Dashavatara Temple, Deogarh

Of the four temples, only the Dashavatara Temple at Deogarh carries a genuine curving Nagara-style shikhara. It was built in the early 6th century CE, during the Gupta period, and historians treat it as an early landmark of the North Indian temple form.

The other three — Malegitti Shivalaya (Badami), Huchimalligudi (Aihole), and Virupaksha Temple (Pattadakal) — are all Chalukya-era temples in Karnataka, built mainly in the Dravida (South Indian) style, with tiered pyramidal towers rather than curving Nagara shikharas. Aihole and Badami did see early experiments with Nagara-style forms at some structures, but the official answer key names only Deogarh’s Dashavatara Temple as the clear example among these four options.

No direct pre-exam current-affairs hook was found for this topic.

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5.History & Culture

Among the four main forms of existence of life recognized in Jainism, which one of the following is not included?

(a)Deva (gods)
(b)Yaksha (demi-gods)
(c)Manushya (humans)
(d)Tiryancha (animals and plants)

Answer: Yaksha (demi-gods)

Jain doctrine recognizes four gatis, or realms of rebirth, that every soul cycles through until it attains liberation: deva-gati (celestial beings), manushya-gati (humans), tiryancha-gati (animals and plants), and naraka-gati (hellish beings).

Yakshas are real figures in Jain tradition — they appear as attendant deities of the Tirthankaras. But they are a sub-category of celestial beings (the Vyantara class of devas), not one of the four gatis themselves. That makes Yaksha the correct answer to “not included.”

No direct pre-exam current-affairs hook was found for this topic.

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6.History & Culture

The Hallisalasya painting in the Bagh Caves “represents”:

(a)A joyous folk dance
(b)Buddha in a meditative pose
(c)The depiction of Shiva and Parvati on Kailasha
(d)Samudramanthan (Churning of the Ocean)

Answer: A joyous folk dance

The Hallisalasya painting sits in Cave 4 of the Bagh Caves, Madhya Pradesh, nicknamed the “Rang Mahal” (Palace of Colours). It dates to the Gupta period, around the 5th-6th century CE.

It shows a circular ring dance: women and men dancing hand-in-hand around a central musician, with female performers playing the hudukka (hand-drum) and kamsyatalas (cymbals). The Natyashastra describes this exact dance form. It is the earliest surviving Indian painting of a named folk dance, and it captures the secular, social side of Gupta-era art rather than a purely religious scene.

No direct pre-exam current-affairs hook was found for this topic.

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7.History & Culture

Consider the following statements relating to the use of the place-value system in “India”:

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1.The earliest epigraphic use of the place-value system in India is found in the Mankani plates from Gujarat (AD 595–596).
2.In the ninth century, place-values become general in inscriptions all over India.
3.The place-values have been found in Sanskrit inscriptions in South-east Asia as early as the seventh century.

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)1 and 3 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: 1, 2 and 3

All three statements are correct. The Mankani plates (also called the Sankheda plates), a land-grant inscription found near Vadodara, Gujarat, carry a date written in fully positional decimal notation, complete with placeholder zeros. This is dated to AD 595-596, and historians treat it as the earliest epigraphic use of the place-value system in India.

By the ninth century, place-value notation had become the general standard across Indian inscriptions. The system also travelled beyond India: Sanskrit inscriptions in South-east Asia used place-values as early as the seventh century, evidence of the wider spread of Indian mathematical ideas through trade and cultural contact.

No direct pre-exam current-affairs hook was found for this topic.

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8.History & Culture

Consider the following statements about the archaeological findings in Harappan “towns”:

I.There is wide occurrence of spindle-whorls in the houses but absence of spinning wheels.
II.Weights and measurement scales, complete with graduations have been discovered.
III.There are houses built in large part with baked bricks, around relatively spacious courtyards, with their own wells, bathing platforms, and large rooms.

Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements?

1.Statement I suggests that spinning was a laborious activity done at home.
2.Statement II suggests the extent of the scientific knowledge that the Harappans possessed.
3.Statement III suggests the emergence of a common property system.

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Inferences 1 and 2 hold up. Spindle-whorls turn up in huge numbers across Harappan houses, but the spinning wheel wasn’t invented until medieval India. Without it, spinning had to be done by hand with a drop spindle, a slow, repetitive task done at home — exactly what Statement I implies.

Weights and graduated measurement scales, made from chert, shell, ivory, and metal, show a standardised binary-decimal system. That level of precision reflects real scientific and mathematical knowledge, supporting Inference 2.

Inference 3 doesn’t hold. Houses with their own private wells, bathing platforms, and large rooms point to individual households controlling their own resources and space — the opposite of a common property system. That kind of household-level differentiation actually suggests private property and some degree of social stratification, not collective ownership.

No direct pre-exam current-affairs hook was found for this topic.

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9.History & Culture

Which one of the following statements about the Eka Movement and Bardoli Satyagraha is correct?

(a)The Eka Movement was throughout supported and organized by the Congress while Bardoli Satyagraha was initially independent of Congress influence and was only in the last stages supported by the Congress.
(b)The Eka Movement was provided leadership by the taluqdars of Awadh, whereas the Bardoli Satyagraha was a movement of the landless labourers.
(c)The Bardoli Satyagraha was a campaign against the enhancement of land revenue, while the Eka Movement was a protest against excessive extraction of rents.
(d)The Eka Movement was located in the Varanasi and Mirzapur districts of the present-day U.P., while the Bardoli Satyagraha took place in Saurashtra.

Answer: The Bardoli Satyagraha was a campaign against the enhancement of land revenue, while the Eka Movement was a protest against excessive extraction of rents.

The two movements targeted different opponents. Bardoli (1928), led by Vallabhbhai Patel in Surat district, Gujarat, fought a 22% government-imposed hike in land revenue — a tax owed to the state.

The Eka (“Unity”) Movement (1921-22), centred in Hardoi, Bahraich, and Sitapur in Awadh, fought excessive rents charged by private landlords and thekedars (contractors), often well above the officially recorded rates. Eka was a grassroots peasant movement led by Madari Pasi, a low-caste peasant leader, and lost Congress support once it turned militant. Bardoli was largely a movement of landowning Patidar peasants, not landless labourers.

No direct pre-exam current-affairs hook was found for this topic.

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10.History & Culture

Consider the following statements about the Rigvedic “period”:

I.Irrigation from wells allowed agriculture to expand away from flood plains and strips on river margins into the present Punjab and Haryana plains having underground water levels reasonably close to the surface.
II.Draught-animal power was employed to draw up water out of the wells.

Which of the following information support/supports the above statements?

1.There is evidence in the Rigveda of the use of ashma chakra (stone pulley wheel) and ahava (strapped wooden pails) to draw up water.
2.Mention has been made in the Rigveda of the use of implements like parashu/kulisha (axe) and datra/sreni (sickle).
3.There is a history of the use of ox, even before the Rigveda, for ploughing the land and pulling the carts.

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)1, 2 and 3
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)3 only

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Information 1 (ashma chakra, a stone pulley wheel, and ahava, strapped wooden pails) directly supports both statements. It shows a real mechanism for drawing water up out of wells, backing Statement I’s claim of well irrigation and Statement II’s claim that some form of power was used to lift the water.

Information 3 (ox use for ploughing and pulling carts, predating even the Rigveda) supports Statement II specifically. Draught oxen were the most likely power source harnessed to turn the pulley and haul up water.

Information 2 (the axe and sickle) doesn’t support either statement. Those are general farming implements for cutting, not for irrigation or drawing water, so they don’t back either claim.

No direct pre-exam current-affairs hook was found for this topic.

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Questions 11–20

11.Geography

Consider the following “assertion”: In the Pleistocene period either the Yamuna once flowed into the Indus, or the Sutlej flowed into the Yamuna and one major tributary of either had shifted from the Ganga to the Indus or vice versa. Which of the following is/are the basis of the above assertion?

1.The Nadi-Sukta of the Rigveda
2.The explorations of the Sutlej and the Yamuna by Robert Bruce Foote
3.The presence of the same species of dolphins in both the Indus and the Ganga river systems

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)1 and 2
(d)3

Answer: 3

Only Information 3 supports the assertion. The Indus and Ganga river dolphins belong to the same species, and dolphins can only spread between river basins through connected channels. Their shared presence in both systems is strong evidence that the Indus and Ganga were once physically linked, exactly what the assertion claims.

The Nadi-Sukta of the Rigveda names several north-western rivers, including the Saraswati, but it’s a Vedic hymn, not geological evidence, and postdates the Pleistocene by roughly a million years. Robert Bruce Foote is known as the father of Indian prehistory for his stone-age discoveries in South India, not for surveying the Sutlej or Yamuna. Neither offers real support for the assertion.

Current affairs: India launched the second range-wide dolphin survey under Project Dolphin on 19 January 2026, starting from Bijnor, U.P., and covering the Ganga and Indus. Source: PIB.

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12.History & Culture

What does an empty seat represent in early Buddhist iconography?

(a)The meditation of the Buddha
(b)The Buddha’s First Sermon
(c)The Buddha’s Mahaparinibbana
(d)The Buddha’s Mahabhinishkramana

Answer: The meditation of the Buddha

For roughly five centuries after the Buddha’s death, artists at Sanchi, Bharhut, Bodh Gaya, and Amaravati never carved him in human form. Instead, they used symbols for the key moments and sites of his life. This convention is called aniconism.

An empty seat, often called the Vajrasana or Bodhimanda, marks the exact spot at Bodh Gaya where the Buddha sat in deep meditation and reached enlightenment. It usually appears under a parasol or beneath the Bodhi tree.

Other symbols carried different meanings. A wheel (Dharmachakra) stood for the First Sermon at Sarnath. A stupa stood for the Mahaparinibbana, the Buddha’s final passing. A riderless horse stood for the Mahabhinishkramana, his Great Departure from the palace.

No direct pre-exam current-affairs hook was found for this topic.

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13.Geography

Which of the following pairs of ancient and modern names of rivers is/are correctly matched?

1.Vitasta – Chenab
2.Asikni – Jhelum
3.Parushni – Ravi
4.Yavyavati – Beas

(a)1 and 2
(b)3 and 4
(c)3 only
(d)4 only

Answer: 3 only

Only one pair is correct: Parushni is the Rigvedic name for the modern Ravi. It is best known as the site of the Battle of the Ten Kings (Dasarajna), fought by King Sudas.

The other three pairs swap names or rivers. Vitasta is the ancient name for the Jhelum, not the Chenab. Asikni (“dark-coloured”) is the ancient name for the Chenab, not the Jhelum — the question’s pairing has them backwards. Yavyavati is a separate, more obscure river, sometimes linked to the Zhob; the real ancient name for the Beas is Vipasa (Vipash).

No direct pre-exam current-affairs hook was found for this topic.

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14.History & Culture

Which of the following statements on the Amaravati Stupa and its relief sculpture is/are correct?

1.It was located in the lower Krishna valley.
2.In India, it was next only to the Sanchi Stupa in size.
3.The Amaravati school of sculpture made a lasting impact on the later South Indian sculpture, and its products were carried to Sri Lanka and South-east Asia.

(a)1 only
(b)1 and 3 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Statement 1 is correct. The Amaravati Stupa stands in the lower Krishna river valley, in present-day Andhra Pradesh.

Statement 2 is the trap. Amaravati was not merely “next only to” Sanchi in size — it was actually larger, with a diameter of roughly 50 metres against Sanchi’s much smaller Great Stupa, making it one of the largest stupas ever built in India.

Statement 3 is correct. The Amaravati school’s dynamic, crowded relief style left a lasting mark on later South Indian sculpture, and its influence spread through trade and pilgrimage links to Sri Lanka and South-east Asia.

No direct pre-exam current-affairs hook was found for this topic.

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15.History & Culture

Which of the following pairs of the king and his dynasty in early historical Tamilakam is/are not correctly matched?

1.Senguttuvan – Chera
2.Udiyanjeral – Chola
3.Nedunjeliyan – Pandya

(a)1 and 2
(b)2 only
(c)1 and 3
(d)3 only

Answer: 2 only

Pairs 1 and 3 are correct. Senguttuvan, the “Red Chera,” genuinely belongs to the Chera dynasty. Nedunjeliyan genuinely belongs to the Pandya dynasty, known for defeating a combined Chera-Chola force at Talaiyalanganam.

Pair 2 is the wrong match. Udiyanjeral was an early Chera king, not a Chola. He is considered one of the earliest known Chera rulers, associated with the rise of Chera power in western Tamilakam — this makes him a Chera king twice over in this question, alongside Senguttuvan.

No direct pre-exam current-affairs hook was found for this topic.

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16.History & Culture

Which of the following factors contributed to the formation of the Forward Bloc by Subhas Chandra Bose in 1939?

1.Bose failed to win the confidence of Mahatma Gandhi.
2.The Congress Left was disunited and failed to support Bose.
3.The Communists did not support Bose in his endeavours.
4.The supporters of M.N. Roy and socialist leaders like Jayaprakash Narayan preferred Congress unity to supporting Bose.

(a)1, 2 and 3
(b)1, 2 and 4
(c)1, 3 and 4
(d)2 and 4 only

Answer: 1, 2 and 4

Statement 3 is the trap. The Communists did not desert Bose — at the 1939 Tripuri session, Communist Party members voted against the Pant resolution that undercut him, standing by him longer than most other left factions before the final break.

No direct pre-exam current-affairs hook was found for this topic.

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17.History & Culture

Consider the following statements regarding the British policy in Awadh immediately after its annexation in 1856 :

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1.The taluqdars were dispossessed of their estates but allowed to retain their arms and forts.
2.A Summary Revenue Settlement was made in 1856 assuming that the taluqdars were outsiders.
3.The British believed in taking revenue directly from the peasants by removing the taluqdars.

(a)2 and 3 only
(b)1 and 3 only
(c)1, 2 and 3
(d)2 only

Answer: 2 and 3 only

Statement 1 is the trap. The British did not let taluqdars keep their arms and forts — they actively disarmed them and demolished their fortifications while pacifying the newly annexed territory.

No direct pre-exam current-affairs hook was found for this topic.

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18.History & Culture

Consider the following “assertion”: The genesis of political alliances based on community lay in the very nature of the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919. Which of the following statements support/supports the above assertion?

1.Reforms retained and extended the principle of separate electorates.
2.Separate electorates were supposed to counter Indian nationalism, which was growing stronger.
3.Deprived classes rallied around the favours inherent in separate electorates.

(a)1 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 2 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: 1, 2 and 3

All three statements genuinely support the assertion. The 1919 reforms extended separate electorates (first granted to Muslims in 1909) to Sikhs, Anglo-Indians, Europeans, and Indian Christians. Historians widely read separate electorates as a deliberate British strategy to fragment a strengthening unified nationalist movement along communal lines, and reserved seats gave minority communities a real incentive to organise around communal identity.

No direct pre-exam current-affairs hook was found for this topic.

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19.History & Culture

Pandit Mallikarjun Mansur, the famous classical singer from Karnataka, represented “the”:

(a)Agra Gharana
(b)Gwalior Gharana
(c)Patiala Gharana
(d)Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana

Answer: Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana

Mansur trained under Alladiya Khan’s sons, Manji Khan and later Bhurji Khan, and became known for his command over rare, structurally complex ragas — a hallmark of the Jaipur-Atrauli style.

No direct pre-exam current-affairs hook was found for this topic.

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20.History & Culture

In which one among the following texts does the term kshetra-patni (‘mistress of the field’) originate?

(a)Rigveda
(b)Atharvaveda
(c)Ashtadhyayi
(d)Arthashastra

Answer: Atharvaveda

Kshetra-patni, invoked in agricultural hymns as a female guardian spirit of cultivated land, appears in the Atharvaveda. It is distinct from kshetrapati (“lord of the field”), the masculine form found in the Rigveda.

No direct pre-exam current-affairs hook was found for this topic.

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Questions 21–30

21.Environment & Ecology

Consider the following statements with reference to India’s response to climate “change”:

I.India’s Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS) is a crucial tool for achieving net-zero emissions by 2070.
II.India’s 4^th Biennial Update Report (BUR-4) submitted in December, 2024 recorded around 8% decrease in Greenhouse gas emissions in 2020 over 2019.
III.Climate-resilient development necessarily depends on quick and short-term achievement of emission reduction targets.

Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct?

1.Statement I is empirically supported by statement II.
2.Statement III contradicts the approach implicit in statement I.
3.Statement I and statement III together establish the premise of long-term sustainability.

(a)1 only
(b)1 and 2
(c)2 and 3
(d)3 only

Answer: 1 and 2

Relationship 2 is solid: LT-LEDS is a long-horizon strategy built around 2070, so a claim that climate resilience needs quick, short-term cuts sits in real tension with it.

Relationship 1 is more debatable — BUR-4’s 8% drop traces to a one-year pandemic effect, not LT-LEDS itself — but this is the pairing the official answer key marks correct.

No direct pre-exam current-affairs hook was found for this topic.

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22.Environment & Ecology

With respect to the Western Hoolock Gibbons, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1.A Sanctuary in North-east India is home to this ape species listed as Endangered in the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List.
2.They have specialized brachiation and can easily swing between trees.
3.They possess a strong and heavy build like gorillas, yet are remarkably agile tree climbers.

(a)1 only
(b)1 and 2
(c)2 and 3
(d)3 only

Answer: 1 and 2

Statement 1 is correct. The Hoollongapar Gibbon Wildlife Sanctuary in Assam is India’s only gibbon-dedicated sanctuary, home to the Western Hoolock Gibbon, listed as Endangered on the IUCN Red List.

Statement 2 is correct. Gibbons are the premier brachiators among primates.

Statement 3 is the trap. Western Hoolock Gibbons are small, lightweight apes — the opposite of a heavy, gorilla-like build.

No direct pre-exam current-affairs hook was found for this topic.

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23.Environment & Ecology

Which of the following best explain(s) the rationale for protecting mangrove ecosystems in the context of climate resilience?

1.Mangroves reduce tidal energy and store freshwater, making them ideal sites for paddy cultivation in saline estuarine belts.
2.Their salt-sensitive roots filter seawater, making mangroves key to converting coastal land into freshwater aquaculture zones.
3.By withstanding tidal surges and offering biomass resources, mangroves function both as natural bio-shields and livelihood bases for rural communities.

(a)1 only
(b)1 and 2
(c)2 and 3
(d)3 only

Answer: 3 only

Statement 3 is correct. Mangroves are natural bio-shields, dissipating wave energy from storm surges while providing biomass and fishery resources for coastal livelihoods.

Statement 1 is the trap. Mangroves are halophytes, not freshwater storers — converting them into paddy fields actually destroys mangroves, rather than being enabled by them.

Pre-exam current-affairs hook: the MISHTI scheme, announced in Union Budget 2023-24 and launched 5 June 2023, funds large-scale mangrove plantation citing this exact bio-shield and carbon-sequestration role.

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24.Economy

In what way(s) does the Vizhinjam International Seaport represent a structural shift in India’s maritime trade and logistics policy?

1.By functioning exclusively as a domestic cargo hub to reduce reliance on coastal shipping and eliminate the need for foreign collaborations.
2.By focusing primarily on passenger cruise tourism and heritage shipping to increase Kerala’s profile as a maritime heritage destination.
3.By leveraging its natural deep draft and strategic location to reduce dependence on foreign trans-shipment ports, enhance revenue retention, and reposition India in regional maritime trade.

(a)1 only
(b)1 and 2
(c)2 and 3
(d)3 only

Answer: 3 only

Statement 3 is correct. Vizhinjam’s natural deep draft lets it dock Ultra Large Container Vessels that most Indian ports cannot handle, keeping transshipment revenue in India instead of flowing to Colombo, Singapore, or Salalah.

Statement 1 is the trap. Vizhinjam is explicitly an international transshipment hub, not a domestic-only cargo terminal.

Pre-exam current-affairs hook: PM Modi formally dedicated Vizhinjam to the nation on 2 May 2025, an ₹8,800 crore project under the Sagarmala and PM Gati Shakti push.

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25.Geography

Identify the river of the Indian sub-continent on the basis of the following “information”:

Select the answer from the “following”:

1.It has an antecedent drainage system.
2.It flows through three countries.
3.It originates in the Tibetan Plateau and is an important river for irrigation.
4.It does not form distributaries.

(a)Brahmaputra
(b)Indus
(c)Sutlej
(d)Teesta

Answer: Sutlej

The Sutlej is a classic antecedent river, flowing through China, India, and Pakistan, originating on the Tibetan Plateau and feeding the Bhakra-Nangal irrigation system.

The key differentiator is distributaries. The Sutlej never reaches the sea on its own — it merges into the Chenab to form the Panjnad, which then joins the Indus. Indus and Brahmaputra fit the other clues too, but both end in their own deltas with distributaries.

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26.Geography

Which of the following with reference to Indian States is/are not correct?

1.Uttar Pradesh shares its boundary with the highest number of other Indian States.
2.Rajasthan shares the longest international border among all Indian States.
3.Sikkim is the only State that shares its boundary with just one other Indian State.

(a)1 only
(b)1 and 2
(c)2 and 3
(d)3 only

Answer: 2 and 3

Statement 1 is correct. Uttar Pradesh borders 8 other Indian states, the highest of any state.

Statement 2 is false. West Bengal, not Rajasthan, has the longest international border among Indian states, roughly 2,200 km. Rajasthan’s Pakistan border runs only about 1,070 km.

Statement 3 is also false. Sikkim borders only West Bengal among Indian states, but Meghalaya likewise borders only Assam.

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27.Environment & Ecology

Which of the following statements with regard to the arrival of Amur Falcons at Doyang Lake in Nagaland each year from Mongolia is/are correct?

1.It showcases how sustained local conservation efforts can contribute to the arrival and protection of international migratory birds.
2.It reflects the global success of advanced tracking technologies that guide migratory birds back to their stopover sites.
3.It confirms that Amur Falcons have adapted to permanent residency in India due to favourable habitat changes.

(a)1 only
(b)1 and 2
(c)2 and 3
(d)3 only

Answer: 1 only

Statement 1 is correct. Doyang, Nagaland saw a genuine community-led conservation turnaround, from mass hunting (100,000+ birds killed in 2012) to global recognition as the ‘Amur Falcon capital of the world.’

Statement 2 is the trap. Satellite tracking studies the migration, it doesn’t guide the birds back — they navigate using their own innate cues.

Statement 3 is also wrong. Amur Falcons are not permanent residents; Doyang is a stopover for a few weeks each October-November.

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28.Economy

Which among the following is/are the objective(s) of the Rainfed Area Development (RAD) initiative under the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA)?

1.Encouraging monoculture in rainfed areas
2.Increasing rice cultivation in irrigated regions
3.Enhancing productivity and minimising climatic risks through Integrated Farming Systems (IFS)

(a)1 only
(b)1 and 2
(c)2 and 3
(d)3 only

Answer: 3 only

Statement 1 is false. RAD does not encourage monoculture. It promotes Integrated Farming Systems (IFS) specifically to move rainfed farmers away from single-crop farming.

Statement 2 is also false. RAD targets rainfed areas, not irrigated regions, and it carries no objective tied to rice cultivation on irrigated land.

Statement 3 is correct. Enhancing productivity and minimising climatic risk through Integrated Farming Systems is RAD’s real, stated objective.

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29.Economy

Which of the following is/are the most significant implication(s) of obtaining Oeko-Tex certification for Eri Silk in the global textile industry?

1.It allows Indian exporters to compete in high-end markets that prioritise chemical-free products.
2.It confirms that Eri Silk meets international safety, environmental, and quality standards, enabling its entry into premium eco-conscious markets.

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Oeko-Tex is a global testing and certification system. It checks textiles for harmful chemical substances at every production stage.

Statement 1 is correct. Certification lets Indian exporters compete in high-end markets that specifically demand chemical-free products.

Statement 2 is correct too. Oeko-Tex confirms Eri Silk meets recognised international safety, environmental, and quality standards, opening premium eco-conscious markets. Eri Silk is already known as “Ahimsa Silk,” since its moth leaves the cocoon naturally before harvest — certification formally validates that eco-friendly reputation against an international benchmark.

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30.Int’l Relations & Defence

Ships from which of the following countries have to cross the Strait of Hormuz to reach out to the Indian Ocean?

1.Bahrain
2.Syria
3.Qatar
4.Egypt

(a)1 and 2
(b)1 and 3
(c)2 and 3
(d)3 and 4

Answer: (b) 1 and 3

Bahrain and Qatar are Persian Gulf states with no other sea outlet; their ships must cross the Strait of Hormuz to reach the Indian Ocean.

Syria is a Mediterranean country, with ports at Tartus and Latakia — it never touches the Persian Gulf. Egypt borders the Mediterranean and the Red Sea; its ships reach the Indian Ocean via the Suez Canal and Bab-el-Mandeb, not Hormuz.

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Questions 31–40

31.Geography

Tungurahua Volcano, which was declared a Global Geopark by UNESCO in 2025, is situated in which one among the following countries?

(a)Ecuador
(b)Peru
(c)Bolivia
(d)Colombia

Answer: (a) Ecuador

Tungurahua is an active stratovolcano in Ecuador’s Cordillera Oriental, about 140 km south of Quito. UNESCO named it a new Global Geopark on 10 April 2025, alongside Ecuador’s Napo Sumaco site.

Peru, Bolivia and Colombia all have their own famous volcanoes — Misti and Ubinas, Sajama and Parinacota, Nevado del Ruiz and Galeras — but none of them is Tungurahua.

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32.Environment & Ecology

With reference to Madhav National Park, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1.It was declared a Tiger Reserve in India in 2025.
2.Sakhya Sagar, which is designated as a Ramsar Site, is situated within this National Park.
3.Its area is shared between Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan.

(a)1 only
(b)1 and 2
(c)2 and 3
(d)3 only

Answer: (b) 1 and 2

Statement 3 is wrong: the park lies entirely within Madhya Pradesh, not shared with Rajasthan. Statements 1 (2025 Tiger Reserve) and 2 (Sakhya Sagar Ramsar Site) are correct.

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33.Geography

With reference to the climate of Andaman and Nicobar Islands, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1.The climate can be defined as a humid, tropical coastal climate.
2.It receives rainfall from both South-west monsoon and North-east monsoon.
3.Maximum precipitation is between December and May.

(a)1 only
(b)1 and 2
(c)2 and 3
(d)3 only

Answer: (b) 1 and 2

Statement 1 is correct. The Andaman and Nicobar Islands have a humid, tropical coastal climate.

Statement 2 is correct. The islands receive rain from both the Southwest Monsoon (late May-September) and the Northeast Monsoon (October-December) — unlike most of mainland India, which dries out in winter.

Statement 3 is false. Peak rainfall runs from May through December, not December to May; annual rainfall ranges from about 3,000mm to 3,500mm depending on the station.

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34.Geography

Which of the following geographical features or phenomena is/are associated with the Peninsular Block of India?

1.Submergence of parts of the western coast due to tectonic activity
2.Presence of residual mountain ranges such as the Veliconda hills and Mahendragiri hills
3.Deep, V-shaped river valleys formed by fast-flowing rivers

(a)1 only
(b)1 and 2
(c)2 and 3
(d)3 only

Answer: (b) 1 and 2

Statement 1 is correct. The Peninsular Block’s western coast shows real submergence from faulting and tectonic subsidence.

Statement 2 is correct. The block carries residual mountain ranges, including the Veliconda and Mahendragiri hills, worn down by erosion rather than uplifted.

Statement 3 is false. Deep, V-shaped valleys are a Himalayan feature, cut by young, fast-flowing rivers. Peninsular rivers are old and mature, and form broad, shallow valleys instead.

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35.Economy

Consider the following statements with reference to the Sagarmala Programme of the Government of “India”:

I.The Sagarmala Programme seeks to achieve port-led economic growth through cost-effective and sustainable coastal infrastructure.
II.The success of the Sagarmala Programme is reflected in significant growth in coastal and inland waterway shipping, along with improved global port rankings.
III.Sagarmala 2.0 aims to position India as a global maritime innovation hub aligned with Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat 2047 visions.

Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct?

1.Statement II validates the effectiveness of the strategies envisioned in statement I.
2.Statement III extends the objectives of statement I by embedding them into a future-oriented innovation framework.
3.Statement I contradicts statement III by focusing only on traditional infrastructure instead of modern innovation.

(a)1 only
(b)1 and 2
(c)2 and 3
(d)3 only

Answer: (b) 1 and 2

Statement II validates the effectiveness of the strategies in statement I — growth in coastal/inland waterway shipping and better port rankings are the real-world results of Sagarmala’s port-led infrastructure push.

Statement III also holds: Sagarmala 2.0 extends statement I’s objectives into a future-oriented innovation framework, aligned with Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat 2047. Statement I does not contradict statement III — the two build on each other rather than opposing.

36.Environment & Ecology

Consider the following statements about Rhynchostylis retusa (Foxtail orchid) :

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1.It is an epiphytic orchid.
2.The species is endemic to North-east India.
3.It is the State flower of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam.

(a)1 only
(b)1 and 3
(c)2 and 3
(d)3 only

Answer: (b) 1 and 3

The foxtail orchid is a monopodial epiphyte, so statement 1 is correct. It is the official state flower of both Assam and Arunachal Pradesh, so statement 3 is correct too.

Statement 2 is wrong. The species is not endemic to North-east India — its range spans the Indian subcontinent, Nepal, Bhutan, Sri Lanka, Myanmar, Thailand, Malaysia, Indonesia and the Philippines.

37.History & Culture

Which one of the following statements with regard to the Moidams, built by the Tai-Ahom kingdom and inscribed as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO, is/are correct?

1.They acted as army fortresses.
2.They were recreation centres of the Royals and Nobles.
3.They were burial grounds of the Royals and Nobles.
4.They were battle drill centres of the Royals and Nobles.

(a)1 only
(b)1 and 3
(c)3 only
(d)2 and 4

Answer: (c) 3 only

The Moidams, near Charaideo, Assam, are the royal mound-burial necropolis of the Tai-Ahom dynasty, built over roughly 600 years (13th–19th century CE). UNESCO inscribed them as a World Heritage Site on 26 July 2024, India’s 43rd entry.

Statement 3 is correct: they were burial grounds of Royals and Nobles. Statements 1, 2, and 4 are false — the Moidams were never fortresses, recreation centres, or battle drill centres.

38.Environment & Ecology

At the United Nations Ocean Conference (UNOC) held in June, 2025 in France, the Food and Agricultural Organization (FAO) of the United Nations demonstrated its leading voice on marine and ocean issues, especially on sustainable fisheries and aquaculture for resilient livelihood and “Blue Transformation”. Which of the following combinations about the “Four Betters” proposed by FAO for “Blue Transformation” is correct?

(a)Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better ocean
(b)Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better life
(c)Better coral reefs, better nutrition, better environment and better life
(d)Better estuaries, better nutrition, better environment and better mangrove vegetation

Answer: (b) Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better life

These are the “Four Betters” from FAO’s Strategic Framework 2022-31, applied here to its Blue Transformation agenda for fisheries and aquaculture, presented at UNOC 2025 in Nice, France.

Option (a) swaps in “better ocean” for “better life,” which isn’t one of FAO’s four official terms. Options (c) and (d) replace “better production” with invented, ocean-flavoured terms (“better coral reefs”, “better estuaries”) that aren’t part of the actual framework.

39.Geography

Which of the following statements with reference to Lake Turkana is/are correct?

1.It is the largest desert lake in the world.
2.The lake is situated in South Sudan along the eastern fringe of the Sahara desert.
3.The lake is listed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site and is also referred to as the ‘Jade Sea’.

(a)1 only
(b)1 and 3 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only

Statement 1 is correct. Lake Turkana is the world’s largest permanent desert lake.

Statement 2 is false. The lake lies mainly in northern Kenya, not South Sudan, and sits in the East African Rift Valley, not near the Sahara desert.

Statement 3 is correct. The Lake Turkana National Parks are a UNESCO World Heritage Site, and the lake is nicknamed the Jade Sea for its green colour.

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40.Environment & Ecology

Which one of the following is the first Plan Vivo certified Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation (REDD+) project in India?

(a)Uttarakhand REDD+ project
(b)ICFRE-ICIMOD Transboundary REDD+ project in North-Eastern Himalayas
(c)Khasi Hills Community REDD+ project
(d)Sikkim Mamley Kamrang Community REDD+ project

Answer: (c) Khasi Hills Community REDD+ project

In East Khasi Hills, Meghalaya, this project was certified under the Plan Vivo standard in 2013 — India’s first. It is managed by a federation of 10 indigenous Khasi tribal kingdoms and protects roughly 27,000 hectares of cloud forest and sacred groves.

The other three options name real Indian REDD+ initiatives, but none holds the “first Plan Vivo certified” distinction — that belongs specifically to Khasi Hills.

Questions 41–50

41.Science & Tech

Which of the following statements with regard to genetic medicine is/are correct?

1.Genetic medicines correct/compensate for the faulty genes responsible for disease.
2.Engineered viruses and lipid nanoparticles are used as carriers of the genetic medicine.
3.Genetic medicines alter the entire DNA sequence.

(a)1 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 2 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only

Genetic medicine targets the specific faulty gene behind a disease, so statement 1 is correct. Both engineered viruses (viral vectors) and lipid nanoparticles are real carrier mechanisms used to deliver genetic medicine, so statement 2 is correct too.

Statement 3 is wrong. Genetic medicine corrects, replaces, or silences specific defective genes — it does not alter a patient’s entire DNA sequence.

42.Science & Tech

Which of the following statements with regard to Large Language Models (LLMs) used in machine learning is/are correct?

1.LLMs assign probabilities to the next possible words and then pick the one with the highest probability.
2.LLMs process data through mathematical optimization to minimise prediction errors.
3.LLMs produce unbiased outputs.

(a)1 only
(b)1 and 2 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only

Statement 1 is correct. LLMs assign a probability to every possible next token and select the highest-probability one.

Statement 2 is correct. LLMs are trained via mathematical optimization (gradient descent) to minimise prediction error.

Statement 3 is false. LLMs do not produce unbiased outputs — they learn only from their training data, and inherit whatever imbalances exist in it.

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43.Science & Tech

Which of the following statements with regard to stealth technology is/are correct?

1.Stealth objects have a very small radar cross-section and are coated with Radar Absorbing Material.
2.Stealth objects can be detected using specific frequencies.
3.Stealth objects are coated with metamaterials to increase the scattering of electromagnetic radiation.

(a)1 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 2 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only

Statement 1 is correct. Stealth objects have a very small radar cross-section, achieved via shaping and Radar Absorbing Material coatings.

Statement 2 is correct. Stealth objects can be detected at specific frequencies — low-frequency VHF/UHF radar, where stealth shaping loses much of its effect.

Statement 3 is false. Metamaterials in stealth applications reduce or redirect scattering, not increase it.

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44.Science & Tech

Which of the following statements with regard to Black Boxes used in modern aircrafts is/are correct?

1.They carry a beacon emitting red light pulses to facilitate underwater detection.
2.They record both the cockpit voice and flight data.
3.Their memory units are made using either stainless steel or titanium.

(a)1 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 2 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Black boxes do carry both a cockpit voice and flight data recorder, and their memory units really are housed in stainless steel or titanium — so statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Statement 1 is wrong. The underwater locator beacon emits an ultrasonic acoustic pulse, around 37.5 kHz, not a red light — visible light cannot travel far underwater.

45.Environment & Ecology

Which of the following statements with regard to Green Hydrogen is/are correct?

1.It is decarbonized hydrogen obtained from natural gas reforming combined with carbon capture and storage (CCS).
2.It is produced using electrolysis of water with electricity generated by renewable energy.
3.National Green Hydrogen Mission of India aims for abatement of nearly 50 MMT of annual greenhouse gas emissions by 2030.

(a)1 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)2 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Statement 1 describes blue hydrogen (natural gas reforming + CCS), not green hydrogen.

Statement 2 is correct: green hydrogen means electrolysis of water powered by renewable electricity. Statement 3 is correct: the National Green Hydrogen Mission targets abatement of nearly 50 MMT of annual emissions by 2030.

46.Science & Tech

Consider the following statements with regard to involvement of private entities in India’s space “programme”:

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1.The Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe) is an autonomous agency formed to facilitate participation of private entities.
2.Agnikul Cosmos launched the world’s first flight using 3D-printed rocket engine.
3.Skyroot Aerospace has developed liquid fuel for GSLV.

(a)1 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 2 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only

Statement 1 is correct. IN-SPACe (2020) is an autonomous, single-window agency that authorises and facilitates private-sector participation in India’s space activities.

Statement 2 is correct. Agnikul Cosmos’s May 2024 Agnibaan SOrTeD launch used a single-piece, fully 3D-printed engine, the world’s first flight of its kind.

Statement 3 is false. Skyroot Aerospace’s Vikram-S used solid-fuel propulsion, not liquid fuel developed for ISRO’s GSLV.

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47.Science & Tech

Which of the following statements with regard to drone swarms is/are correct?

1.They use Terahertz band of frequency to communicate with the command centre.
2.Individual drones in the swarm can communicate with other drones in the swarm.
3.GPS Spoofing is a commonly used technique to counter drone swarm attack.

(a)1 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 2 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Individual drones in a swarm do communicate with each other over a mesh network, and GPS spoofing really is a common technique used to counter drone swarm attacks — so statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Statement 1 is wrong. Drone swarms link to their command centre using standard RF bands or satellite communications, not the Terahertz band — that band is only researched for short-range drone-to-drone links.

48.Science & Tech

Which of the following statements with regard to GenomeIndia Project is/are correct?

1.It is a part of the Human Genome Project.
2.The project is funded by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Government of India.
3.Its primary aim is to build a catalogue of genetic diversity of the Indian population.

(a)1 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 2 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

The GenomeIndia Project is funded by the Department of Biotechnology, and its primary aim really is to build a catalogue of the genetic diversity of the Indian population — so statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Statement 1 is wrong. GenomeIndia is an independent Indian initiative, launched in 2020 — it is not part of the earlier international Human Genome Project (1990-2003).

49.Science & Tech

Which of the following statements with regard to the National Quantum Mission (NQM) is/are correct?

1.It aims at developing intermediate-scale quantum computers with 50–1000 physical qubits.
2.Its implementation includes setting up of four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) in academic and national R&D institutes across India.

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Both statements are correct. The NQM aims to build intermediate-scale quantum computers, scaling from 20-50 qubits in three years to up to 1,000 qubits within eight years.

Its implementation includes four Thematic Hubs: Quantum Computing at IISc Bengaluru, Quantum Communication at IIT Madras, Quantum Sensing and Metrology at IIT Bombay, and Quantum Materials and Devices at IIT Delhi.

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50.Science & Tech

Which of the following statements with regard to India’s Deep Ocean Mission is/are correct?

1.It was launched by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, Government of India.
2.Matsya–6000 has been designed to carry 3 people for deep sea exploration.
3.Samudrayaan is a project under this mission.

(a)1 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 2 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Matsya-6000 really is designed to carry three people for deep-sea exploration, and Samudrayaan really is a project under the Deep Ocean Mission — so statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Statement 1 is wrong. The Deep Ocean Mission was launched by the Ministry of Earth Sciences, not the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways.

Questions 51–60

51.Ethics & Aptitude

Mr. X, a senior officer, was overseeing a critical vaccination programme during a pandemic. He found that a private service provider responsible for vaccine distribution was compromising on quality to make profits. Despite immense pressure to manage the issue due to vested interests, he raised his voice based on the principles of public administration which he learnt during various training programmes attended across his career. He reported the issue to the appropriate vigilance authority and halted the contract to ensure citizen welfare.

Which one among the following principles of public administration was most strongly demonstrated by Mr. X’s actions?

(a)Esprit de corps
(b)Equity
(c)Accountability
(d)Delegation

Answer: (c) Accountability

Mr. X reported the quality lapse to the vigilance authority and halted the contract himself — answering for that decision publicly despite pressure.

Esprit de corps and equity aren’t the issue here; delegation doesn’t apply to Mr. X’s own decision to escalate.

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52.Ethics & Aptitude

In a multi-ethnic district where both economic competition and historical grievances frequently led to community tensions, a flashpoint has arisen with a Government decision to allocate land for a waste management facility near a tribal hamlet, sparking protests by the tribal community, which claimed that the land was sacred and critical to their cultural identity. At the same time, urban residents and local industries supported the project, citing severe solid waste challenges and health concerns due to lack of a proper disposal site. The conflict has escalated with road blockades, social media campaigns, and allegations of police excesses.

As a responsible Government official, you are tasked with resolving the situation through mediation, ensuring a sustainable outcome that balances environmental needs, tribal rights, and urban public health. Consider the following statements with reference to the “above”:

Which of the statements given above would contribute to the resolution process?

1.A successful conflict resolution process must begin with acknowledging the cultural concerns of the protesting tribal community before discussing technical alternatives.
2.The Government should move ahead with the project without delay to address urban health concerns, which outweigh the sentiments of a small group.
3.Creating a multi-stakeholder dialogue platform — including tribal leaders, environmental experts, and municipal representatives — to build mutual understanding and help de-escalate tensions.
4.Conducting an independent Environmental and Social Impact Assessment (ESIA) and sharing findings transparently with both sides to facilitate evidence-based decision-making.

(a)1, 3 and 4 only
(b)2, 3 and 4 only
(c)1 and 2 only
(d)1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (a) 1, 3 and 4 only

Statements 1, 3, and 4 are sound mediation principles: acknowledge cultural concerns first, build a multi-stakeholder dialogue platform, and run an independent, transparent ESIA.

Statement 2 abandons mediation entirely — moving ahead without delay and dismissing the tribal community’s concerns would deepen the conflict, not resolve it.

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53.Ethics & Aptitude

Ms. X is a mid-level civil service official working in the urban development department of a major city. Recently, she was involved in approving a contract for a public infrastructure project — a new community park. During the approval process, she received a piece of confidential information indicating that one of the shortlisted contractors had a history of poor workmanship and allegations of corruption in other cities, though nothing had been legally proven. The Head of the Department, Mr. Y, advised her not to disclose this information to the project committee or the public because it could delay the project and damage the city’s reputation. However, Ms. X believed that withholding such information compromised transparency and public trust.

What amongst the following should Ms. X do now?

1.Immediately disclose the information to the project committee and the public
2.Recommend removing the contractor from the shortlist to protect the project’s integrity
3.Propose a ‘limited disclosure’ to an oversight committee, while keeping the information confidential from the public for the time being

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)3 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 3 only

Limited disclosure to an oversight committee, without going public yet, is the proportionate response to an unproven allegation.

Immediate public disclosure risks unfairly damaging reputation before investigation; outright removal skips due process based on unproven claims alone.

View this question →

54.Polity & Governance

‘X’ was addressing a seminar on the meaning of the term ‘law’ as provided under Article 13, Part III of the Constitution of India. ‘X’ explained that the meaning of the term ‘law’ in the Constitution of India was very comprehensive. It included ordinances, orders and even rules and regulations. ‘Y’ pointed out that the term ‘law’ in Article 13 also included custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law, to which ‘X’ was not convinced.

Based on the above, select the correct conclusion from the options given “below”:

(a)‘X’ is correct in the interpretation of law, including the view on non-inclusion of custom.
(b)The view of ‘Y’ that ‘law’ included custom is not correct.
(c)The views of both ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are correct.
(d)The view of only ‘Y’ is correct.

Answer: (d) The view of only ‘Y’ is correct

Article 13(3)(a) of the Constitution defines “law” to explicitly include any Ordinance, order, bye-law, rule, regulation, notification, custom or usage having the force of law in India.

‘Y’ is entirely correct that custom or usage is covered. ‘X’s skepticism about that inclusion is wrong, even though X was right that the definition covers ordinances, orders, rules, and regulations.

55.Polity & Governance

Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitution of “India”:

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

1.There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Constitution of India will be officially called the ‘Constitution of India’.
2.There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935 stand repealed.
3.There is no Article in the Constitution of India that mentions 26^th January, 1950 as the date of the commencement of the Constitution of India.

(a)All three statements are correct.
(b)There is no correct statement.
(c)There are two correct statements that include statement 3.
(d)There is only one correct statement.

Answer: (b) There is no correct statement

All three statements are false. Article 393 does name the document “the Constitution of India.” Article 395 does repeal both the Indian Independence Act, 1947, and the Government of India Act, 1935. And Article 394 does mention 26 January 1950 as the date of commencement.

Each statement wrongly claims that a specific fact is missing from the Constitution’s text, when in fact each fact sits in its own citable Article, in Part XXII.

56.Polity & Governance

Which of the following statements with regard to the persons with disabilities in India is/are correct?

1.The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, an Act passed by the Parliament of India in 2018, mandates reservation in education and employment, places a legal duty on Governments to ensure accessibility and non-discrimination.
2.The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan focuses on achieving universal accessibility for Persons with Disabilities across three key domains — built infrastructure, transport systems and information and communication technology.
3.The National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) is a public sector organisation set up by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs as a not-for-profit company to promote entrepreneurship among Persons with Disabilities (PwDs).

(a)1 and 2
(b)2 only
(c)1 and 3
(d)1 only

Answer: (b) 2 only

Statement 2 is correct. Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan does target universal accessibility across built infrastructure, transport systems, and ICT.

Statement 1 is wrong on its date — the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act was passed in 2016, not 2018. Statement 3 is wrong on its ministry — NDFDC sits under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, not the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.

57.Polity & Governance

Consider the following statements about the provisions pertaining to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in “India”:

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

1.Provisions regarding the administration of the Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are given in the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
2.Some tribes of India are entitled to exemption from paying Income Tax on certain incomes.
3.The Constitution of India provides for reservation of seats in Panchayats for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.

(a)There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.
(b)There are two correct statements, that are statements 1 and 3.
(c)There is only one correct statement.
(d)All three statements are correct.

Answer: (a) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.

Statement 1 is a trap: tribal-area administration in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram falls under the Sixth Schedule (Articles 244(2) and 275(1)), not the Fifth Schedule, which covers Scheduled Areas in states like Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand. Statement 2 is correct: Section 10(26) of the Income Tax Act exempts Scheduled Tribe members in specified areas from tax on certain income. Statement 3 is correct: Article 243D reserves Panchayat seats for SC/ST women. So two statements (2 and 3) are correct, and the set includes statement 2 — matching option (a).

58.Polity & Governance

Consider the following statements in respect of questions asked by the Members in the Parliament of “India”:

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

1.Unstarred questions are those to which a Member desires an oral answer in the House.
2.Starred questions are those to which a Member desires a written answer.
3.No supplementary question can be asked on an unstarred question.

(a)All the three statements are correct.
(b)There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.
(c)There is only one correct statement.
(d)There is no correct statement.

Answer: (c) There is only one correct statement.

Statements 1 and 2 are swapped from the real definitions. A starred question (not unstarred) gets an oral answer, with supplementary questions allowed. An unstarred question (not starred) gets only a written answer. So statements 1 and 2 are both false. Statement 3 is correct: no supplementary question is allowed on an unstarred question, since it only gets a written reply. Only one statement (3) is correct, matching option (c).

59.Polity & Governance

Consider the following statements about the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes of the Parliament of “India”:

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

1.Although members of this Committee are elected from both Houses of Parliament, the Chairperson of this Committee is appointed by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
2.Twenty members are elected by the Rajya Sabha and ten members by the Lok Sabha.
3.No Minister, except for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment, is eligible to be a member of this Committee.
4.Members are elected for a fixed term of two years from the date they enter their office.

(a)There are four correct statements.
(b)There is only one correct statement, that is statement 2.
(c)There are two correct statements, that include statement 1.
(d)There is no correct statement.

Answer: (d) There is no correct statement.

All four statements are wrong. The Chairperson is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, not the Rajya Sabha Chairman (statement 1 false). The split is 20 Lok Sabha, 10 Rajya Sabha members, the reverse of what statement 2 claims (false). No Minister at all is eligible for membership, with no exception for any specific Minister (statement 3 false). The term is one year, not two (statement 4 false). So none of the four statements is correct.

60.Int’l Relations & Defence

Consider the following statements about Mission Sudarshan Chakra of “India”:

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1.It aims to enhance India’s air defence, ballistic missile defence and aerial offensive capabilities.
2.This Mission is being designed to enhance rapid, precise, and powerful defence responses, reinforcing India’s strategic autonomy.
3.One of the aims of this Mission is to cover all public places of India by an expanded nationwide security shield by 2035.

(a)1, 2 and 3
(b)1 and 2 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1 only

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3

All three statements are accurate. Mission Sudarshan Chakra, announced by PM Modi on 15 August 2025, explicitly targets air defence, ballistic missile defence, and aerial offensive capability (statement 1). It is designed for rapid, precise, powerful defence responses that reinforce strategic autonomy (statement 2). And it does have a genuine, officially stated goal of an expanded nationwide security shield covering all public places by 2035, rolled out in stages (statement 3).

Questions 61–70

61.Geography

Consider the following statements about river bridges connecting India with neighbouring “countries”:

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1.‘Maitri Setu’, built over Feni river, connects Ramgarh in India with Sabroom in Bangladesh.
2.Jhulaghat suspension bridge connects India with Myanmar.
3.Mechi bridge and its approaches connect Panitanki Bypass in India with Kakarvitta in Nepal.

(a)1 and 2
(b)2 and 3
(c)1 only
(d)3 only

Answer: (d) 3 only

Statement 1 has the countries reversed: Maitri Setu actually connects Sabroom (Tripura, India) with Ramgarh (Bangladesh). Statement 2 is wrong: Jhulaghat connects India with Nepal, not Myanmar.

Statement 3 is correct: Mechi bridge connects Panitanki Bypass (India) with Kakarvitta, Nepal.

62.Polity & Governance

Which of the following statements about a Zero First Information Report (Zero FIR) under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 is/are correct?

1.A Zero FIR can be lodged at a police station, even though the place of commission of a cognizable/non-cognizable offence is outside the territorial jurisdiction of that police station.
2.The Officer-in-Charge of the police station where a Zero FIR has been lodged may, with the permission of the competent authority, initiate a preliminary enquiry.
3.Under Zero FIR, it is obligatory for the informant to furnish information electronically.

(a)1, 2 and 3
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 only
(d)2 only

Answer: (c) 1 only

Statement 1 is correct: BNSS Section 173 lets a Zero FIR be registered at any police station regardless of territorial jurisdiction. Statement 2 is a subtler trap: the zero-FIR-receiving station, which by definition lacks jurisdiction, has no independent power to initiate a preliminary enquiry — that power belongs only to the station with actual territorial jurisdiction, and only after the Zero FIR is transferred and re-registered. Statement 3 is false: electronic filing under Section 173(1) is one optional channel among oral and written reporting, never obligatory. So only statement 1 is correct.

63.Polity & Governance

With reference to the organisations under the Government of India, consider the following “details”:

Organisation, function and controlling Union Ministry
Sl. No.	Organisation	Function	Controlling Union Ministry
1.	Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB)	To coordinate between various law enforcement agencies	Ministry of Home Affairs
2.	Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO)	To investigate complex corporate frauds	Ministry of Finance
3.	Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)	To preserve values in public life and ensure the health of the national economy	Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pension

In how many of the above rows are the given details correctly matched?

(a)1
(b)2
(c)3
(d)None

Answer: (d) None

All three rows are wrong. CEIB actually sits under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, not Home Affairs, and it coordinates economic intelligence specifically, not law enforcement agencies broadly. SFIO sits under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, not Finance. The CBI’s controlling ministry (Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions) is correct, but its stated function is misattributed — “preserve values in public life and ensure the health of the national economy” is the Central Vigilance Commission’s stated mission, not the CBI’s. The CBI actually investigates corruption, economic offences, and serious organised crime. So none of the three rows is fully correct.

64.Int’l Relations & Defence

Which of the following international conventions have not been ratified by India?

1.Employment Policy Convention
2.Abolition of Forced Labour Convention
3.International Convention on the Protection of the Rights of All Migrant Workers and Members of Their Families
4.Geneva Convention Relative to the Protection of Civilian Persons in Time of War
5.Convention on Reduction of Statelessness

(a)2 and 4
(b)1 and 2
(c)3 and 4 only
(d)3, 4 and 5

Question withdrawn by UPSC — no official answer awarded

UPSC itself pulled this question from scoring in its provisional answer key, because it is factually flawed. Verified independently: India has ratified the Employment Policy Convention (ILO C122, 1998), the Abolition of Forced Labour Convention (ILO C105, 2000), and the Fourth Geneva Convention on civilian protection (1950). India has not ratified the UN Migrant Workers Convention (1990) or the UN Convention on Reduction of Statelessness (1961). So the factually correct combination is “3 and 5” — a combination none of the four given options actually state, which is exactly why UPSC withdrew it.

65.Int’l Relations & Defence

Consider the following statements with respect to the AI Impact Summit, 2026 held in New “Delhi”:

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1.The Summit’s intellectual framework was based on three foundational “Sutras”: People, Planning, and Progress.
2.The Preamble of the Summit stresses Democratising AI Resources, which acknowledges the Charter for Democratic Diffusion of AI as a binding framework to support locally relevant innovation and strengthen resilient AI ecosystems while respecting national laws.
3.The New Delhi Declaration on AI Impact was structured around seven Chakras (Pillars), which included Access for Social Empowerment, AI for Science, and Secure and Trusted AI.

(a)1, 2 and 3
(b)1 and 2 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)3 only

Answer: (d) 3 only

Statement 1 is wrong: the three Sutras are People, Planet, and Progress, not “Planning.” Statement 2 is wrong: the Charter for Democratic Diffusion of AI is voluntary and non-binding.

Statement 3 is correct: seven Chakras (Pillars), including Access for Social Empowerment, AI for Science, and Secure and Trusted AI.

66.Int’l Relations & Defence

Which of the following connectivity projects is/are a part of cooperation between India and the ASEAN member countries?

1.Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project
2.IMT Trilateral Highway
3.Agartala-Akhaura Rail Line

(a)1 and 2
(b)2 and 3
(c)1 and 3
(d)2 only

Answer: (a) 1 and 2

The Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project (India–Myanmar) and the IMT Trilateral Highway (India–Myanmar–Thailand) both genuinely connect India to ASEAN member states, since Myanmar and Thailand are both in ASEAN. The Agartala-Akhaura Rail Line connects India to Bangladesh, which belongs to BIMSTEC and SAARC, not ASEAN — so it does not count as India-ASEAN cooperation, despite the superficial similarity.

67.Int’l Relations & Defence

Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the “Lists”:

List I (Project Supported by India)	List II (Country)
A. Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project	1. Maldives
B. Restoration of Stor Palace	2. Afghanistan
C. District Hospital at Dickoya	3. Bhutan
D. Institute of Security and Law Enforcement Studies	4. Sri Lanka

Code :

	A	B	C	D
(a)	1	4	2	3
(b)	3	2	4	1
(c)	3	4	2	1
(d)	1	2	4	3

Answer: (b) A-3 B-2 C-4 D-1

Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project — Bhutan. Restoration of Stor Palace (Kabul) — Afghanistan. District Hospital at Dickoya — Sri Lanka. Institute of Security and Law Enforcement Studies — Maldives.

68.Int’l Relations & Defence

Which of the following items of defence hardware is/are manufactured in India?

1.Su-30 MKI Fighter Jets
2.T-90 MK-III Tanks
3.Akula Class Submarine

(a)1 and 2
(b)1 and 3
(c)1 only
(d)2 only

Answer: (a) 1 and 2

The Su-30 MKI is license-built in India by HAL at Nashik, and the T-90 MK-III is assembled at Heavy Vehicles Factory, Avadi — both genuinely manufactured in India, with over 50% and over 90% domestic content respectively. The Akula-class submarine is different: it is built at Russia’s Vostok Shipyard and only leased to India (as INS Chakra), never manufactured on Indian soil.

69.Int’l Relations & Defence

Consider the following statements about platforms for multilateral co-“operation”:

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1.The ‘Colombo Process’ is a regional consultative process in which member states take binding decisions by consensus.
2.The ‘Abu Dhabi Dialogue’ is a voluntary non-binding consultative process among Asian countries of labour origin and destination to facilitate regional cooperation on contractual labour mobility.
3.The ‘Global Forum for Migration and Development’, created upon the proposal of a former UN Secretary General, is a voluntary forum whose decisions are non-binding in nature.

(a)1, 2 and 3
(b)1 and 3 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)2 only

Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only

Statement 1 is wrong: Colombo Process is non-binding, decisions by consensus.

Statement 2 is correct: Abu Dhabi Dialogue is voluntary and non-binding. Statement 3 is correct: GFMD, proposed by Kofi Annan in 2006, remains voluntary and non-binding.

70.Int’l Relations & Defence

Consider the following UN organisations/”agencies”:

How many of the above has/have been awarded the Nobel Prize twice?

1.World Food Programme
2.United Nations Children’s Fund
3.United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees
4.International Labour Organisation

(a)1
(b)2
(c)3
(d)4

Answer: (a) 1

Only the United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR) has won the Nobel Peace Prize twice, in 1954 and 1981. World Food Programme (2020), UNICEF (1965), and the International Labour Organisation (1969) have each won it exactly once.

Questions 71–80

71.Int’l Relations & Defence

Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the “Lists”:

List I (UN Peacekeeping Operation)	List II (Period of Operation)
A. UNMIL	1. 2007 – 2010
B. MINURCAT	2. 2002 – 2005
C. MINUSTAH	3. 2003 – 2018
D. UNMISET	4. 2004 – 2017

Code :

	A	B	C	D
(a)	3	4	1	2
(b)	3	1	4	2
(c)	2	1	4	3
(d)	2	4	1	3

Answer: (b) A-3 B-1 C-4 D-2

UNMIL (Liberia): 2003-2018. MINURCAT (Chad/CAR): 2007-2010. MINUSTAH (Haiti): 2004-2017. UNMISET (East Timor): 2002-2005.

View this question →

72.Int’l Relations & Defence

Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the “Lists”:

List I (BIMSTEC Centre/Establishment)	List II (Location)
A. BIMSTEC Cultural Industries Observatory	1. NOIDA
B. BIMSTEC Energy Centre	2. Bengaluru
C. BIMSTEC Centre for Weather and Climate	3. Colombo
D. BIMSTEC Technology Transfer Facility	4. Thimphu

Code :

	A	B	C	D
(a)	3	2	1	4
(b)	3	1	2	4
(c)	4	2	1	3
(d)	4	1	2	3

Answer: (c) A-4 B-2 C-1 D-3

The BIMSTEC Cultural Industries Observatory is hosted in Thimphu, Bhutan (A-4). The BIMSTEC Energy Centre is hosted in Bengaluru, India (B-2). The BIMSTEC Centre for Weather and Climate is hosted in NOIDA, India (C-1). The BIMSTEC Technology Transfer Facility is hosted in Colombo, Sri Lanka (D-3). Each of BIMSTEC's specialised technical centres is deliberately spread across a different member state, not concentrated in India.

Related: IntlRel0078 — BIMSTEC.

73.Int’l Relations & Defence

Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

Indian Army Corps	Headquarters
(a) 3 Corps	Dimapur
(b) 4 Corps	Tezpur
(c) 14 Corps	Leh
(d) 33 Corps	Srinagar

Answer: (d) 33 Corps — Srinagar

33 Corps is actually headquartered at Sukna, near Siliguri, West Bengal — not Srinagar. Srinagar is 15 Corps’ headquarters.

View this question →

74.Polity & Governance

Which of the following statements with respect to the Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) is/are correct?

1.The period of its implementation is 1^st April, 2021 to 31^st March, 2026.
2.The key objective of the Revamped RGSA is to develop the governance capabilities of the Panchayati Raj Institutions to deliver on the Sustainable Development Goals.
3.The share of the Central funding for the Revamped RGSA is 100% for all States and Union Territories.

(a)1 and 2
(b)2 only
(c)1 and 3
(d)2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 only

Statement 1 is wrong on the dates: the Revamped RGSA actually runs from 1 April 2022 to 31 March 2026 (co-terminus with the 15th Finance Commission), not from 2021. Statement 2 is correct: developing PRI governance capability to deliver the SDGs is the scheme’s key objective. Statement 3 is wrong: RGSA funding is cost-shared, not uniformly 100% Central — general states get 60:40, North-Eastern/hill states (and J&K) get 90:10, and only Union Territories without a legislature get full 100% Central funding.

75.Int’l Relations & Defence

Which of the following countries are members of the European Union?

1.Belarus
2.Poland
3.Germany
4.Switzerland

(a)1, 2 and 4
(b)1 and 4 only
(c)2 and 3
(d)2 and 4 only

Answer: (c) 2 and 3

Poland and Germany are genuine EU member states. Switzerland has never joined the EU, relying instead on neutrality and bilateral treaties. Belarus has never applied for EU membership and is not aligned with EU institutions.

76.Polity & Governance

Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the “Lists”:

List I (INTERPOL Notice)	List II (Description)
A. Silver Notice	1. To seek information on unidentified bodies
B. Blue Notice	2. To collect additional information about a person’s identity, location, or activities in relation to a criminal investigation
C. Black Notice	3. To provide warning about a person’s criminal activities, where the person is considered to be a possible threat to public safety
D. Green Notice	4. To identify and trace criminal assets

Code :

	A	B	C	D
(a)	3	1	2	4
(b)	3	2	1	4
(c)	4	2	1	3
(d)	4	1	2	3

Answer: (c) A-4 B-2 C-1 D-3

Silver Notice traces criminal assets (A-4). Blue Notice collects identity/location/activity information (B-2). Black Notice seeks information on unidentified bodies (C-1). Green Notice warns of a person’s criminal activities and possible threat to public safety (D-3).

77.Environment & Ecology

Which of the following statements in relation to NIRANTAR (National Institute for Research and Application of Natural Resources to Transform, Adapt and Build Resilience), a platform of institutions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, is/are correct?

1.Ecosystem Survey and Analysis is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Botanical Survey of India, Kolkata.
2.Research and Management of Ecosystem Service is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Central Zoo Authority, New Delhi.
3.Capacity Development Support is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Indian Institute of Forest Management, Bhopal.

(a)1, 2 and 3
(b)1 and 3 only
(c)2 only
(d)3 only

Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only

Statement 1 correct: Ecosystem Survey and Analysis is led by Botanical Survey of India, Kolkata. Statement 3 correct: Capacity Development Support is led by IIFM, Bhopal.

Statement 2 wrong: Research and Management of Ecosystem Service is led by ICFRE, Dehradun, not Central Zoo Authority.

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78.Int’l Relations & Defence

The Chancellor of the Federal Republic of Germany visited India in January, 2026. Which of the following is/are not correct in terms of outcomes of this visit?

1.Signing of a Memorandum of Understanding between the All India Institute of Ayurveda and the University of Hamburg
2.Signing of a Memorandum of Understanding on Youth Hockey Development between Hockey India and the German Hockey Federation
3.Establishment of a bilateral dialogue mechanism on the Indo-Pacific
4.Opening of an Honorary Consul of Germany in Lucknow

(a)2 and 3
(b)1 and 4
(c)3 and 4
(d)1 only

Answer: (b) 1 and 4

Statement 1 wrong: AIIA’s MoU was with Charité Berlin, not the University of Hamburg. Statement 4 wrong: the Honorary Consul opened in Ahmedabad, not Lucknow.

Statements 2 and 3 both really happened.

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79.Science & Tech

Which of the following statements about DHRUV64 is/are correct?

1.It is the third chip fabricated under the DIR-V Programme with an overall aim to enable the creation of microprocessors for India.
2.It is India’s first homegrown 1·0 GHz, 64-bit dual-core microprocessor.

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

DHRUV64, launched December 2025, is indeed the third chip under the DIR-V Programme, following THEJAS32 and THEJAS64. It is also confirmed as India’s first homegrown 1.0 GHz, 64-bit, dual-core microprocessor, built on the VEGA AS2161 core.

80.Science & Tech

The Bureau of Indian Standard (BIS) recently introduced a national standard to test and assess bomb disposal system. Which of the following statements with regard to this system is/are correct?

1.The new standard is known as IS 19445 : 2025.
2.It will improve interoperability of equipment across agencies.
3.It was developed by TBRL, DRDO in collaboration with the 30^th Central Scientific Research Institute, Russia.

(a)1, 2 and 3
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 2 only
(d)1 only

Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only

Statements 1 and 2 are correct: the standard is IS 19445:2025, and it aims to improve interoperability of bomb disposal equipment across agencies. Statement 3 is false: IS 19445:2025 was developed by BIS’s Bomb Disposal Systems Panel with input from TBRL/DRDO, NSG, MES, DGQA, and CAPFs — all domestic bodies. There is no collaboration with any Russian institute; that claim has no basis in official sources.

Questions 81–90

81.Science & Tech

‘X’, born in the UK, was conferred the Nobel Prize in 2025. He was a professor in an American university when this prize was announced. Identify ‘X’ :

(a)Michel H. Devoret
(b)Richard Robson
(c)John Clarke
(d)Joel Mokyr

Answer: (c) John Clarke

Born in Cambridge, England, John Clarke is Professor Emeritus of Physics at UC Berkeley. He shared the 2025 Nobel Prize in Physics with Michel Devoret and John Martinis.

Richard Robson is also UK-born but professor at Melbourne, Australia, not a US university. Joel Mokyr is Netherlands-born, US-based.

82.Int’l Relations & Defence

Which of the following statements with regard to the Grand Slam Tennis Tournaments is/are correct?

1.The tournaments have a shared governance structure establishing the partnership among the four Grand Slam tournaments.
2.They are open for entry to all internationally ranked tennis players above the age of 14.
3.There is a limitation on the number of ‘Wild Cards’ a player may receive to compete in a Grand Slam Tournament.

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 only

Statement 1 correct: the four Grand Slams share a governance structure, the Grand Slam Board.

Statement 2 wrong: entry requires a ranking of 500 or better, not just any ranking above age 14. Statement 3 wrong: there is explicitly no limit on Wild Cards.

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83.Economy

Which one of the following pairs of semiconductor plants in India and their locations is not correctly matched?

(a) CG Power and Industrial Solutions Pvt. Ltd. in partnership with Renesas Electronics and STARS Microelectronics	Gujarat
(b) Tata Semiconductor Assembly and Test Pvt. Ltd.	Assam
(c) HCL-Foxconn Joint Venture India Chip Ltd.	Madhya Pradesh
(d) SicSem Pvt. Ltd.	Odisha

Answer: (c) HCL-Foxconn Joint Venture India Chip Ltd. — Madhya Pradesh

The HCL-Foxconn joint venture (India Chip Pvt Ltd) is actually located in Uttar Pradesh, in the YEIDA region near Jewar Airport, not Madhya Pradesh. The other three pairs are correctly matched: CG Power/Renesas/STARS Microelectronics in Gujarat (Sanand), Tata Semiconductor Assembly and Test in Assam (Jagiroad), and SicSem in Odisha (Jatni, near Bhubaneswar).

84.Science & Tech

Which of the following statements with regard to India’s indigenous new high resolution weather model, the ‘Bharat Forecast System,’ is/are correct?

1.Its objective is to generate forecasts at the Panchayats cluster level.
2.It was developed by IIT Delhi.

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Statement 1 is correct: the Bharat Forecast System aims to generate forecasts at the level of a cluster of Panchayats. Statement 2 is false: it was developed by IITM Pune, under the Ministry of Earth Sciences, not IIT Delhi.

85.History & Culture

Consider the following statements with regard to the film ‘Boong’ :

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1.The film has recently won the British Academy of Film and Television Arts (BAFTA) Award in the Children’s and Family Film category.
2.The film is directed by Lakshmipriya Devi.
3.This is the first Indian film to win a BAFTA award in the Children’s and Family Film category.

(a)1, 2 and 3
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 2 only
(d)3 only

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3

All three statements are correct. Boong won the 2026 BAFTA for Best Children’s and Family Film — the first Indian film ever to win in this category — and is directed by Lakshmipriya Devi.

86.Science & Tech

Which of the following statements regarding the features of blockchain technology are correct?

1.Records stored in the database may be made visible to relevant stakeholders without risk of alteration.
2.Copies of the entire database are stored on multiple computers on a network, syncing within seconds.
3.Consortium blockchain is a blend of public and private blockchains allowing selective data access.
4.Mathematical algorithms make it impossible to change or delete any data once recorded and accepted.

(a)1 and 3
(b)2 and 4 only
(c)1, 2 and 4
(d)1 and 4 only

Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 4

Statements 1, 2, and 4 correctly describe blockchain’s transparency, distributed replication, and tamper-resistance. Statement 3 mislabels the definition: “a blend of public and private blockchains allowing selective data access” describes a hybrid blockchain, not a consortium one. A consortium blockchain is defined by joint governance among a pre-selected group of organisations, not by a public/private data blend.

87.Economy

An e-commerce revenue model where the seller has control over pricing but doesn’t keep products in stock and instead transfers customer orders and shipment details to a third-party supplier, who then ships the goods directly to the customer, is “called”:

(a)Dropshipping Model
(b)Affiliate Revenue Model
(c)Transaction Fee Revenue Model
(d)Agency Revenue Model

Answer: (a) Dropshipping Model

The seller sets the price and handles customer service, but never holds inventory — orders get passed to a third-party supplier who ships directly to the customer.

88.Economy

Which one of the following correctly represents the three key sub-indices of the Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?

(a)Credit access, Insurance depth, and Pension coverage
(b)Banking access, GDP contribution, and Financial literacy
(c)Access, Usage, and Quality
(d)Access, Affordability, and Transparency

Answer: (c) Access, Usage, and Quality

RBI’s FI-Index (launched 2021) combines three weighted sub-indices: Access (35%), Usage (45%), Quality (20%).

89.Economy

Which one of the following best describes the key objective of India’s ‘Open Network for Digital Commerce’ (ONDC) initiative?

(a)To allow government control over all digital commerce transactions
(b)To replace private e-commerce players
(c)To break the dominance of large e-commerce platforms by enabling interoperability across networks
(d)To mandate UPI-based payments for all online transactions

Answer: (c) To break the dominance of large e-commerce platforms by enabling interoperability across networks

ONDC makes core e-commerce components interoperable across apps, so buyers/sellers aren’t locked into one dominant platform.

90.Economy

Which one of the following statements about Unified Payments Interface (UPI) and Central Bank Digital Currency (Digital Rupee) is not correct?

(a)UPI is a real-time payment system but Digital Rupee is akin to sovereign paper currency.
(b)In case of UPI, settlement for end users happens instantly as the money gets immediately debited or credited but in case of Digital Rupee, there is no settlement as the wallet balance gets transferred to another wallet.
(c)UPI transactions are recorded by banks and reflected in bank statements but in case of Digital Rupee, no data is captured in bank statements as transactions are from one wallet to another.
(d)In both the cases (UPI and Digital Rupee), the liability lies with the users and their respective banks.

Answer: (d)

Statements (a), (b), and (c) are all accurate. Statement (d) is wrong: UPI moves money held as a commercial bank’s liability, but Digital Rupee held in a wallet is a direct liability of the RBI itself, just like physical cash, not a liability of the user’s bank. This distinction, sovereign liability versus commercial-bank liability, is exactly what the statement collapses.

Questions 91–100

91.Economy

Which of the following statements about Real-World Assets (RWA) Tokenization are correct?

1.Tokenization is the process of turning real world assets into digital tokens using blockchain technology.
2.Tokenization of real world assets offers 24×7 access, promoting financial inclusion.
3.Tokenization of real world assets will allow the access to high growth investment opportunities for individuals in India.

(a)1, 2 and 3
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 2 only
(d)1 and 3 only

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3

All three statements are accurate standard descriptions of RWA tokenization: it converts real-world assets into blockchain-based digital tokens (1), it offers 24×7 trading access that supports financial inclusion (2), and it opens high-growth investment opportunities to individuals in India, particularly through platforms like IFSCA’s GIFT City sandbox (3).

92.Economy

A bond whose proceeds are used only to finance or refinance a combination of both environmental and social projects is “called”:

(a)Green Bond
(b)Social Bond
(c)Sustainability Bond
(d)Sovereign Bond

Answer: (c) Sustainability Bond

A Sustainability Bond finances a combination of both environmental and social projects, per ICMA’s Sustainability Bond Guidelines. A Green Bond funds environmental projects only, a Social Bond funds social projects only, and a Sovereign Bond simply refers to a bond issued by a national government, unrelated to this green/social taxonomy.

93.Economy

Which of the following statements about M1xchange’s role in Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) financing is/are correct?

1.M1xchange provides collateral based loans to MSMEs.
2.M1xchange facilitates discounting of invoices and Bills of Exchange for MSMEs.
3.M1xchange functions as a credit rating agency for MSMEs.

(a)1, 2 and 3
(b)2 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1 only

Answer: (b) 2 only

M1xchange is an RBI-approved TReDS platform. It facilitates discounting of invoices and Bills of Exchange for MSMEs (statement 2), but does not provide collateral-based loans (statement 1 is false) and is not a credit rating agency (statement 3 is false).

94.Economy

Which one of the following best describes the ‘Crowding Out Effect’ in the context of fiscal policy?

(a)A situation where private investment increases due to increased Government spending
(b)A situation where Government borrowing leads to higher interest rates, which reduces private investment
(c)A situation where an increase in taxes leads to increased private sector investment
(d)A situation where Government spending has no impact on aggregate demand

Answer: (b) Government borrowing leads to higher interest rates, which reduces private investment

Heavy government borrowing competes with private firms for loanable funds, pushing up interest rates and discouraging private investment.

95.Economy

Which of the following statements about Rare Earth Elements (REEs) and Critical Minerals is/are correct?

1.Modern technological innovations including Artificial Intelligence, robotics and space exploration extensively utilise Rare Earth Elements (REEs).
2.China has the highest share in mining of REEs followed by India.
3.The Government of India launched the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) in 2025 to establish a robust framework for self-reliance in the critical mineral sector.
4.Rare Earth Elements are a set of 13 metallic elements.

(a)1 and 3 only
(b)3 only
(c)1, 3 and 4
(d)1, 2 and 4

Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only

Statement 2 is wrong: the US is the #2 REE miner, not India. Statement 4 is wrong: REEs are 17 elements, not 13.

96.Economy

Which of the following statements about insurance in aviation sector is/are correct?

1.‘Aviation Hull Insurance’ covers the physical aircraft, including the body, engine, and on-board equipment.
2.Under the Montreal Convention, adopted in 1999 by over 130 countries, including India, airlines are strictly liable to pay compensation to the family/nominee of every deceased passenger without requiring the family to prove fault.

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Aviation Hull Insurance covers the physical aircraft, its engines, and on-board equipment. Under the Montreal Convention, 1999, ratified by over 130 countries including India, airlines are strictly liable to compensate a deceased passenger’s family up to a set limit, without the family needing to prove fault.

97.Economy

Which of the following statements about Crowdfunding is/are correct?

1.Crowdfunding is solicitation of funds (small amount) from multiple investors through a web-based platform or social networking site for a specific project.
2.Small and Medium Enterprises (SMEs) are able to raise funds at lower cost of capital without undergoing rigorous procedures.

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Both statements are standard, correct definitions: crowdfunding pools small sums from many investors via web/social platforms, and it gives SMEs a lower-cost, lower-formality financing route.

98.Economy

With reference to different Committees in India, consider the following “details”:

Sl. No.	Committee	Objective	Organization under which it was formed
1.	R.N. Malhotra Committee	Comprehensive reforms of Insurance sector in India	Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India
2.	L.C. Gupta Committee	Preparing a roadmap for the introduction of derivatives trading in India	Securities and Exchange Board of India
3.	Urjit R. Patel Committee	Preparing a roadmap for reforming bank lending to the Housing sector	Reserve Bank of India
4.	Y.H. Malegam Committee	Preparing a roadmap for reforms in Microfinance sector in India	Reserve Bank of India

In which of the above rows are all the details correctly matched?

(a)2 only
(b)2 and 3
(c)1, 3 and 4
(d)2 and 4

Answer: (d) 2 and 4

Rows 2 (L.C. Gupta, derivatives, SEBI) and 4 (Y.H. Malegam, microfinance, RBI) are correctly matched. Row 1 is wrong: the Malhotra Committee predates IRDA and was formed by the Government of India, not ‘under’ IRDA. Row 3 is wrong: the Urjit Patel Committee dealt with monetary policy framework, not housing-sector lending.

99.Economy

Consider the following statements about the Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in “India”:

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1.NBFCs cannot accept demand deposits.
2.All the NBFCs operating in India have to be registered with the RBI.
3.NBFCs form part of the payment and settlement system and can issue cheque drawn on itself.
4.Deposit insurance facility of Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) is not available to the depositors of deposit taking NBFCs.

(a)1 and 4
(b)1, 2 and 3
(c)4 only
(d)2, 3 and 4

Answer: (a) 1 and 4

NBFCs cannot accept demand deposits, and DICGC deposit insurance is not available to NBFC depositors — both correct. Not all NBFCs must register with the RBI (genuine exemptions exist), and NBFCs do not form part of the payment and settlement system or issue cheques on themselves.

100.Economy

Consider the following statements about Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) :

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1.MPI is calculated using Alkire-Foster methodology.
2.MPI calculated by NITI Aayog has a total of twelve indicators.
3.Maternal Health and Bank Account are common indicators in the MPI of NITI Aayog and MPI of United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)1, 2 and 3
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)2 only

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Statement 3 is wrong: Maternal Health and Bank Account are the two indicators India ADDED beyond UNDP’s version, not shared ones.

English-language questions transcribed from the official Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination, 2026 question booklet (TDMN‑A‑ASO), General Studies Paper I. Hindi text omitted. Answer key not included.

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